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Biochem 46

1.

A CNS-resident cell phagocytoses pathogens after meningitis. Which cell type is primarily responsible?
A. Astrocyte
B. Microglia
C. Oligodendrocyte
D. Ependymal cell

B. Microglia

2.

The main interface between brain parenchyma and the CSF compartment is formed by:
A. Astrocytes
B. Microglia
C. Ependymal cells
D. Oligodendrocytes

C. Ependymal cells

3.

Structurally, neurotransmitters are divided into:
A. Small nitrogen molecules and neuropeptides
B. Small steroid molecules and purines
C. Amino acids and lipids
D. Ions and peptides

A. Small nitrogen molecules and neuropeptides

4.

Small nitrogen-containing neurotransmitters are generally synthesized in the:
A. Postsynaptic density
B. Nucleus
C. Myelin sheath
D. Presynaptic terminal

D. Presynaptic terminal

5.

Small nitrogen-containing neurotransmitters are synthesized mainly from:
A. Fatty acids and cholesterol
B. Amino acids and glycolysis intermediates
C. DNA bases and ribose
D. Heme and bilirubin

B. Amino acids and glycolysis intermediates

6.

Serotonin is synthesized from:
A. Tryptophan
B. Tyrosine
C. Serine
D. Glutamine

A. Tryptophan

7.

Glutamate (and its derivative GABA) is derived from the TCA intermediate:
A. Oxaloacetate
B. Citrate
C. Alpha-ketoglutarate
D. Succinate

C. Alpha-ketoglutarate

8.

In the brain, glycine is synthesized from:
A. Alanine
B. Glycine cleavage products
C. Tryptophan
D. Serine

D. Serine

9.

After global cerebral ischemia, which process most directly amplifies neuronal injury in many regions?
A. Reduced synaptic vesicle fusion
B. Glutamate excitotoxicity
C. Decreased nitric oxide formation
D. Lower intracellular calcium

B. Glutamate excitotoxicity

10.

A neurodegenerative disorder is linked to oxidative damage. Which pair is emphasized in pathogenesis?
A. Lactate and ketones
B. Chloride and bicarbonate
C. Free radicals and nitric oxide
D. Phosphate and sulfate

C. Free radicals and nitric oxide

11.

During CNS development, which glial cell guides neuronal migration and helps form a stabilizing matrix?
A. Astrocyte
B. Microglia
C. Schwann cell
D. Oligodendrocyte

A. Astrocyte

12.

A cell population lines the ventricles and can be specialized to secrete CSF. Which cells are these?
A. Microglia
B. Oligodendrocytes
C. Astrocytes
D. Ependymal cells

D. Ependymal cells

13.

Impaired ventricular ciliary beating would most directly disrupt:
A. Neuronal action potentials
B. CSF circulation efficiency
C. Myelin compaction
D. Synaptic cleft reuptake

B. CSF circulation efficiency

14.

Glucose crosses brain capillary endothelium primarily via facilitated diffusion through:
A. GLUT3
B. GLUT4
C. GLUT1
D. SGLT1

C. GLUT1

15.

Neurons take up glucose from extracellular fluid primarily via:
A. GLUT3
B. GLUT2
C. GLUT5
D. GLUT4

A. GLUT3

16.

An infant has seizures and a low CSF glucose despite normal serum glucose. This CSF finding is called:
A. Hyperglycorrhachia
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Glycosuria
D. Hypoglycorrhachia

D. Hypoglycorrhachia

17.

Large neutral amino acids enter CSF rapidly via:
A. Multiple peptide transporters
B. A single amino-acid transporter
C. Passive diffusion only
D. Vesicular transcytosis

B. A single amino-acid transporter

18.

High levels of one LNAA can reduce transport of others across the BBB via:
A. Competitive inhibition
B. Noncompetitive inhibition
C. Allosteric activation
D. Irreversible blockade

A. Competitive inhibition

19.

Untreated PKU causes cognitive impairment; one proposed mechanism is reduced BBB entry of other amino acids due to excess:
A. Phenylalanine
B. Glycine
C. Tryptophan
D. Histamine

A. Phenylalanine

20.

In maple syrup urine disease, impaired CNS amino-acid balance is most linked to excess blood:
A. Aromatic amino acids
B. Branched-chain amino acids
C. Sulfur amino acids
D. Acidic amino acids

B. Branched-chain amino acids

21.

A patient started on reserpine later reports severe anhedonia and suicidal thoughts. The drug’s relevant primary action is:
A. Blocks dopamine receptors
B. Stimulates serotonin reuptake
C. Inhibits MAO activity
D. Blocks catecholamine vesicular uptake

D. Blocks catecholamine vesicular uptake

22.

Which adverse psychiatric outcome was historically observed in a subset of patients taking reserpine?
A. Depression and suicidality
B. Mania and insomnia
C. Hallucinations and delusions
D. Euphoria and agitation

A. Depression and suicidality

23.

The first and rate-limiting step in catecholamine synthesis from tyrosine is catalyzed by:
A. Dopamine beta-hydroxylase
B. COMT
C. Tyrosine hydroxylase
D. MAO

C. Tyrosine hydroxylase

24.

Tyrosine hydroxylase requires which cofactor for activity?
A. NADPH oxidase
B. Tetrahydrobiopterin
C. Thiamine pyrophosphate
D. Biotin

B. Tetrahydrobiopterin

25.

The immediate product of tyrosine hydroxylase is:
A. L-DOPA
B. Dopamine
C. Norepinephrine
D. Epinephrine

A. L-DOPA

26.

The conversion of L-DOPA to dopamine requires which cofactor?
A. FAD
B. Biotin
C. THF
D. Pyridoxal phosphate

D. Pyridoxal phosphate

27.

Epinephrine synthesis depends on adequate vitamin support to generate SAM, specifically:
A. Vitamin C and vitamin K
B. Vitamin B12 and folate
C. Thiamine and riboflavin
D. Niacin and biotin

B. Vitamin B12 and folate

28.

Conversion of tyrosine to L-DOPA and L-DOPA to dopamine occurs in the:
A. Synaptic vesicle lumen
B. Mitochondrial matrix
C. Cytosol
D. Lysosome

C. Cytosol

29.

Reserpine was historically used clinically primarily as a(n):
A. Antipsychotic and anxiolytic
B. Antiparkinson and antiemetic
C. Analgesic and antipyretic
D. Antihypertensive and antiepileptic

D. Antihypertensive and antiepileptic

30.

Which set lists only major small nitrogen-containing neurotransmitters from the provided material?
A. Glutamate, GABA, glycine, histamine
B. Glutamate, histamine, oxytocin, GABA
C. Glycine, endorphin, dopamine, histamine
D. Acetylcholine, serotonin, insulin, GABA

A. Glutamate, GABA, glycine, histamine

31.

A vesicular monoamine transporter shares homology with bacterial drug-resistance transporters. Which example fits this family?
A. P-glycoprotein
B. GLUT1
C. Dopamine transporter
D. Na+/K+ ATPase

A. P-glycoprotein

32.

Vesicle transporters for monoamines typically span the membrane with how many transmembrane domains?
A. 4
B. 7
C. 12
D. 24

C. 12

33.

Catecholamines are concentrated inside storage vesicles by a mechanism best described as:
A. Primary active transport
B. Secondary active transport
C. Simple diffusion
D. Channel-mediated influx

B. Secondary active transport

34.

The catecholamine vesicular uptake process is ultimately driven by a:
A. Proton pump gradient
B. Sodium gradient
C. Chloride gradient
D. Calcium gradient

A. Proton pump gradient

35.

In storage vesicles, catecholamines most characteristically exist complexed with:
A. Albumin and calcium
B. ATP and chromogranins
C. GTP and tubulin
D. Heme and ferritin

B. ATP and chromogranins

36.

When chromogranins are released, they can be proteolytically processed into:
A. Inactive waste products
B. Neurotoxic aldehydes
C. Bioactive peptides
D. Membrane phospholipids

C. Bioactive peptides

37.

A patient has episodic headaches, sweating, palpitations, and severe hypertension (pheochromocytoma). Which circulating marker may be elevated in this tumor type?
A. Chromogranins
B. C-reactive protein
C. Troponin I
D. Myoglobin

A. Chromogranins

38.

Two major enzyme systems mediating catecholamine inactivation include:
A. AChE and GABA-T
B. COMT and MAO
C. CYP3A4 and UGT1A1
D. Renin and ACE

B. COMT and MAO

39.

MAO is located primarily on the:
A. Inner mitochondrial membrane
B. Outer mitochondrial membrane
C. Nuclear envelope
D. Rough ER lumen

B. Outer mitochondrial membrane

40.

MAO catalysis oxidizes the amino-bearing carbon to an aldehyde and releases:
A. Sulfate ion
B. Bicarbonate
C. Ammonium ion
D. Chloride ion

C. Ammonium ion

41.

A drug selectively inhibiting MAO-A would most directly reduce deamination of:
A. Dopamine and histamine
B. Norepinephrine and serotonin
C. Acetylcholine and GABA
D. Glutamate and glycine

B. Norepinephrine and serotonin

42.

MAO-B has relatively broader activity against:
A. Phenylethylamines
B. Purines
C. Peptides
D. Steroids

A. Phenylethylamines

43.

A child with hypopigmentation is suspected to have albinism due to impaired tyrosine-to-melanin conversion. A potentially defective enzyme is:
A. Tryptophan hydroxylase
B. Copper-dependent tyrosine hydroxylase
C. Lactate dehydrogenase
D. Dopamine beta-hydroxylase

B. Copper-dependent tyrosine hydroxylase

44.

COMT inactivates catecholamines by transferring a methyl group from:
A. NADPH
B. FAD
C. SAM
D. CoA

C. SAM

45.

CSF homovanillylmandelic acid (HVA) is an indicator of:
A. Dopamine degradation
B. Serotonin synthesis
C. GABA recycling
D. Histamine storage

A. Dopamine degradation

46.

Reduced CSF HVA would be most consistent with neuronal changes seen in:
A. Huntington disease
B. Alzheimer disease
C. ALS
D. Parkinson disease

D. Parkinson disease

47.

A patient develops headaches, palpitations, nausea, vomiting, and high blood pressure after ingesting large amounts of aged foods. The culprit amine is:
A. Histamine
B. Serotonin
C. Tyramine
D. GABA

C. Tyramine

48.

Tyramine is normally detoxified primarily by:
A. COMT
B. MAO-A
C. MAO-B
D. Acetylcholinesterase

B. MAO-A

49.

A patient on an MAO inhibitor eats aged cheese and develops a hypertensive crisis. The key immediate mechanism is:
A. Tyramine releases norepinephrine
B. COMT blocks dopamine synthesis
C. VMAT blocks vesicle loading
D. MAO generates excess ammonium

A. Tyramine releases norepinephrine

50.

Free cytosolic catecholamines downregulate tyrosine hydroxylase by competing for the enzyme’s:
A. Pyridoxal phosphate site
B. Heme binding pocket
C. Pterin cofactor binding
D. Acetyl-CoA docking site

C. Pterin cofactor binding

51.

Which acute event in a nerve terminal activates tyrosine hydroxylase?
A. Hyperpolarization
B. Depolarization
C. Myelin loss
D. Axonal transport block

B. Depolarization

52.

With prolonged sympathetic firing, increased transcription of tyrosine hydroxylase and dopamine β-hydroxylase occurs mainly in neuronal:
A. Synaptic clefts
B. Axon terminals
C. Nodes of Ranvier
D. Neuronal Perikarya

D. Neuronal Perikarya

53.

The synthesis pathway of serotonin from tryptophan is most similar in logic to norepinephrine synthesis from tyrosine because both begin with:
A. Oxidation then phosphorylation
B. Hydroxylation then decarboxylation
C. Transamination then reduction
D. Glycosylation then cleavage

B. Hydroxylation then decarboxylation

54.

In addition to catecholamines, serotonin is inactivated by:

A. COMT
B. AChE
C. MAO
D. DBH

C. MAO

55.

The activity of several antipsychotic drugs is described here as being based on inhibiting:
A. MAO
B. COMT
C. VMAT
D. GLUT3

A. MAO

56.

Melatonin is synthesized from the amino acid precursor:
A. Tyrosine
B. Serine
C. Tryptophan
D. Glycine

C. Tryptophan

57.

A patient develops thrombocytopenia and thrombosis after heparin exposure due to antiheparin antibodies. This antibody-driven platelet activation is associated with release of:
A. Dopamine
B. Serotonin
C. Histamine
D. GABA

B. Serotonin

58.

Within the brain, histamine is produced by:
A. Astrocytes and oligodendrocytes
B. Microglia and ependyma
C. Mast cells and neuronal fibers
D. Endothelium and pericytes

C. Mast cells and neuronal fibers

59.

Histaminergic neuronal cell bodies in humans are concentrated in the:
A. Locus coeruleus
B. Dorsal raphe nucleus
C. Tuberomammillary nucleus
D. Substantia nigra

C. Tuberomammillary nucleus

60.

The tuberomammillary nucleus lies within the:
A. Posterior basal hypothalamus
B. Anterior hypothalamus
C. Dorsal midbrain
D. Ventral medulla

A. Posterior basal hypothalamus

61.

Histamine synthesis from histidine is catalyzed by:
A. Histamine N-methyltransferase
B. Tyrosine hydroxylase
C. DOPA decarboxylase
D. Histidine decarboxylase

D. Histidine decarboxylase

62.

Histidine decarboxylase requires which cofactor?
A. Tetrahydrobiopterin
B. Pyridoxal phosphate
C. Biotin
D. FAD

B. Pyridoxal phosphate

63.

The catalytic mechanism of histidine decarboxylase most resembles:
A. Tryptophan hydroxylase
B. Tyrosine hydroxylase
C. DOPA decarboxylase
D. Dopamine β-hydroxylase

C. DOPA decarboxylase

64.

A serotonergic anorexigen decreases appetite via receptors on:
A. POMC neurons
B. Orexin neurons
C. GnRH neurons
D. CRH neurons

A. POMC neurons

65.

The POMC neurons mediating Redux hypophagia are in the:
A. Paraventricular nucleus
B. Arcuate nucleus
C. Suprachiasmatic nucleus
D. Ventromedial nucleus

B. Arcuate nucleus

66.

A drug that raises synaptic serotonin most directly promotes:
A. Hunger signaling
B. Anhedonia symptoms
C. Panic symptoms
D. Satiety signaling

D. Satiety signaling

67.

Chronically low serotonin is associated with:
A. Increased appetite
B. Fixed satiety
C. Reduced appetite
D. Decreased thirst

A. Increased appetite

68.

Redux raised synaptic serotonin by SSRI action plus:
A. Reduced vesicle fusion
B. Increased MAO activity
C. Increased serotonin secretion
D. Increased COMT activity

C. Increased serotonin secretion

69.

After neuronal release, histamine is thought to activate:
A. Postsynaptic only
B. Pre and postsynaptic
C. Glial only
D. Extrasynaptic only

B. Pre and postsynaptic

70.

Relative to many transmitters, histamine shows little:
A. Presynaptic recycling
B. Calcium-triggered release
C. Vesicular storage
D. Enzymatic synthesis

A. Presynaptic recycling

71.

Major CNS uptake/inactivation of histamine is attributed to:
A. Microglia
B. Oligodendrocytes
C. Neurons
D. Astrocytes

D. Astrocytes

72.

A first-generation antihistamine most commonly causes:
A. Euphoria
B. Tremor
C. Drowsiness
D. Mydriasis

C. Drowsiness

73.

“Nondrowsy” antihistamines minimize sedation mainly due to:
A. Poor BBB penetration
B. Higher H2 selectivity
C. Rapid CSF clearance
D. Increased histamine release

A. Poor BBB penetration

74.

Peripheral antihistamine effects primarily counter histamine-driven:
A. Platelet aggregation
B. Vasodilation permeability
C. Cardiac contractility
D. Insulin secretion

B. Vasodilation permeability

75.

A proposed contributor to neurologic findings in B12 deficiency is impaired:
A. Choline synthesis
B. GABA synthesis
C. Melatonin synthesis
D. Dopamine synthesis

D. Dopamine synthesis

76.

The key reaction supplying acetyl-CoA for acetylcholine synthesis is:
A. Citrate lyase
B. Ketone cleavage
C. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
D. Fatty acid synthase

C. Pyruvate dehydrogenase

77.

Pyruvate dehydrogenase is located in the:
A. Mitochondria
B. Cytosol
C. Nucleus
D. ER lumen

A. Mitochondria

78.

Lecithin (phosphatidylcholine) supplementation has been used for:
A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Parkinson disease
C. Alzheimer dementia
D. Tardive dyskinesia

D. Tardive dyskinesia

79.

The highest physiologic demand for choline is in the:
A. Elderly adult
B. Neonate
C. Adolescent
D. Middle-aged adult

B. Neonate

80.

Glutamate dehydrogenase forms glutamate by incorporating:
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Sulfate
C. Ammonia
D. Glucose

C. Ammonia

81.

An alternative major route to glutamate from α-ketoglutarate uses:
A. Transamination
B. Phosphorylation
C. Glycosylation
D. Beta-oxidation

A. Transamination

82.

The CNS recycling pathway conserving glutamate and GABA is the:
A. Cori cycle
B. Urea cycle
C. Malate-aspartate
D. GABA shunt

D. GABA shunt

83.

A patient with epilepsy is given a drug that blocks GABA reuptake:
A. Vigabatrin
B. Gabapentin
C. Tiagabine
D. Diazepam

C. Tiagabine

84.

Which amino acid cannot cross the BBB?
A. Alanine
B. Aspartate
C. Serine
D. Glycine

B. Aspartate

85.

Nitric oxide (NO) is synthesized from which amino acid substrate?
A. Histidine
B. Arginine
C. Tyrosine
D. Serine

B. Arginine

86.

A patient’s ABG shows PaO2 = 18 mm Hg during acute hypoxia. Most likely clinical state?
A. Somnolence
B. Confusion
C. Seizures
D. Coma

D. Coma

87.

A shared metabolic consequence of all forms of hypoxia is:
A. Decreased neurotransmitter synthesis
B. Increased myelin synthesis
C. Increased CSF glucose
D. Enhanced synaptic recycling

A. Decreased neurotransmitter synthesis

88.

Which enzyme represents a major anaplerotic reaction for the TCA cycle?
A. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
B. Citrate synthase
C. Pyruvate carboxylase
D. Malate dehydrogenase

C. Pyruvate carboxylase

89.

Valine and isoleucine degradation replenishes the TCA cycle by producing:
A. Succinyl-CoA
B. Acetyl-CoA
C. Citrate
D. Oxaloacetate

A. Succinyl-CoA

90.

A peroxisome biogenesis disorder (e.g., Refsum) injures brain cells largely due to failed metabolism of:
A. Ketones and lactate
B. Glucose and glycogen
C. Cholesterol and bile acids
D. VLCFAs and branched-chain AAs

D. VLCFAs and branched-chain AAs

91.

Which lipid class is ~16% of myelin lipid and largely absent from other membranes?
A. Phosphatidylcholine
B. Cerebrosides
C. Triacylglycerols
D. Gangliosides

B. Cerebrosides

92.

Galactosylcerebroside is best described as having:
A. Two sugars on glycerol
B. Phosphate headgroup on ceramide
C. Single sugar on sphingosine OH
D. Sulfate on cholesterol ring

C. Single sugar on sphingosine OH

93.

Myelin lamellae are stabilized primarily by:
A. Protein–lipid and protein–protein
B. Disulfide bridges only
C. Ionic bonds only
D. Hydrogen bonds only

A. Protein–lipid and protein–protein

94.

Two proteins comprising ~60–80% of CNS myelin protein are:
A. MAG protein and PMP22
B. P0 protein and PMP22
C. Myelin P2 and P0
D. Proteolipid protein and Myelin basic proteins

D. Proteolipid protein and Myelin basic proteins

95.

What may help to stabilize the structure from within the membrane?

A. Proteolipid protein
B. P0 protein
C. Myelin basic protein
D. Myelin-associated glycoprotein

C. Myelin basic protein

96.

Pre-op management to mask catecholamine-excess signs in pheochromocytoma most classically uses:
A. Propranolol then phenoxybenzamine
B. Phenoxybenzamine then propranolol
C. Propranolol only
D. Phenoxybenzamine only

B. Phenoxybenzamine then propranolol

97.

Multiple sclerosis incidence is described as:
A. Near nil at Equator
B. Highest near Equator
C. Uniform worldwide distribution
D. Only tropical latitudes

A. Near nil at Equator

98.

Modern MS treatment is now based mainly on blocking the:
A. Adrenergic system blockade
B. Glutamatergic system blockade
C. Immune system blockade
D. Cholinergic system blockade

C. Immune system blockade

99.

Inherited mutations in P0 (major PNS myelin protein) most directly cause:
A. Multiple sclerosis
B. ALS
C. Guillain-Barré syndrome
D. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease

D. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease

100.

The inheritance pattern classically described for Charcot-Marie-Tooth is:
A. Autosomal recessive
B. Autosomal dominant
C. X-linked recessive
D. Mitochondrial inheritance

B. Autosomal dominant

101.

A PLP mutation in CNS myelin is associated with which leukodystrophy?
A. Krabbe disease
B. Metachromatic leukodystrophy
C. Pelizaeus-Merzbacher disease
D. Adrenoleukodystrophy

C. Pelizaeus-Merzbacher disease

102.

The enzyme catalyzing NO formation from arginine is:
A. Nitric oxide synthase
B. Tyrosine hydroxylase
C. Histidine decarboxylase
D. DOPA decarboxylase

A. Nitric oxide synthase

103.

Which branched-chain amino acids contribute succinyl-CoA via degradation?
A. Leucine and lysine
B. Valine and isoleucine
C. Phenylalanine and tyrosine
D. Tryptophan and serine

B. Valine and isoleucine

104.

Mutations in the major CNS myelin protein can cause Pelizaeus-Merzbacher and X-linked spastic paraplegia type 2. The protein is:
A. P0 protein
B. Myelin basic protein
C. Myelin-associated glycoprotein
D. Proteolipid protein

D. Proteolipid protein