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AMCA Certfication Test

1.

Which of the following is considered a parasitic infection?

Malaria

2.

Aspirin and acetaminophen are examples of

Analgesics and antipyretics

3.

This unit in the hospital is run by physicians and experts in the field of musculoskeletal disorders of bones, joints, ligaments and tendons, identify this department?

Rheumatology

4.

MSDS information includes

General and emergency information

5.

The physician prescribes a buccal medication. The medical assistant should instruct the patient to:

Place the medication between the lower teeth and cheek

6.

Which of the following is the best specimen to test for levels of iron in the blood?

The one collected in the tube that contains EDTA

7.

All pathogens are:

Microbes that can cause disease

8.

Every prescription for a controlled substance requires the physicians signature and a ____________ number?

DEA

9.

Co-insurance is calculated based on a:

Percentage of charge

10.

Muscles that act on the knee joint exhibit two actions:

Flexion and extension

11.

When using a No. 10 envelope, where should the address be placed?

10 lines down from the top and 2 inches from the left of the edge of the envelope

12.

A structure that is composed of two or more tissue types is called a/an:

organ

13.

What drug prevents the action of another drug or chemical?

Antagonist

14.

Cellular respiration is a function of the:

Mitochondria

15.

Somatic tremor is the result of:

Muscle movement

16.

The smallest structural unit of the nervous system is the:

neuron

17.

A patient came into the doctor's office with chest pain and shortness of breath. which position is the best to help him breathe better?

Fowler's

18.

The primary function of the nervous system is:

To detect changes in the internal and external environment and respond appropriately

19.

Mr. Smith is suffering from an enlargement of the bones in the entire skull as well as in the hands and feet, in addition to thickening of the skin. Which of the following conditions is Mr. Smith suffering from?

Acromegaly

20.

The functional unit of the kidney is the:

Nephron

21.

Which of the following types of gloves can be decontaminated and reused if they show no signs of deterioration after use?

Utility

22.

After obtaining an ECG tracing, a Medical Assistant would be expected to?

Observe the tracing for quality and decide if another tracing may be required

23.

There are two types of civil actions healthcare providers for injuries resulting from health care, The first one is lack of informed consent and the second one is

Violation of standard care

24.

Dr. Jones and Dr. Brown decide to share a practice. Together, they share patients, expenses, profits and assets. Which type of medical practice is this?

Group practice

25.

What is the appropriate test used for heparin therapy?

APPT

26.

A provider withdraws from the care of a patient without reasonable notice of discharge is considered:

Abandonment

27.

Which agency regulates the Controlled Substances Act?

DEA

28.

Defamation through spoken statements is known as:

Slander

29.

Insulin syringes are calibrated in:

units

30.

Which of the following is not true regarding HIPPA laws?

Few boundaries are set on the use and release of health records

31.

To determine our ventricular pulse, the EKG technician would:

Calculate the spacing between the QRS complex

32.

PHI stands for:

Protected Health Information

33.

Which situation would a Medical Assistant's signature be required?

On an informed consent document

34.

The Privacy Rule gives patients the right to:

Access their medical record

35.

A patient has an oral temperature of 100.8 F. The medical term for this is:

pyrexia

36.

A routine hand wash procedure uses plain soap to remove soil and transient bacteria.

antimicrobial soap

37.

Which of the following precautions require special air handling and ventilation?

Airborne precautions

38.

Which of the following is correct regarding contact transmissions

It involves contaminated instruments, needles, or contaminated hands that are not washed

39.

Important information a patient should know about immunizations would be that:

They are prophylactics against deadly diseases

40.

What is the process used to wash and remove blood and tissue from medical instruments called?

Sanitation

41.

A patient weights 83.92 kg. How many pounds does he weigh?

185

42.

While taking a patient's medical history for active tuberculosis, what type of PPE is required?

mask

43.

Most exposures to HIV in healthcare settings are the result of:

accidental needle sticks

44.

The four symptoms of inflammation are erythema, edema, pain, and:

heat

45.

A tympanic temperature means the body temperature is measured:

at the eardrum

46.

pulse site used to measure blood pressure is:

brachial

47.

What is the correct way to calculate pulse pressure?

the number found when subtracting the diastolic from the systolic

48.

The patient has been given a prescription that says the medication should be taken "bid". This medication should be taken?

twice a day

49.

Which of the following procedures can be performed by a medical assistant?

intramuscular injection

50.

Post- prandial means:

after a meal

51.

A round, raised skin lesion with itching that is a positive sign of reaction to allergic testing is a:

papule

52.

You are to draw the blood of a patient. After reviewing the lab order, you realize that you need to draw a CBC w/diff (complete blood count with differential) on your patient. knowing that this test is drawn in a lavender top-tube, which lab department would this go to for processing?

hematology

53.

Which of the following drug administration routes is the most appropriate for a patient who has nausea and vomiting?

rectal

54.

The patient information sheet contains:

patients personal and insurance information

55.

The medical assistant is to collect a Prothrombine time (PT) test, a complete Blood Count (CBC), and a fasting Blood Sugar (FBS). What is the correct order of draw?

light-blue, lavender, grey

56.

The information of blood cells is defined as:

hematopoiesis

57.

The primary purpose of wearing gloves during phlebotomy procedures is to protect the:

phlebotomist from exposure to the patients blood

58.

What is the best location to check the pulse of an adult who is unconscious and not breathing?

carotid artery

59.

The act of listening for sounds made by internal organs to aid in the diagnosis of certain disorders is called:

auscultation

60.

When a blood pressure cuff is deflated, the first tapping sound is the _____ pressure

systolic

61.

The body organ targeted by HBV is the:

liver

62.

A female patient came into the office for her scheduled routine physical. You are measuring the patient's vital signs. Which part of the brain is responsible for the temperature regulation?

hypothalamus

63.

What position should the patient be placed in when performing an ECG?

supine

64.

Which mode of infection transmission occurs from touching contaminated linens?

indirect contact

65.

Which of the following is the most common means of transmitting pathogens?

touching

66.

When a patient fails to show for their appointment, the event must be:

documented in the patients chart

67.

Notifiable infection must be reported to:

center for disease control

68.

A quantitative test is one that:

tests for the presence and amount of a substance in sample

69.

The interval between exposure to infection and the appearance of the first symptom is called:

incubation period

70.

Complete destruction of all forms of microbial life.

Sterilization

71.

A patient is having a seizure. Which of the following is the most appropriate step for the medical assistant to take to protect the patient?

loosen clothing around the patient's neck

72.

Most specialists are paid by MCOs using which of the following methods?

fee-for-service

73.

Which of the following is classified as abnormally rapid, deep or labored breathing?

tachypnea

74.

The invoice for the monthly rent of the building where the medical office is located, is typically handled by which department?

accounts payable

75.

What drug enhances the effects of another drug?

synergistic

76.

When using a venterogluteal approach to give an intramuscular injection in the buttock area, what is the muscle the medication goes in?

Gluteus medius

77.

A baby's pulse and respirations are:

faster than an adults

78.

Which of the patient's limbs serves as an electrical ground?

right leg

79.

Another name for chest leads is:

Precordial

80.

When the body has had adequate rest and no food for at least 12 hours, it is said to be in:

Basal state

81.

What organ's main function is to eliminate excess water and waste products from the body?

kidneys

82.

A murmur is an abnormal sound that may indicate:

Valvular heart disease

83.

How many electrodes are used as part of a 12-Lead EKG?

10

84.

The amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute is called:

cardiac output

85.

Sinus __________ is a slow dysrhythmia.

bradycardia

86.

When a person stays in the same position all the time, pressure causes the skin to:

weaken and become necrotic

87.

A patient's weight should be listed in the patient's chart to the nearest:

1/4 pound

88.

Automaticity refers to:

The ability of certain myocardial cells to produce an electrical impulse without the need for outside nerve stimulation

89.

Collection devices used in skin punctures are called:

Capillary tubes

90.

What is the function of the large intestine (aka colon)?

Absorb water

91.

No anticoagulants are found in which of the following tubes?

red-topped

92.

Without a clot activator, whole blood typically clots in____ minutes.

30- 60

93.

Thixotropic gel, found in the SST red gray marbled- topped Vacutainer tube

is less dense than red blood cells but more dense than serum

94.

Which of the following procedures is appropriate for preparing blood and other potentially infectious materials for transport?

Placing the materials in a leak-proof container during collection

95.

The normal volume of urine produced by an adult in a 24-hour period generally does not exceed:

2000 mL

96.

The patient's specimen is lipemic. This is usually an indicator that the patient is:

Not Fasting

97.

Which of the following tests is not a part of complete blood count?

Activated partial thromboplastin time

98.

The boundaries for the approved area in performing heel punctures are:

the medical line extending from the great toe and lateral line extending from the fourth and fifth toe

99.

What is the best sample for the determination of blood pH and blood gases?

Atrial blood

100.

The ability to identify with someone else's feelings is called:

empathy

101.

How far above the site of draw is the tourniquet placed?

3-4 inches

102.

A female patient came into the clinic for follow-up after a right sided mastectomy with some removal of lymphoid tissue. What is the name of the condition that makes blood draw on the right arm not recommended?

Lymphostasis

103.

Which of the following is correct for ending a venipuncture procedure?

remove the tourniquet, remove the tube, remove the needle, apply pressure

104.

Which of the following is known as swimmer's ear?

otitits externa

105.

Which of the following should be used to chill a specimen as it transported?

crushed ice

106.

The Medical Assistant was sent to the ward to draw blood for coagulation studies, Which of the following is correct about this draw?

before drawing the specimen, make sure the patient has fasted for 12 hours

107.

The tube of choice for glucose testing is:

grey-top tube

108.

The function of the platelet is to:

Cause the blood to clot

109.

The three kinds of blood cells are:

Erythrocytes, thrombocytes, leukocytes

110.

The hormone tested for in pregnancy tests is:

HCG

111.

When performing a dermal puncture and the lancet hits the bone, what is the potentially serious fatal bone infection that could occur?

osteomyelitis

112.

You performing a venipuncture procedure on a patient- the needle appears to be inside the vein yet no blood id flowing into the tube. What should you do?

switch the tubes

113.

Which of the following Vacutainer tubes is routinely used for hematology testing?

Lavender-topped tubes

114.

If a laboratory test requires serum, which Vacutainer tube is the tube of choice?

Red-topped tubes

115.

Sodium Citrate is the additive in what color tube?

light blue

116.

A fluctuating fever that returns to or below baseline then increases again is:

Intermittent

117.

Identify the tubes needed to collect a PT, STAT lytes, and BC in the proper order of collection.

yellow, light-blue, PST

118.

A female patient came into the emergency room with her husband. She was suffering from severe shortness of breath. She appeared to be unable to take in sufficient oxygen. What is the color of the skin and nail beds?

bluish

119.

Which choice is a typical educational for elderly patients to prevent disease?

annual flu pneumonia vaccination and information

120.

Asystole:

produce a complete cessation of cardiac output

121.

A patient came to the clinic for a low-grade fever of one month duration. As part of the laboratory work-up, the physician ordered erythrocyte sedimentation (ESR). What color tube would be used for this test?

lavender-top tube

122.

An obese patient was sent to the laboratory for a complete blood count. Which of the following veins is mot likely to be the only that the Phlebotomist can palpate?

cephalic vein

123.

Two employees discussing a patient diagnosis on a hospital elevator with other people present is a violation of:

Patient confidentiality

124.

A patient has been taking aspirin for arthritis. Which of the following is most likely to be affected by it?

Bleeding time

125.

Mr. Matthews called the office to get the test results for his wife, Martha. What should the medical assistant do?

Check the medical recored to see if Mr. Matthews is authorized to have this information on Mrs. Matthews HIPAA form. If so, then release the information

126.

If a finger is "excessively" milked during a skin puncture, the result will be:

Hemolysis and contamination of the specimen with tissue fluids

127.

You are the only CMAC the night shift. You receive orders for all of the following tests within minutes of one another. Which test has the greatest collection priority?

STAT electrolytes in the ER

128.

The phenylketonuria (PKU) test is used to diagnose deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase, the most common clinically encountered inborn error of metabolism. it is performed on:

blood drawn from a newborns heel

129.

Samples appear to have been mislabeled and mixed on two patients. Each outpatient has orders for both blood and urine test, so there were two samples for each. What would be the best course of action?

Recollect all four samples from the patients

130.

What specimens require protection from light?

bilirubin

131.

Which of the following are also referred to as serum separator tubes (SST)?

Red/Grey-top tubes

132.

Which of the following specimens are best utilized to measure clotting factors?

plasma

133.

Which of the following is a standard speed for an EKG machine?

25 mm/second

134.

When would a phlebotomist use a multiple-sample needle?

when more than one tube of blood is to be collected

135.

A collection tube containing an anti-coagulant must be inverted how many times?

eight times

136.

Identify the rhythm that will often produce an irregular rhythm.

Sinus dysrhythmia

137.

Which limb sensor is the reference or ground electrode?

right leg

138.

One method to calculate heart rate from an EKG strip is to:

count small boxes between in the R-R interval and divide by 1500

139.

A 45 year-old man comes in for a stress test. His resting blood pressure is 120/80. During the stress test, his blood pressure dropped to 95/55 and his skin is cold and clammy. What is the best course of action?

stop the test immediately

140.

The Q wave, if present, is always:

negative

141.

The main purpose of PPE is to:

Provide the employee a barrier against infection

142.

The acronym used to remember the actions to take when using a fire extinguisher is:

PASS

143.

Narrowing of the valve between the left atrium and the left ventricle is called:

mitral stenosis

144.

Which of the following supplies blood to the heart muscle?

coronary arteries

145.

The layer of the heart that is responsible for contraction and relaxation is known as the:

Myocardium

146.

A 67 year-old man is diagnosed with Atrial Fibrillation and is treated with Warfarin (Coumadin). What is the characteristic of Atrial Fibrillation?

P waves are absent

147.

A patient has a possible corneal abrasion and needs a referral. Which specialty is a physician that deals with eye injury and disease?

ophthalmologist

148.

A phlebotomist enters a room to draw blood on a patient who is hospitalized with an infected wound. The site of the wound and any of its bandages are considered which link in the chain of infection?

portal of exit

149.

Two premature ventricular complexes (PVCs) in a row are called a/n _______ of PVCs.

couplet

150.

A pounding or racing of the heart, such that the patient is aware of his/her heartbeat is called a/an:

Palpation

151.

Which of the following cannot be handled by the medical assistant?

patient requesting emergency medical advice

152.

Issues relating to medical advances come under the heading of:

bioethics

153.

In a standard 12-lead ECG, the measurement of current that the heart muscle produces between the right arm electrode and left arm electrode is known as

standard limb lead I

154.

A female patient came into the emergency room due to vaginal bleeding. What is the name of the instrument used to hold open the wall of the vagina?

tricuspid

155.

Which of the following is an example of a biohazard?

splashing of blood when a cap is removed

156.

A monitor that a patient wears for 24 hours is called a(n):

Holter

157.

How do you know when you have achieved adequate ventilation for a patient when doing CPR?

rise of the chest

158.

What is the minimum number of electrodes that may be attached to the patient for Holter Monitoring?

5 electrodes

159.

Tachycardia is a pathology that damages mainly the:

heart muscle

160.

The national health insurance plan for Americans age 65 and older is:

medicare

161.

Which of the following requires all employees' workplace hazard training?

hazard communication standard

162.

Which body system has the liver, gallbladder and pancreas as accessory organs?

Digestive

163.

Regulation of the heart rate, speed of electrical conduction and strength of contraction are influenced by the brain via the _______ nervous system.

autonomic

164.

A 67 year-old man comes into the doctor's office for a regular checkup. The doctor orders an Electrocardiography (ECG/EKG) to be done on the patient. There is junctional escape beat noticed by you. What is the origin of this rhythm?

AV node

165.

Which chest lead is placed on the right sterna border in the 4th intercostal space?

V1

166.

The patients chart indicates a urine sample was collected at 1800. This means the sample was collected at:

6 pm

167.

What is the name of the law that protects health care workers who gave aid during the time of an accident?

Good Samaritan Law

168.

The contraction phase of the heartbeat is called:

Systole

169.

The correct lead from the center of heart to the positive pole of the leg is:

AVF

170.

The correct lead from the right arm to the leg is:

II

171.

A blood sample is collected from a patient and the plasma is pink to red in color. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

Hemolysis

172.

Which drug is used as an anticoagulant?

Warfarin

173.

Which is the most common route of administration of nitroglycerin?

Sublingual

174.

Your patient is experiencing chest pain and has a heart rate of 132 beats per minute. You attach the ECG monitor and see a fast, regular rhythm with a round upright P wave that precedes each QRS complex. The QRS complexes are 0.10 seconds in duration. This patient is experiencing:

Sinus Tachycardia

175.

Veterans with service related disabilities are eligible for care under which of the following programs:

CHAMPVA

176.

_____________ is usually sponsored and partially paid by an employer.

Group Health Insurance

177.

Health policies that concern a patient's constitutional right to privacy, informed consent and confidentiality are part of:

Patient's Bill of Rights

178.

Family members, such as spouse or children that are covered under the member's insurance policy are known as ________.

Dependents

179.

A physician, specialist or any person that provides medical care is known as the _______.

Provider

180.

The term _________, refers to the list of charges for each of the provider's services.

fee schedule

181.

A ________ is a set amount that the patient may be required to pay the provider before they can receive benefits.

Co-payment

182.

The insurance carrier is allowed to use any method to determine the amount for a service, also known as the ________.

allowed amount

183.

Which of the following statements is true under the doctrine of respondeat superior?

The physician is responsible for any errors made by the medical staff

184.

One example of a physiologic response to negative stress is:

Upset stomach

185.

Information given by a patient to medical personnel that cannot be disclosed without consent constitutes:

Privileged communication

186.

The method of scheduling in which one patient is scheduled for a specific appointment time is known as:

Single booking

187.

___________________, also known as POMR, is a method of tracking the patient's problems during the time they are receiving medical care.

Problem-oriented medical record charting

188.

Another term for outpatient care is:

Ambulatory care

189.

The best way to handle a "difficult" or "bad" patient is to:

Help the patient to feel in control of the situation

190.

Which of the following is an example of negative kinesics?

frowning

191.

Which of the following skills would not be an appropriate expectation of the competent medical assistant?

Diagnosing common patient symptoms

192.

When analysis of a patient flow is reviewed, what does this help a practice determine?

Realistic time frame for each appointment

193.

The mental and emotional condition, enthusiasm, loyalty, or confidence of an individual or group with regard to function or tasks at hand is called:

Morale

194.

Faithfulness, or allegiance to a cause, ideal, custom, institution or product, is called:

Loyalty

195.

When medical assistants are able to adapt to various situations, they are considered to be:

Flexible

196.

One mental health illness that can hinder patient education is:

Alzheimer's disease

197.

Which of the following is an example of proxemics?

Facial expressions

198.

Which is an example of a recommended preventive procedure?

Childhood immunizations

199.

Which of the following types of filing systems requires a cross reference files?

numeric

200.

Before developing a medication schedule, you should evaluate the patient's:

Daily routine

201.

During assessment, the best source from which to obtain patient information is the:

The medical record

202.

Verbal facial expressions or body language, such as a nod of understanding, are called:

feedback

203.

The way to organize appointment scheduling so that it best supports the success of the practice is to:

Consider the preferences of the physician

204.

The principle advantage of using wave method when designing the scheduling process is that it:

Allows flexibility to accommodate the unpredictable

205.

What does the "inside address" in a typewritten letter need to include?

The name and address of the person receiving the letter

206.

Which of the following would be filled SECOND?

Tom A. Turner

207.

The amount that an insurance company may say is not allowed and not the responsibility of the patient, for a contracted physician, would be identified as this on the patient's account?

an adjustment

208.

Managed care organizations control costs by:

Detecting risk factors early

209.

After a patient interview by the medical assistant, which of the following should not be recorded by the medical assistant?

Examination narrative

210.

The patient complains that it hurts when they swallow. This type of complaint is considered:

subjective

211.

Telephone etiquette involves:

Keeping your statements simple and to the point

212.

The term used to describe sophisticated and highly complex care is:

Tertiary care

213.

This is federal program that provides medical care for the indigent:

medicaid

214.

To indicate that something lies nearer the surface, use the term:

Superficial