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micro final

1.

colonies of which microbes are yellow on culture that contains blood?

staphylococcus aureus

2.

which of the following microbes is catalase and coagulase positive?

staphylococcus aureus

3.

in many cases, the implanted material must be removed to fully treat the patient due to the presence of the?

biofilm

4.

which of the following contributes to pathogenicity?

virulence factors

5.

which of the following infections involves skeleton?

osteomyelitis

6.

Staphylococcus epidermidis is a frequent cause of which of the following infections?

all of the answers are correct

7.

which of the following microbes resides in perineal region?

staphylococcus lugdunensis

8.

during which of the following conditions is nikolsky's sign observed?

ssss

9.

the severity of the food poisoning caused by staphylococcus aureus depends on?

the amount of enterotoxin

10.

initial activation of which of the following cells triggers action of superantigens?

T cells

11.

the cells of streptococcus pneumoniae occur in?

pairs

12.

the presence of the polysaccharide capsule makes the strains of strep.pneumoniae?

more virulent and resistant against phagocytes

13.

which streptococciare strictly B-hemolytic

group A

14.

what test differentiates between B-hemolytic streptococci?

bacitracin sensitivity

15.

which of the following is the primary cause of meningitis in children?

which of the following is the primary cause of meningitis in children?Haemophilus influenza

16.

one of the complications of meningitis is hydrocephalus which actually means excess of fluid in?

brain ventricles

17.

strawberry tongue is assign of?

scarlet fever

18.

what strains are the most frequent cause of necrotizing fasciits

GAS

19.

what strains are part of normal microbiome of the vagina?

GBS

20.

what particular type(s) of organism(s) frequently responsible for surgical site infections (SSIs) and health Care Associated Infections (HAIs)?

S aureus and S. epidermidis

21.

cocci arranged in clusters are referred to as staphylococci and are in what shape?

spherical

22.

Bacteria that are able to adapt to various oxygen concentration are termed?

Facultative

23.

which of the following can be a recognized possible complication when an artificial heart valves are implanted?

endocarditis

24.

uncooked homemade foods contaminate by the food preparer or inoculated surfaces have the highest potential for disease transmission and can result into?

all of the answers are correct

25.

in 1978, public health concern identified cases involving menstruating woman who used super- absorbent vaginal tampons frequently or for prolonged period of times. As a result, these women became infected with?

TSS

26.

which of the following type of endocarditis can have a case that can occur within 60 days of implantation?

prosthetic valve endocarditis (PVE)

27.

dramatized in recent years by the news media, this condition, otherwise known as the "flesh Eating" bacteria

Necrotizing fascitis

28.

which of the following have cell envelope that contains an antigenic protein called protein M.

streptococcus pyogenes

29.

otitis media accounts for which anatomical structure?

Ear

30.

What strains are part of normal microbiome of the vagina?

GBS

31.

Which of the following is a virulence factor for Bacillus anthracis?

All of these correct

32.

Which of the following bacilli has been reported in a number of cases of severe endophthalmitis?

Bacillus cereus

33.

A state when bacteria reproduces and growths colonies
is called ____?

vegetative

34.

Which of the following bacilli is used for production of bacitracin?

Bacillus subtilis

35.

Hispanic pregnant woman are more likely to become infected with listeria due to the higher likelihood of
consumption of __?

Unpasteurized milk and Queso fresco

36.

Which bacteria are used as biological indicators?

Geobacillus stearothermophilus

37.

Pneumococcal Pneumonia begins when the patient is
infected by ___?

Inhaling respiratory droplets containing bacteria

38.

Which of the following is a route of anthrax transmission?

All of these are correct

39.

What strains are the most frequent cause of necrotizing fascitis?

GAS

40.

How long may the requirements for antibiotic therapy be after exposure to anthrax?

60 days

41.

One of the complications of meningitis is hydrocephalus which actually means excess of fluid in ___?

Brain Ventricles

42.

The cells of Streptococcus pneumoniae occur
in __?

Pairs

43.

Listeria monocytogenes is an intracellular pathogen that
lives inside of?

Macrophages

44.

Which of the following is the primary cause of meningitis in children?

Haemophilus influenza

45.

Strawberry tongue is assign of ___?

Scarlet fever

46.

Which of the following bacilli is used for production of bacitracin?

Bacillus subtilis

47.

Which of the following terms means lockjaw?

Trismus

48.

Which of the following is the virulence factor for the Neisseria genus?

Pili and capsule

49.

What is the primary site of infection in females?

Cervix

50.

Gonorrhea in men occurs primarily in?

Urethra

51.

Which of the following may be a symptom of a Gonococcal infection of the rectum?

All of the answers are correct

52.

Which of the following is a higher risk for the Individuals with STDs to contract HIV:

Drugs or alcohol

53.

Ophthalmia neonatorum is prevented by instillation of ______________?

Erythromycin

54.

Which of the following is the Kernig's sign?

Hamstring spasms

55.

Experimental therapy involving "fecal transplantation" is used to patients with _____________infections?

Clostridium difficile

56.

Which of the following infections is consider to be an HAI?

Clostridum difficile

57.

Which of the following types of Clostridium perfringens causes necrotizing enteritis?

C

58.

Which of the following is the characteristic of Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

Fastidious

59.

Definitive diagnosis of meningitis is achieved through ___________?

Positive growth of N. meningitidis on culture studies

60.

honey has been found to be the most common cause of?

Infant

61.

Which of the following results in flaccid cranial nerve palsies (paralysis)?

Cephalic tetanus

62.

What is the location of the endotoxins?

Cell Wall

63.

What is the action of botulinum toxins?

Blocks the release of the ACH

64.

Which of the following diseases is caused by Clostridium species?

all of choices are correct

65.

Which of the following is included in the immediate treatment of the tetanus?

All answers are correct

66.

Which mucous cells Neisseria gonorrhoeae can attach to?

All of the answers are correct

67.

Which of the following is the deadly infection of the umbilical stump?

Neonatal tetanus

68.

Which of the following is the 3r most common cause of otitis media in children?

M. catarrhalls

69.

Which of the following is the cause of syphilis?

Treponema pallidum

70.

Which of the following is the cause of syphilis ?

Treponema pallidum pallidum

71.

Syphilis can, however, be transmitted to a host through. ....

All the above

72.

Syphilis causing bacteria can only live on surfaces outside of the human body approximately --- hours

2

73.

Which of the following famous figures in history suspected of having had a syphilis?

All the above

74.

Today syphilis is generally treated with an injection of ...

Penicillin or 2 week regimen of tetracycline

75.

Which stage is signified by the presence of a chancre?

Primary

76.

The chancre heals without treatment in --- weeks.

3-6

77.

Initial infection during the primary stage is typically followed by swollen and -- lymph nodes.

Painless

78.

During secondary stage of syphilis , a widespread maculopapular pink rash may appear, concentrated especially on the

All the above

79.

A latency period for the syphilis appears between the ----.

Primary and secondary stages

80.

Pregnant females typically ---

Pass the disease to their unborn children as congenital syphilis infection

81.

Tabes dorsalis is a result of invasion of syphilis causing spirochetes into the ---

CNS

82.

Which of the following tests for the detection of antibodies are used for diagnosis of syphilis ?

Both a and b

83.

The gold standard for diagnosis of syphilis is culture, performed in -----

Vivo

84.

Which line is defense includes skin and mucous membrane?

First line of defense

85.

What individual may qualify for Active acquired (adaptive) immunity?

Who have the specific disease

86.

Which of the following is Humoral Immunity based on?

B cells

87.

Which of the following is method of control against microbial growth?

Decontamination