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AMCA CERTIFICATION TEST - MEDICAL ASSISTING STUDY GUIDE

1.

Which of the following is considered a parasitic infection?

malaria

2.

Aspirin and acetaminophen are examples of:

analgesics and antipyretics

3.

This unit in the hospital is run by physicians and experts in the field of musculoskeletal disorders of bones, joints, ligaments, and tendons, what department is this?

rheumatology

4.

MSDS information includes:

general and emergency information

5.

The physician prescribes a buccal medication. The medical assistant should instruct the patient to:

place the medication between the lower teeth and cheek

6.

Which of the following is the best specimen to test for levels of iron in the blood?

the one collected in the tube that contains EDTA

7.

All pathogens are:

microbes that can cause disease

8.

Every prescription for a controlled substance requires the physicians signature and a ___?

DEA

9.

When using a no. 10 envelope, where should the address be placed?

10 lines down the from the top and 2 inches from the left edge of the envelope

10.

What drug prevents the action of another drug or chemical?

antagonist

11.

Co-insurance is calculated based on a:

percentage of charge

12.

Muscles that act on the knee joint exhibit two actions:

flexion and extension

13.

A structure that is composed of two or more tissue types is called a/an:

organ

14.

Cellular respiration is a function of the:

mitochondria

15.

Somatic tremor is the result of:

muscle movement

16.

The smallest structural unit of the nervous system is the:

neuron

17.

A patient came into the doctor's office with chest pain and shortness of breath. Which position is the best to help him breathe better?

fowler's

18.

The primary function of the nervous system is:

to detect changes in the internal and external environment and respond appropriately

19.

Mr. Smith is suffering from an enlargement of the bones in the entire skull as well as in the hands and feet, in addition to thickening of the skin. Mr. Smith is suffering from what?

acromegaly

20.

The functional unit of the kidney is the:

nephron

21.

Which of the following types of gloves can be decontaminated and reused if they show no signs of deterioration after use?

utility

22.

After obtaining an ECG tracing, a medical assistant would be expected to?

observe the tracing for quality and decide if another tracing may be required

23.

There are two types of civil actions against healthcare providers for injuries. The first one is lack of informed consent and the second one is:

violation of standard of care

24.

Dr. Jones and Dr. Brown decide to share a practice. Together, they share patients, expenses, profits and assets. Which type of medical practice is this?

group practice

25.

What is the appropriate test used for heparin therapy?

APPT

26.

A provider withdraws from the care of a patient without reasonable notice of discharge is considered:

abandonment

27.

Which agency regulates the Controlled Substances Act?

DEA

28.

Defamation through spoken statements is known as:

slander

29.

Insulin syringes are calibrated in:

units

30.

Which of the following is NOT true regarding HIPPA laws?

few boundaries are set on the use and release of health records

31.

To determine our ventricular pulse, the EKG technician would:

calculate the spacing between the QRS complexes

32.

PHI stands for:

protected health information

33.

Which situation would a medical assistant's signature be required?

on an informed consent document

34.

The Privacy Rule gives patients the right to:

access their medical record

35.

A patient has an oral temperature of 100.8 F. The medical term for this is:

pyrexia

36.

Which of the following is correct regarding contact transmissions?

it involves contaminated instruments, needles, or contaminated hands that are not washed

37.

Which of the following precautions require special air handling and ventilation?

airborne precautions

38.

Important information a patient should know about immunizations would be that:

they are prophylactics against deadly diseases

39.

What is the process used to wash and remove blood and tissue from medical instruments called?

sanitization

40.

While taking a patient's medical history for active tuberculosis, what type of PPE is required?

mask

41.

Most exposures to HIV in healthcare settings are the result of:

accidental needle sticks

42.

The four symptoms of inflammation are erythema, edema, pain, and:

heat

43.

A tympanic temperature means the body temperature is measured:

at the eardrum

44.

A pulse site used to measure blood pressure is:

brachial

45.

What is the correct way to calculate pulse pressure?

the number found when subtracting the diastolic from the systolic

46.

Which of the following procedures can be performed by a medical assistant?

intramuscular injection

47.

Post- prandial means:

after a meal

48.

A round, raised skin lesion with itching that is a positive sign of reaction to allergic testing is a:

papule

49.

You're to draw the blood of a patient. After reviewing the lab order, you realize that you need to draw a CBC w/diff (complete blood count with differential) on your patient. Knowing that this test is drawn in a lavender top-tube, which lab department would this go to for processing?

hematology

50.

The patient information sheet contains:

patient's personal and insurance information

51.

Which of the following drug administration routes is the most appropriate for a patient who has nausea and vomiting?

rectal

52.

The medical assistant is to collect a Phrothrombine time (PT) test, a complete Blood Count (CBC), and a fasting Blood Sugar (FBS). What is the correct order of draw?

light-blue (PT), lavender (CBC), grey (FBS)

53.

The information of blood cells is defined as:

hematopoiesis

54.

The primary purpose of wearing gloves during phlebotomy procedures is to protect the:

phlebotomist from exposure to the patient's blood

55.

What is the best location to check the pulse of an adult who is unconscious and not breathing?

at the carotid artery of the neck

56.

The act of listening for sounds made by internal organs to aid in the diagnosis of certain disorders is called:

auscultation

57.

When a blood pressure cuff is deflated, the first tapping sound is the ___ pressure.

systolic

58.

The body organ targeted by HBV is the:

liver

59.

A female patient came into the office for her scheduled routine physical. You are measuring the patient's vital signs. Which part of the brain is responsible for the temperature regulation?

hypothalamus

60.

What position should the patient be placed in when performing an ECG?

supine

61.

Which mode of infection transmission occurs from touching contaminated linens?

indirect contact

62.

Which of the following is the most common means of transmitting pathogens?

touching

63.

When a patient fails to show for their appointment, the event must be:

documented in the patient's chart

64.

Notifiable infection must be reported to:

Center for Disease Control

65.

A quantitative test is one that:

tests for the presence and amount of substance in sample

66.

The interval between exposure to infection and the appearance of the first symptom is called:

incubation period

67.

Complete destruction of all forms of microbial life is:

sterilization

68.

A patient is a having a seizure. Which of the following is the most appropriate step for the medical assistant to take to protect the patient?

loosen clothing around the patient's neck

69.

Most specialists are paid by MCOs using which of the following methods?

fee-for-service

70.

Which of the following is classified as abnormally rapid, deep, or labored breathing?

tachypnea

71.

The invoice for the monthly rent of the building where the medical office is located,, is typically handled by which department?

accounts payable

72.

What drug enhances the effects of another drug?

synergistic

73.

When using a venterogluteal approach to give an intramuscular injection in the buttock area, what is the muscle the medication goes in?

gluteus medius

74.

A baby's pulse and respirations are:

faster than an adults

75.

Which of the patient's limbs serves as an electrical ground?

right leg

76.

Another name for chest leads is:

precordial

77.

When the body has had adequate rest and no food for at least 12 hours, it is said to be in:

basal state

78.

What organ's main function is to eliminate excess water and waste products from the body?

kidneys

79.

A murmur is an abnormal sound that may indicate:

valvular heart disease

80.

How many electrodes are used as a part of a 12-Lead EKG?

10

81.

The amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute is called:

cardiac output

82.

Sinus ___ is a slow dysrhythmia.

bradycardia

83.

When a person stays in the same position all the time, pressure causes the skin to:

weaken and become necrotic

84.

A normal resting heart rate for the average adult is:

60-100 BPM

85.

Automaticity refers to:

the ability of certain myocardial cells to produce an electrical impulse without the need for outside nerve stimulation

86.

Collection devices used in skin punctures are called:

capillary tubes

87.

Normal sinus rhythm has a heart rate of ___ beats per minute:

60 to 100

88.

What is the function of the large intestine (aka colon)?

absorb water

89.

No anticoagulants are found in which of the following tubes?

red-topped

90.

Without a clot activator, whole blood typically clots in ___ minutes.

30 to 60

91.

Thixotropic gel, found in the SST red gray marbled-topped vacutainer tube:

is less dense than red blood cells but more dense than serum

92.

Which of the following procedures is appropriate for preparing blood and other potentially infectious materials for transport?

placing the materials in a leak-proof container during colleciton

93.

The normal volume of urine produced by an adult in a 24-hour period generally does not exceed:

2000 mL

94.

The patient's specimen is lipemic. This is usually an indicator that the patient is:

not fasting

95.

Which of the following tests is not a part of complete blood count?

activated partial thromboplastin time

96.

The boundaries for the approved area in performing heel punctures are:

the medial line extending from the great toe and lateral line extending from the fourth and fifth digit

97.

What is the best sample for the determination of blood pH and blood gases?

atrial blood

98.

The ability to identify with someone else's feelings is called:

empathy

99.

How far above the site of draw is the tourniquet placed?

3-4 inches

100.

A female patient came into the clinic for a follow-up after a right sided mastectomy with some removal of lymphoid tissue. What is the name of the condition that makes blood draw on the right arm not recommended?

lymphostasis

101.

Which of the following is correct for ending a venipuncture procedure?

remove the tourniquet, remove the tube, remove the needle, and apply pressure

102.

Which of the following is known as swimmer's ear?

otitis externa

103.

Which of the following should be used to chill a specimen as it is being transported?

crushed ice

104.

The medical assistant was sent to the ward to draw blood for coagulation studies, which of the following is correct about this draw?

before drawing the specimen, make sure the patient has fasted for 12 hours

105.

The tube of choice for glucose testing is:

grey-top tube

106.

The function of the platelet is to:

cause the blood to clot

107.

The three kinds of blood cells are:

erythrocytes, thrombocytes, luekocytes

108.

The hormone tested for pregnancy tests is:

HCG

109.

When performing a dermal puncture and the lancet hits the bone, what is the potentially serious fatal bone infection that could occur?

osteomyelitis

110.

You're performing a venipuncture procedure on a patient, the needle appears to be inside the vein but yet, no blood is flowing into the tube. What should you do?

switch the tubes

111.

Which of the following vacutainer tubes is routinely used for hematology testing?

lavender-topped tubes

112.

If a laboratory test requires serum, which vacutainer tube is the tube of choice?

red-topped tubes

113.

Sodium Citrate is the additive in what color tube?

light blue

114.

A fluctuating fever that returns to or below baseline then increases again is:

intermittent

115.

Identify the tubes needed to collect a PT, STATl ytes, and BC in the proper order of collection.

yellow, light-blue, and PST

116.

A female patient came into the emergency room with her husband. She was suffering from severe shortness of breath. She appeared to be unable to take in sufficient oxygen. What is the color of the skin and nail beds?

bluish

117.

Which choice is a typical educational for elderly patients to prevent disease?

annual flu pneumonia vaccination and information

118.

Asystole:

produces a complete cessation of cardiac output

119.

A patient came to the clinic for a low-grade fever of one month duration. As part of the laboratory work-up, the physician ordered erythrocyte sedimentation (ESR). What color tube would be used for this test?

lavender-top tube

120.

An obese patient was sent to the laboratory for a complete blood count. Which of the following veins is most likely to be the only one that the phlebotomist can palpate?

cephalic vein

121.

Two employees discussing a patient diagnosis on a hospital elevator with other people present is a violation of:

patient confidentiality

122.

A patient has been taking aspirin for arthritis. Which of the following is most likely to be affected by it?

bleeding time

123.

If a finger is "excessively" milked during a skin puncture, the result will be:

hemolysis and contamination of the specimen with tissue fluids

124.

You're the only CMAC on the night shift. You receive orders for all of the following tests within minutes of one another. Which test has the greatest collection priority?

STAT electrolytes in the ER

125.

The phenylketonuria (PKU) test is used to diagnose deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase, the most common clinically encountered inborn error of metabolism. It is performed on:

blood drawn from a newborns heel

126.

Samples appear to have been mislabeled and mixed on two patients. Each outpatient has orders for both blood and urine test, so there were two samples for each. What would be the best course of action?

recollect all four samples from the patients

127.

What specimens require protection from light?

bilirubin

128.

Which of the following are also referred to as serum separator tubes (SST)?

red/gray-top tubes

129.

Which of the following specimens are best utilized to measure clotting factors?

plasma

130.

Which of the following is a standard speed for an EKG machine?

25mm/second

131.

When would a phlebotomist use a multiple-sample needle?

when more than one tube of blood is to be collected

132.

A collection tube containing an anti-coagulant must be inverted how many times?

eight times

133.

Identify the rhythm that will often produce an irregular rhythm.

sinus dysrhythmia

134.

Which limb sensor is the reference or ground electrode?

right leg

135.

One method to calculate heart rate from an EKG strip is to:

count the small boxes between the R-R interval and divide by 1500

136.

A 45 year-old man comes in for a stress test. His resting blood pressure is 120/80. During the stress test, his blood pressure dropped to 95/55 and his skin is cold and clammy. What is the best course of action?

stop the test immediately

137.

The Q wave, if present, is always:

negative

138.

The main purpose of PPE is to:

provide the employee a barrier against infection

139.

Hypotension is defined as:

systolic pressure below 90 and diastolic pressure below 60mmHg

140.

The acronym used to remember the actions to take when using a fire extinguisher is:

ACT

141.

Narrowing of the valve between the left atrium and the left ventricle is called:

mitral stenosis

142.

Which of the following supplies blood to the heart muscle?

coronary arteries

143.

The layer of the heart that is responsible for contraction and relaxation is known as the:

myocardium

144.

A 67 year-old man is diagnosed with Atrial Fibrillation and is treated with Warfarin (Coumadin). What is the characteristic of Atrial Fibrillation?

P waves are absent

145.

A patient has a possible corneal abrasion and needs a referral. Which specialty is a physician that deals with eye injury and disease?

ophthamologist

146.

A phlebotomist enters a room to draw blood on a patient who is hospitalized with an infected wound. The site of the wound and any of its bandages are considered which link in the chain of infection?

portal of exit

147.

Two premature ventricular complexes (PVCs) in a row are called a/n ____ of PVCs.

couplet

148.

A pounding or racing of the heart, that the patient is aware of his/her own heartbeat is called a/n:

palpitation

149.

Which of the following cannot be handled by the medical assistant?

patient requesting emergency medical advice

150.

Issues relating to medical advances come under the heading of:

bioethics

151.

A female patient came into the emergency room due to vaginal bleeding. What is the name of the instrument used to hold open the wall of the vagina?

speculum

152.

A monitor that a patient wears for 24 hours is called a/n:

holter

153.

In a standard 12-Lead ECG, the measurement of current that the heart muscle produces between the right arm electrode and left arm electrode is known as the:

standard limb lead I

154.

What is the name of the heart valve that separates the right atrium and right ventricle?

tricuspid

155.

Which of the following is an example of a biohazard?

splashing of blood when a cap is removed

156.

How do you know when you have achieved adequate ventilation for a patient when doing CPR?

rise of the chest

157.

What is the minimum number of electrodes that may be attached to the patient for Holter Monitoring?

5 electrodes

158.

Tachycardia is a pathology that damages mainly the:

heart muscle

159.

The national health insurance plan for Americans aged 65 and older is:

medicare

160.

Which of the following requires that all employees receive workplace hazard training?

hazard communication standard

161.

Which body system has the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas as accessory organs?

digestive

162.

Regulation of the heart rate, speed of electrical conduction, and strength of contraction are influenced by the brain via the ____ nervous system.

automatic

163.

A 67 year-old man comes into the doctor's office for a regular checkup. The doctor orders an EKG to be done on the patient. There is a junctional escape beat noticed by you. What is the origin of this rhythm?

AV node

164.

Which chest lead is placed on the right sterna border in the 4th intercostal space?

V1

165.

What is the name of the law that protects health care workers who gave aid during the time of an accident?

Good Samaritan Law

166.

The contraction phase of the heartbeat is called:

systole

167.

The correct lead from the center of the heart to the positive pole of the leg is:

AVF

168.

The correct lead from the right arm to the leg is:

II

169.

A blood sample is collected from a patient and the plasma is a pink to red color. Which of the following is most likely the cause?

hemolysis

170.

Which drug is used as an anticoagulant?

Warfarin (Coumadin)

171.

Which is the most common route of administration of nitroglycerin?

sublingual

172.

Your patient is experiencing chest pain and has a heart rate of 132 beats per minute. You attach the ECG monitor and see a fast, regular rhythm with a round upright P wave that precedes each QRS complex. The QRS complexes are 0.10 seconds in duration. This patient is experiencing:

sinus tachycardia

173.

Veterans with service related disabilities are eligible for care under which of the following programs:

CHAMPVA

174.

___ is usually sponsored and partially paid by an employer.

Group Health Insurance

175.

Health policies that concern a patient's constitutional right to privacy, informed consent and confidentiality are part of:

Patient's Bill of Rights

176.

Family members, such as spouse or children that are covered under the member's insurance policy are know as ___?

dependents

177.

A physician, specialist or any person that provides medical care is known as the ___?

provider

178.

The term ____, refers to the list of charges for each of the provider's services.

fee schedule

179.

A ___ is a set amount that the patient may be required to pay the provider before they can receive benefits.

Copayment

180.

The insurance carrier is allowed to use any method to determine the amount for a service, also known as the ___?

allowed amount

181.

Which of the following statements is true under the doctrine of respondeat superior?

the physician is responsible for any errors made by the medical staff.

182.

Information given by a patient to a medical personnel that cannot be disclosed without consent constitutes:

privileged communication

183.

The method of scheduling in which one patient is scheduled for a specific appointment time is known as:

single booking

184.

____, also known as POMR, is a method of tracking the patient's problems during the time they are receiving medical care.

problem-oriented medical record

185.

Another term for outpatient care is:

ambulatory care

186.

The best way to handle a "difficult" or "bad" patient is to:

help the patient to feel in control of the situation

187.

Which of the following is an example of negative kinesics?

frowning

188.

Which of the following skills would not be an appropriate expectation of the competent medical assistant?

diagnosing common patient symptoms

189.

The mental and emotional condition, enthusiasm, loyalty, or confidence of an individual or group with regard to function or tasks at hand is called:

morale

190.

When medical assistants are able to adapt to various situations, they are considered to be:

flexible

191.

One mental health illness that can hinder patient education is:

Alzheimer's disease

192.

Which of the following is an example of proxemics?

facial expressions

193.

Which is an example of a recommended preventive procedure?

childhood immunizations

194.

Which of the following types of filings systems requires a cross reference files?

numeric

195.

Before developing a medication schedule, you should evaluate the patient's:

daily routine

196.

During assessment, the best source from which to obtain patient information is the:

medical record

197.

Verbal facial expressions or body language, such as a nod of understanding, are called:

feedback

198.

The principle advantage of using the WAVE method when designing the scheduling process is that it:

allows flexibility to accommodate the unpredictable

199.

What does the "inside address" in a typewritten letter need to include?

the name and address of the person receiving the letter

200.

The amount that an insurance company may say is not allowed and not the responsibility of the patient, for a contracted physician, would be identified as ____ on the patient's account?

an adjustment

201.

The patient complains that it hurts when they swallow. This type of complaint is considered:

subjective

202.

Telephone etiquette involves:

keeping your statements simple and to the point

203.

The term used to describe sophisticated and highly complex care is:

tertiary care

204.

This is a federal program that provides medical care for the indigent:

Medicaid

205.

The term used to indicate that something lies near the surface is:

superficial

206.

Which of the following involves a soaking or wiping process that inhibits the activity of disease-causing organisms?

disinfection

207.

Which of the following liquids is used in an autoclave to sterilize instruments and supplies?

distilled water

208.

What is the name of the test that checks for visual acuity?

snellen

209.

What is the pacemaker of the heart?

SA node

210.

An EKG machine is also called an:

electrocardiograph

211.

Name the 2 types of EKG machines:

single channel and multichannel

212.

When we do an EKG, we are looking at the heart from:

12 different points of view or angles

213.

What is the purpose of the gel on the electrodes?

to read the heart's electricity and to amplify the waveforms

214.

When the SA node is stimulated, what mechanical action happens in the heart?

atria contract

215.

Define ischemia:

lack of blood supply

216.

Define arrhythmia:

abnormal cardiac rhythm (think a=without, without rhythm)

217.

A 6 second strip in Lead II is called a:

rhythm strip

218.

Which 3 leads (views) are the augmented leads?

AVR, AVF, AVL

219.

What are the leads RA, LA, RL, LL collectively called?

limb leads

220.

Where is V1 placed?

4th intercostal space on the right sternum

221.

Where is V2 placed?

4th intercostal space on the left sternum

222.

Where is V3 placed?

between v2 and v4

223.

Where is V4 placed?

mid-clavicular line on the left side, 5th intercostal space

224.

Where is V5 placed?

anterior axillary left side, 5th intercostal space

225.

Where is V6 placed?

mid-axillary line on the left side, 5th intercostal space

226.

What does the T wave represent?

ventricular repolarization

227.

What does the QRS complex represent?

ventricular depolarization

228.

What does the P wave represent?

atrial depolarization

229.

An evaluation or depression of the ST segment can indicate what?

ischemia or injury to the heart muscle

230.

What is the "normal" heart rhythm?

normal sinus rhythm

231.

What is the normal heart rhythm that is greater than 100 BPM?

sinus tachycardia

232.

What is a "flat line" rhythm?

asystole