Spinal cord ends where?

A. T11–T12
B. L1–L2
C. L3–L4
D. S1–S2

B. L1–L2

On adult spinal MRI, the region below L1/L2 containing only descending nerve roots and no spinal cord is the:

A. filum terminale
B. conus medullaris
C. lumbar enlargement
D. cauda equina

D. cauda equina

The conus medullaris tapers distally into the:

A. filum terminale
B. dentate ligament
C. arachnoid trabeculae
D. posterior longitudinal ligament

A. filum terminale

Within the cauda equina, the most central roots arise from the most:

A. rostral segments
B. thoracic segments
C. caudal segments
D. cervical segments

C. caudal segments

Which spinal segment is unique in having motor roots without sensory roots?

A. C2
B. T1
C. C1
D. S1

C. C1

The cervical enlargement giving rise to upper-limb innervation corresponds to:

A. C3–C7
B. C5–T1
C. C6–T2
D. T1–L1

B. C5–T1

The lumbosacral enlargement spans which root levels?

A. L1–S3
B. L4–S2
C. T12–L5
D. S1–S5

A. L1–S3

A mixed spinal nerve is formed by the fusion of:

A. dorsal and ventral horns
B. dorsal and ventral columns
C. sensory and motor roots
D. anterior and posterior horns

C. sensory and motor roots

In degenerative spinal stenosis, hypertrophy of which structure may compress the cord or nerve roots?

A. dentate ligament
B. filum terminale
C. annulus fibrosus
D. ligamentum flavum

D. ligamentum flavum

Disc herniations are most common in which regions?

A. cervical and lumbosacral
B. thoracic and sacral
C. upper thoracic and cervical
D. thoracolumbar and sacral

A. cervical and lumbosacral

Which spinal roots have the most horizontal course as they emerge from the thecal sac?

A. lumbar
B. sacral
C. cervical
D. coccygeal

C. cervical

Cervical disc herniations are usually more lateral than central because the disc is constrained by the:

A. ligamentum flavum
B. posterior longitudinal ligament
C. anterior longitudinal ligament
D. dentate ligaments

B. posterior longitudinal ligament

In the lumbosacral spine, the usual disc herniation pattern is:

A. posterolateral; descending roots
B. central; exiting roots
C. anterior; sympathetic chain
D. intradural; dorsal columns

A. posterolateral; descending roots

A far-lateral L4–L5 disc herniation most likely compresses which root?

A. L5 root
B. S1 root
C. cauda equina
D. L4 root

D. L4 root

A large central L2–L3 disc herniation in an adult most likely:

A. spares descending roots
B. injures only exiting L2
C. compresses lower cauda equina
D. affects dorsal ganglia alone

C. compresses lower cauda equina

A central disc herniation above the L1 level can directly compress the:

A. spinal cord
B. filum terminale
C. sympathetic chain
D. dorsal root ganglion

A. spinal cord

Epidural fat normally contains which important structures?

A. dura and ganglia
B. Batson plexus and arteries
C. pia and rootlets
D. dorsal columns and veins

B. Batson plexus and arteries

A cutaneous territory innervated by a single spinal root is called a:

A. dermatome
B. myotome
C. fascicle
D. sclerotome

A. dermatome

Sensation over the posterior scalp near the occiput is supplied mainly by:

A. C5 branches
B. C2 branches
C. trigeminal V3
D. vagal branches

B. C2 branches

Dermatomal maps of the lower back and chest skip C5–T1 mainly because those levels supply the:

A. diaphragm
B. trunk extensors
C. abdominal wall
D. upper limb

D. upper limb

A set of muscles supplied predominantly by one spinal root defines a:

A. dermatome
B. myotome
C. fascicle
D. neuromere

B. myotome

The site of pathology in a neuropathy may involve:

A. axons, myelin, or both
B. muscle spindles
C. dorsal columns
D. meninges and cortex

A. axons, myelin, or both

Most peripheral neuropathies affect:

A. sensory fibers only
B. motor fibers only
C. sensory and motor fibers
D. cerebellar and motor fibers

C. sensory and motor fibers

Median nerve compression at the wrist is best classified as a:

A. polyneuropathy
B. radiculopathy
C. plexopathy
D. mononeuropathy

D. mononeuropathy

Painful patchy deficits affecting several separate named nerves, as in vasculitis, are most consistent with:

A. polyneuropathy
B. mononeuropathy multiplex
C. radiculopathy
D. neuronopathy

B. mononeuropathy multiplex

Symmetric distal stocking-glove numbness in both feet and hands is the classic pattern of:

A. mononeuropathy
B. plexopathy
C. polyneuropathy
D. radiculopathy

C. polyneuropathy

Which group contains only recognized causes of neuropathy?

A. asthma, gout, cirrhosis
B. toxins, infection, malnutrition
C. epilepsy, ulcers, anemia
D. cataracts, scoliosis, asthma

B. toxins, infection, malnutrition

The most common diabetic neuropathy pattern is:

A. mononeuropathy multiplex
B. pure autonomic neuropathy
C. distal symmetric polyneuropathy
D. proximal plexopathy

C. distal symmetric polyneuropathy

Acute diabetic mononeuropathy most commonly involves which set of nerves?

A. radial, ulnar, median
B. tibial, peroneal, obturator
C. CN III, femoral, sciatic
D. axillary, musculocutaneous, sural

C. CN III, femoral, sciatic

Extrinsic compression, traction, laceration, or entrapment by nearby structures is classified as:

A. metabolic neuropathy
B. hereditary neuropathy
C. immune neuropathy
D. mechanical nerve injury

D. mechanical nerve injury

A transient conduction block after mild nerve compression, without major axonal disruption, is called:

A. axonotmesis
B. neurapraxia
C. neurotmesis
D. neuronopathy

B. neurapraxia

Wallerian degeneration affects axons and myelin ______ to the nerve injury.

A. proximal
B. medial
C. distal
D. superficial

C. distal

Following a wrist sprain, a patient develops severe limb pain, edema, sweating, and vasomotor skin changes without identifiable named nerve injury. This is:

A. CRPS type 2
B. mononeuritis multiplex
C. diabetic mononeuropathy
D. CRPS type 1

D. CRPS type 1

A patient develops severe burning pain after a documented partial median nerve laceration, with edema and abnormal sweating. This syndrome is:

A. CRPS type 2
B. CRPS type 1
C. Guillain-Barré syndrome
D. neurapraxic neuropathy

A. CRPS type 2

Which feature is shared by both type 1 and type 2 complex regional pain syndrome?

A. isolated numb thumb
B. resting tremor only
C. burning pain with autonomic changes
D. flaccid areflexic paralysis

C. burning pain with autonomic changes

Painful paresthesias in peripheral neuropathy are commonly treated with:

A. beta blockers, SNRIs, or TCAs
B. levodopa preparations, SNRIs, or TCAs
C. corticosteroids, SNRIs, or TCAs
D. anticonvulsants, SNRIs, or TCAs

D. anticonvulsants, SNRIs, or TCAs

Guillain-Barré syndrome classically begins:

A. immediately after trauma
B. 1–2 weeks post-infection
C. years after diabetes
D. during acute stroke

B. 1–2 weeks post-infection

Which antecedent infection is classically associated with Guillain-Barré syndrome?

A. Epstein-Barr mononucleosis
B. hepatitis B, jejuni, enteritis
C. Campylobacter, jejuni, enteritis
D. Staphylococcal cellulitis

C. Campylobacter jejuni enteritis

A patient develops ascending weakness, absent reflexes, and tingling in the hands and feet after a recent diarrheal illness. The most likely diagnosis is:

A. myasthenia gravis
B. Guillain-Barré syndrome
C. polymyositis
D. CRPS type 1

B. Guillain-Barré syndrome

Which CSF profile supports Guillain-Barré syndrome?

A. high protein, normal WBC
B. low glucose, high RBC
C. high WBC, low protein
D. normal protein, high WBC

A. high protein, normal WBC

Disease-modifying treatment for Guillain-Barré syndrome includes:

A. acetazolamide or phenytoin
B. plasmapheresis or IVIG
C. levodopa or baclofen
D. pyridostigmine or thymectomy

B. plasmapheresis or IVIG

Myasthenia gravis most characteristically causes:

A. asymmetric sensory ataxia
B. proximal pain with numbness
C. spastic paraparesis only
D. symmetric fatigable weakness

D. symmetric fatigable weakness

Which combination best fits myasthenia gravis?

A. facial weakness, dysphagia, nasal voice
B. fasciculations, hyperreflexia, clonus
C. numbness, burning, allodynia
D. resting tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia

A. facial weakness, dysphagia, nasal voice

Continued use of muscles in myasthenia gravis typically causes:

A. improved force generation
B. increased weakness
C. sensory loss
D. spasticity

B. increased weakness

Ocular myasthenia gravis is defined by deficits limited to the:

A. proximal arms and neck
B. diaphragm and bulbar muscles
C. extraocular muscles and eyelids
D. distal hands and feet

C. extraocular muscles and eyelids

In the bedside ice pack test, improvement of ptosis after two minutes supports:

A. Lambert-Eaton syndrome
B. oculomotor palsy
C. myasthenia gravis
D. diabetic mononeuropathy

C. myasthenia gravis

Anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies are positive in about 85% of patients with:

A. ocular myasthenia only
B. generalized myasthenia
C. polymyositis
D. Guillain-Barré syndrome

B. generalized myasthenia

A patient with generalized myasthenia is negative for AChR antibodies. Which antibody may still be positive?

A. anti-Hu
B. anti-MAG
C. MuSK antibody
D. anti-GQ1b

C. MuSK antibody

A tumor of the thymus associated with myasthenia gravis is called:

A. neuroma
B. thymoma
C. schwannoma
D. teratoma

B. thymoma

Which medication is a long-acting cholinesterase inhibitor used in myasthenia gravis?

A. pyridostigmine
B. gabapentin
C. azathioprine
D. baclofen

A. pyridostigmine

Which is an appropriate short-term immunotherapy for myasthenia gravis exacerbation?

A. levetiracetam
B. cyclobenzaprine
C. IVIG
D. metformin

C. IVIG

Which intervention may be considered in myasthenia gravis when indicated by disease context?

A. rhizotomy
B. thymectomy
C. cordotomy
D. sympathectomy

B. thymectomy

Disorders causing weakness that is usually more severe proximally than distally, without sensory loss, are:

A. neuropathies
B. myopathies
C. plexopathies
D. radiculopathies

B. myopathies

Serum creatine phosphokinase is typically elevated in:

A. myopathies
B. myasthenia gravis
C. CRPS type 1
D. neurapraxia

A. myopathies

A patient with inflammatory myopathy develops a violaceous rash over the extensor surfaces of the knuckles. This finding is most characteristic of:

A. polymyositis
B. dermatomyositis
C. myasthenia gravis
D. inclusion body myositis

B. dermatomyositis

Which feature best distinguishes dermatomyositis from many other myopathies?

A. glove-stocking sensory loss
B. fasciculations and atrophy
C. violet extensor-joint rash
D. absent deep tendon reflexes

C. violet extensor-joint rash

A 6-year-old boy has progressive proximal muscle weakness and a family history consistent with X-linked transmission. The most likely diagnosis is:

A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
B. dermatomyositis
C. myasthenia gravis
D. polymyalgia rheumatica

A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy

Duchenne muscular dystrophy classically affects:

A. adult women
B. elderly men
C. male children
D. adolescent girls

C. male children

In a patient whose back pain begins after age 50, which serious cause should be especially suspected?

A. migraine
B. neoplasm
C. myasthenia
D. tendon rupture

B. neoplasm

In evaluating back pain, failure to assess which group of functions risks missing irreversible neurologic loss?

A. speech, vision, hearing
B. memory, gait, mood
C. bowel, bladder, sexual
D. appetite, sleep, weight

C. bowel, bladder, sexual

Sensory or motor dysfunction caused by pathology of a nerve root is termed:

A. neuropathy
B. myelopathy
C. plexopathy
D. radiculopathy

D. radiculopathy

Radiculopathy most commonly presents with:

A. painless proximal weakness
B. shooting dermatomal limb pain
C. resting tremor and rigidity
D. glove-stocking numbness

B. shooting dermatomal limb pain

A patient with chronic nerve root compression may eventually develop:

A. hyperreflexia and spasticity
B. atrophy and fasciculations
C. ptosis and diplopia
D. cogwheel rigidity

B. atrophy and fasciculations

Cauda equina syndrome refers to involvement of multiple nerve roots:

A. above C5
B. within brachial plexus
C. below L1
D. within conus only

C. below L1

The most common cause of radiculopathy is:

A. thymoma
B. disc herniation
C. myositis
D. vasculitis

B. disc herniation

Disc-herniation radiculopathy most commonly affects which roots?

A. C6, C7, L5, S1
B. C1, C2, T1, T2
C. L1, L2, L3, L4
D. S2, S3, S4, S5

A. C6, C7, L5, S1

Compared with cervical radiculopathies, lumbosacral radiculopathies are approximately:

A. equally common
B. 5 times rarer
C. 2–3 times more common
D. 10 times more common

C. 2–3 times more common

As the spine degenerates over time, which structure commonly forms?

A. tophi
B. osteophytes
C. neuromas
D. granulomas

B. osteophytes

Osteophytes can produce radiculopathy by:

A. weakening neuromuscular junctions
B. inflaming dorsal columns
C. compressing peripheral myelin
D. narrowing foramina or canal

D. narrowing foramina or canal

In the straight-leg raising test, the patient lies:

A. prone with knees flexed
B. seated with legs dangling
C. supine while one leg lifts
D. standing with trunk rotated

C. supine while one leg lifts

A positive straight-leg raising test reproduces typical radicular pain and paresthesias at approximately:

A. 10–60 degrees
B. 70–90 degrees
C. 0–5 degrees
D. over 100 degrees

A. 10–60 degrees

In a crossed straight-leg raising test, elevating the asymptomatic leg causes:

A. bilateral arm pain
B. weakness only on elevation
C. back stiffness without pain
D. symptoms in symptomatic leg

D. symptoms in symptomatic leg

Pain on percussion of the spine should raise concern for:

A. migraine or tension headache
B. metastatic or infectious vertebral disease
C. simple muscular strain or infectious vertebral disease
D. isolated neuromuscular junction or tension headache

B. metastatic or infectious vertebral disease

Narrowing of the spinal canal is called:

A. spondylolysis
B. spondylolisthesis
C. spinal stenosis
D. radiculitis

C. spinal stenosis

Bilateral leg pain and weakness triggered by walking is most characteristic of:

A. neurogenic claudication
B. ocular myasthenia
C. mononeuritis multiplex
D. Brown-Séquard syndrome

A. neurogenic claudication

Reactivation of which virus can cause radiculopathy with shingles?

A. Epstein-Barr virus
B. varicella-zoster virus
C. cytomegalovirus
D. herpes simplex 2

B. varicella-zoster virus

Which tick-borne illness may cause radiculopathies?

A. babesiosis
B. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
C. Lyme disease
D. ehrlichiosis

C. Lyme disease

In a patient with HIV, an important cause of polyradiculopathy is:

A. adenovirus
B. toxoplasmosis
C. JC virus
D. cytomegalovirus

D. cytomegalovirus

Dumbbell-shaped nerve sheath tumors that may cause radiculopathy include:

A. ependymomas and meningiomas
B. schwannomas and neurofibromas
C. astrocytomas and gliomas
D. lipomas and angiomas

B. schwannomas and neurofibromas

The most clinically important nerve roots in the leg are:

A. L1, L2, L3
B. L2, L3, L4
C. L4, L5, S1
D. S2, S3, S4

C. L4, L5, S1

Sensory loss in an S2–S5 distribution is termed:

A. cape anesthesia
B. saddle anesthesia
C. stocking anesthesia
D. hemianesthesia

B. saddle anesthesia

A patient with severe low back pain reports urinary retention, perineal numbness, and sexual dysfunction. The most urgent diagnosis to exclude is:

A. dermatomyositis
B. Duchenne dystrophy
C. cervical myelopathy
D. cauda equina syndrome

D. cauda equina syndrome

A 62-year-old with chronic lumbar degeneration develops root pain from intervertebral foraminal narrowing by bony overgrowth. The offending lesion is most likely:

A. epidural hematoma
B. osteophyte formation
C. thymic enlargement
D. dorsal column infarct

B. osteophyte formation

A patient with a compressive lesion involving S2–S4 roots would most likely develop which urinary pattern?

A. urgency with small voids
B. distended atonic retention
C. stress incontinence only
D. nocturnal polyuria only

B. distended atonic retention

Sacral root involvement at S2–S4 may also cause:

A. constipation and fecal incontinence
B. spastic legs and clonus
C. Horner syndrome and ptosis
D. wrist drop and paresthesias

A. constipation and fecal incontinence

Loss of erections in a patient with cauda equina symptoms most strongly suggests involvement of:

A. L1–L2 roots
B. T12–L1 roots
C. S2–S4 roots
D. C8–T1 roots

C. S2–S4 roots

Which condition is an indication for urgent surgery in radiculopathy?

A. isolated paresthesias
B. mild chronic pain
C. cord compression
D. incidental osteophytes

C. cord compression

Which second condition also warrants urgent surgery for radiculopathy?

A. cauda equina syndrome
B. dermatomyositis
C. diabetic neuropathy
D. ocular myasthenia

A. cauda equina syndrome

A foraminotomy is performed to:

A. remove dorsal root ganglia
B. widen the lateral recess
C. stabilize the vertebral body
D. decompress the central cord

B. widen the lateral recess

The nerve root passes through the lateral recess just before exiting the:

A. neural tube
B. ligamentum flavum
C. intervertebral foramen
D. vertebral body

C. intervertebral foramen

A patient has a painful vesicular rash over the lateral shoulder and arm in a dermatomal pattern. Which diagnosis best fits?

A. shingles of left C5–C6
B. Lyme polyradiculopathy
C. right C8 mononeuropathy
D. diabetic femoral neuropathy

A. shingles of left C5–C6

In adults, the spinal cord normally ends as the conus medullaris at the level of:

A. T11–T12 vertebrae
B. L1–L2 vertebrae
C. L3–L4 vertebrae
D. S1–S2 vertebrae

B. L1–L2 vertebrae

The conus medullaris tapers into the:

A. dentate ligament
B. posterior longitudinal ligament
C. filum terminale
D. dorsal root entry zone

C. filum terminale

Which structure runs centrally within the cauda equina?

A. filum terminale
B. ligamentum nuchae
C. anterior spinal artery
D. denticulate ligament

A. filum terminale

Unlike the cranium, the spinal canal contains a layer of ______ between dura and periosteum.

A. CSF
B. epidural fat
C. pia mater
D. arachnoid villi

B. epidural fat

Epidural fat in the spinal canal is clinically important because it creates a true:

A. subarachnoid cistern
B. epidural space
C. perineural sheath
D. central canal

B. epidural space

The ligamentum flavum is most prominent in which regions?

A. thoracic and sacral
B. cervical and lumbar
C. cervical and thoracic
D. lumbar and sacral

B. cervical and lumbar

Hypertrophy of ligamentum flavum can contribute to:

A. syringomyelia only
B. spinal stenosis
C. myasthenic crisis
D. peripheral myopathy

B. spinal stenosis

Cervical discs are constrained mainly by the ______ ligament.

A. anterior longitudinal
B. interspinous
C. posterior longitudinal
D. supraspinous

C. posterior longitudinal

Because of that ligamentous constraint, cervical discs usually herniate:

A. centrally
B. anteriorly
C. superiorly
D. laterally

D. laterally

In the cervical spine, the affected nerve root from a disc herniation usually corresponds to the ______ vertebral bone of that disc space.

A. upper
B. lower
C. posterior
D. fused

B. lower

A C5–C6 disc herniation in the cervical spine most commonly causes:

A. C5 radiculopathy
B. C6 radiculopathy
C. C7 radiculopathy
D. T1 radiculopathy

B. C6 radiculopathy

A far-lateral L5–S1 disc herniation most likely produces:

A. S1 radiculopathy
B. S2 radiculopathy
C. L5 radiculopathy
D. L4 radiculopathy

C. L5 radiculopathy

A far-lateral lumbosacral disc herniation typically impinges:

A. the next higher root
B. the next lower root
C. the ventral horn
D. the dorsal columns

A. the next higher root

The greater and lesser occipital nerves derive primarily from:

A. C2
B. C4
C. C6
D. T1

A. C2

The L4 dermatome extends down the:

A. lateral calf
B. sole to heel
C. anteromedial shin
D. posterior thigh

C. anteromedial shin

The L5 dermatome includes the:

A. small toe only
B. anterolateral shin, big toe
C. perineum and anus
D. medial thigh only

B. anterolateral shin, big toe

The S1 dermatome includes the:

A. medial knee and thigh
B. index finger and thumb
C. periumbilical abdomen
D. small toes and lateral foot

D. small toes and lateral foot

Which exam modality is more sensitive for dermatomal sensory loss?

A. vibration
B. light touch
C. proprioception
D. pinprick

D. pinprick

Pinprick is more sensitive than touch for dermatomal loss because:

A. motor fibers overlap less
B. dorsal columns are spared
C. small fibers overlap less
D. pain ascends ipsilaterally

C. small fibers overlap less

Atrophy, fasciculations, decreased tone, and hyporeflexia suggest damage to the ______ nervous system.

A. central
B. autonomic
C. enteric
D. peripheral

D. peripheral

Paresthesias in a peripheral nerve distribution also support a lesion in the:

A. cerebellum
B. peripheral nervous system
C. basal ganglia
D. frontal cortex

B. peripheral nervous system

The onset of acute diabetic mononeuropathy is usually:

A. congenital
B. gradual over years
C. subclinical only
D. fairly sudden

D. fairly sudden

Acute diabetic mononeuropathy may be accompanied by:

A. painless pure weakness
B. painful paresthesias
C. hemiballismus
D. intention tremor

B. painful paresthesias

Neurapraxia generally resolves over:

A. minutes to hours
B. hours to weeks
C. many years
D. never spontaneously

B. hours to weeks

Severe nerve injury may cause ______ degeneration distal to the lesion.

A. retrograde
B. wallerian
C. transsynaptic
D. segmental

B. wallerian

If the nerve’s structural scaffolding remains intact, axonal regeneration proceeds at approximately:

A. 1 cm/day
B. 1 mm/day
C. 1 mm/hour
D. 1 cm/week

B. 1 mm/day

Which syndrome is a complication of nerve injury due to incomplete or aberrant reinnervation?

A. Brown-Séquard syndrome
B. complex regional pain syndrome
C. Lambert-Eaton syndrome
D. cauda equina syndrome

B. complex regional pain syndrome

Complex regional pain syndrome is characterized by:

A. local burning pain with edema
B. spastic weakness with hyperreflexia
C. painless sensory ataxia
D. isolated cranial neuropathy

A. local burning pain with edema

Autonomic-type findings in complex regional pain syndrome include:

A. aphasia and neglect
B. ptosis and miosis
C. sweating and vasomotor changes
D. diplopia and nystagmus

C. sweating and vasomotor changes

In Guillain-Barré syndrome, which modality is typically more affected?

A. sensory
B. visual
C. motor
D. autonomic only

C. motor

Guillain-Barré syndrome typically presents with:

A. fluctuating ptosis after exertion
B. progressive weakness and areflexia
C. unilateral resting tremor
D. proximal pain without paresthesias

B. progressive weakness and areflexia

The sensory complaint most often accompanying Guillain-Barré syndrome is:

A. complete anesthesia
B. tingling in hands and feet
C. dermatomal chest numbness
D. cortical sensory loss

B. tingling in hands and feet

Symptoms of Guillain-Barré syndrome usually peak:

A. within 24 hours
B. at 1–3 weeks
C. after six months
D. after ten years

B. at 1–3 weeks

Myasthenia gravis most commonly presents in the 2nd or 3rd decade in:

A. males
B. females
C. children
D. both equally

B. females

Myasthenia gravis more typically presents in the 6th or 7th decade in:

A. females
B. children
C. males
D. neonates

C. males

Deep tendon reflexes in myasthenia gravis are usually:

A. absent
B. brisk
C. asymmetric
D. normal

D. normal

A patient has generalized myasthenia gravis but is negative for anti-ACh receptor antibodies. Which antibody is often positive?

A. anti-GQ1b
B. MuSK antibody
C. anti-MAG
D. anti-Hu

B. MuSK antibody

Roughly half of generalized myasthenia patients who are AChR-antibody negative have antibodies against:

A. voltage-gated calcium channels
B. muscle specific tyrosine kinase
C. ganglioside GM1
D. acetylcholinesterase enzyme

B. muscle specific tyrosine kinase

About 12% of patients with myasthenia gravis have a:

A. neuroma
B. thymoma
C. meningioma
D. astrocytoma

B. thymoma

In myasthenia gravis, many patients without thymoma still have:

A. adrenal hyperplasia
B. thyroid atrophy
C. thymic hyperplasia
D. splenic fibrosis

C. thymic hyperplasia

The benefit of thymectomy in myasthenia gravis is thought to come from:

A. reducing autoimmune response
B. restoring nerve conduction
C. increasing acetylcholine release
D. reversing axonal degeneration

A. reducing autoimmune response

A patient in myasthenic crisis may benefit short-term from:

A. IVIG or plasmapheresis
B. baclofen or diazepam
C. levodopa or selegiline
D. metformin or insulin

A. IVIG or plasmapheresis

Disc-herniation radiculopathy most commonly affects which roots in this set?

A. C3, C4, L2, L3
B. C5, C6, L5, S1
C. C7, C8, S2, S3
D. T1, T2, L1, L2

B. C5, C6, L5, S1

Lumbar stenosis can produce neurogenic claudication, classically causing:

A. unilateral arm weakness
B. bilateral leg pain with walking
C. isolated foot numbness at rest
D. facial pain with chewing

B. bilateral leg pain with walking

A diabetic patient develops band-like abdominal pain due to occasional nerve-root involvement. Which level is particularly implicated?

A. cervical
B. sacral
C. thoracic
D. coccygeal

C. thoracic

CMV polyradiculopathy in a patient with HIV most commonly affects the:

A. cervical roots
B. thoracic roots
C. brachial plexus
D. lumbosacral roots

D. lumbosacral roots

Impaired function of multiple nerve roots below L1 or L2 is called:

A. conus medullaris syndrome
B. cauda equina syndrome
C. Brown-Séquard syndrome
D. central cord syndrome

B. cauda equina syndrome

A lesion in the sacral segments of the spinal cord causes:

A. conus medullaris syndrome
B. cauda equina syndrome
C. posterior cord syndrome
D. lateral medullary syndrome

A. conus medullaris syndrome

Conus medullaris syndrome is most similar to:

A. diabetic mononeuropathy
B. cauda equina syndrome
C. dermatomyositis
D. cervical myelopathy

B. cauda equina syndrome