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Final Exam Biology II

1.

Food moves along the digestive tract as the result of contractions by EXAM 2 BONUS

smooth muscle

2.

An example of a properly functioning homeostatic control system is seen when EXAM 2 BONUS

the kidneys excrete salt into the urine when dietary salt levels rise

3.

Positive feedback has occurred when EXAM 2 BONUS

uterine contractions needed for the birthing process are expedited by the pressure of a moving baby in its mother's uterus

4.

To prepare flight muscles for use on a cool morning, hawkmouth moths EXAM 2 BONUS

rapidly contract and relax these muscles to generate metabolic warmth

5.

If you were to prune the shoot tips of a plant, what would be the effect on the plant and the leaf area index? EXAM 2 BONUS

bushier plants, higher leaf area indexes

6.

An example of an organism that has only behavioral controls over its body temperature is the EXAM 2 BONUS

green frog

7.

In flowering plants, pollen is released from the EXAM 2 BONUS

anther

8.

The most immediate potential benefits of introducing genetically modified crops include EXAM 2 BONUS

increasing crop yield

9.

A parent with an S1S2 genotype exhibiting sporophytic self-incompatibility can potentially fertilize which of the following plant genotypes of the same species with pollen grains? EXAM 2 BONUS

S3S4

10.

One disadvantage of monoculture is that EXAM 2 BONUS

genetic uniformity makes a crop more vulnerable to a new pest or disease

11.

Exam 1 Questions:

1) An individual mixotroph loses its plastids, yet continues to survive. Which of the following most likely accounts for its continued survival?

It engulfs organic material by phagocytosis or by absorption

12.

2) The larvae of many common tapeworm species that infect humans are usually found

Encysted in the muscles of an animal such as cow or pig

13.

3) Protists are alike, in that all are.....?

Eukaryotic

14.

4) Which of the following conditions is caused by a fungus that is accidentally consumed along with rye flour?

Ergotism

15.

5) Mitotic activity by the apical meristem of a root makes which of the following more possible?

Increase of the above ground stem

16.

6) Which two genera have members that can evade the human immune system frequently changing their surface protein?

Trypanosoma and Plasmodium

17.

7) In life cycles with an alternation of generation, multicellular haploid forms alternate with

multicellular diploid forms

18.

8) Which taxon is essentially equivalent to "Embryophytes"

Plantae

19.

9) The functional role of sporopollenin is to primarily

Reduce dehydration

20.

10) In the monocots, the number of petals in their flowers is divisible by 3 while in eudicots its divisible by 4 or 5 (TRUE/FALSE)

TRUE

21.

11) Which of the following characteristics helped seedless plants better adapt to life on land?

Stomata on leaf

22.

12) Which of the following characteristics added more to vertebrate success in relatively dry environments?

The shelled, amniotic egg

23.

13) If fern gametophyte is a hermaphrodite then it

Belongs to species that is homosporous

24.

14) Increasing the number of stomata per unit surface area of leaf when atmospheric CO2 level decline is most analogous to human

putting more Red Blood Corpuscles (RBCs) into the circulation when atmospheric O2 levels decline

25.

15) In plants which of the following are directly produced by meiosis?

Haploid spores

26.

16) Which of the following is a characteristic of most extant species reptiles and most extant mammals?

Keratinized skin

27.

17) Which of the following terms refers to the symbiotic relationships that involve fungi living between the cells in plant leaves?

Endophytes

28.

18) Which phylum is characterized by animals that have segmented body?

Arthropoda

29.

19) Angiosperm are the most successful terrestrial plants. Which of the following features is unique to them and helps account for their success?

Fruits enclosing seeds

30.

20) Which of the following is unique to animals?

Nervous conduction and muscular movement

31.

21) When a mycelium infiltrates an unexploited source of dead organic matter, what is most likely to appear within the food source soon thereafter?

Fungal enzymes

32.

22) Chemicals secreted by soil fungi, that inhibit the growth of bacteria are known as

Antibiotics

33.

23) Orchid seeds are tiny with virtually no endosperm and with minuscule cotyledons. If such seeds are deposited in a dark, moist environment, then which of the following represents the most likely means by which fungi might assist in seed germination given what seed lack?

By providing embryos with some of the organic nutrients they have absorbed

34.

24) Acoelomates are characterized by

A solid body without a cavity surrounding internal organs

35.

25) Which chemical is synthesized by sponges and acts as an antibiotic?

Cribostatin

36.

26) Trypanosoma gambiae, transmitted by tse tse flies is the parasite that causes malaria (TRUE/FALSE)

FALSE

37.

27) What would be the most effective way of reducing the incidence of blood fluke in humans?

Reduce the freshwater snail population

38.

28) Trematodes that parasitize the humans spend part of their lives in snail hosts (TRUE/ FALSE)

TRUE

39.

29) Humans most frequently acquire trichinosis by

Eating undercooked pork

40.

30) One summer Taryn returns to family farm from college. Observing the pond, she is fascinated by some six-legged organisms that can crawl above on submerged surface or when disturbed seemingly "jet" through the water

Insects

41.

31) Blood flukes can dodge immune responses and thrive in a human host for more than 40 years (TRUE/ FALSE)

TRUE

42.

32) Ciliates typically have single nucleus (TRUE/ FALSE)

FALSE

43.

33) Heterotrophs are organisms that combine photosynthesis and heterotrophic nutrition (TRUE/ FALSE)

FALSE

44.

34) Apicomplexans enter and spread through their host as infectious cells called sporozoites (TRUE/ FALSE)

TRUE

45.

35) Tapeworms are dangerous to human health because they have a very efficient digestive system which enables them to cause nutritional deficiencies by robbing lots of nutrients from their human hosts. (TRUE/ FALSE)

FALSE

46.

Exam 1 Bonus Questions:

1) Which of the following statements concerning protists is true?

All protists have mitochondria, though in some species they are much reduced and known by different names

47.

2) Cutting down rain forest can lead to

Decreased rainfall

48.

3) Phylogenetic trees are best described as

Hypothetical portrayals of evolutionary relationships

49.

4) Which of the following pairs of protists and their characteristic is mismatched?

Ciliates - Red tide organisms

50.

5) Which of the following is correctly described as a primary producer?

Diatom

51.

6) In addition to seeds, which of the following characteristics are unique to the seed-producing plants?

Pollen

52.

7) Which of the following statements is true of archegonia?

They temporarily contain sporophyte embryos

53.

8) Largest to Smallest

Gametophyte ----> Gametangia ----> Antheridia ----> Gametes

54.

10) A fruit is most commonly

a mature ovary

55.

11) Which of the following are structures of angiosperm gametophyte?

Pollen tubes

56.

12) Which of the following are characteristics of hyphae fungi?

They are adapted for rapid directional growth to new food sources

57.

A student measures water potential and takes a reading in normal daylight, with the stomata open, and photosynthesis occurring what should the data look like if the cohesion-tension mechanism is operating? EXAM 2

Ψ atmosphere < Ψ leaves < Ψ roots < Ψ soil

58.

Photosynthesis ceases when leaves wilt mainly because EXAM 2

stomata close, preventing carbon dioxide from entering the leaf

59.

Ten tomato plants were germinated and kept in a large tray with no drainage after several weeks they wilt and die despite watering and fertilization this is because EXAM 2

lack of oxygen for the roots

60.

Which soil mineral is leached during hard rain EXAM 2

NO3 -

61.

A farmer buys land in a relatively arid area and wants to make money off of it for a several years what advice would you give the farmer? EXAM 2

selecting crops adapted to arid areas

62.

NPK percentages on a package of fertilizer refer to EXAM 2

The percent of 3 different mineral nutrients

63.

A plant is suffering from mineral deficiency after being treated with fungicide, what caused it EXAM 2

mycorrhizal fungi were killed

64.

What experiment is the best way to determine if an element is essential for plant growth? EXAM 2

grow plant using hydroponics with and without the element

65.

What element is often limiting nutrient for plant growth EXAM 2

nitrogen, potassium, phosphorus

66.

Nitrogen fixation is a process that EXAM 2

converts nitrogen gas into ammonia

67.

When weeding your garden you expose roots of pea plants and see swelling on the roots and reddish tinge to the ones you damaged, most likely your pea plants are EXAM 2

benefiting from mutalistic bacterium

68.

Correct order of floral organs from outside to inside of a complete flower EXAM 2

sepals - petals - stamens - carpels

69.

Sperm cells are formed in plants by EXAM 2

mitosis in male gametophytes

70.

Which of the following flower parts develop into seed EXAM 2

ovule

71.

the generative cell male angiosperm gametophyte is haploid, it divides to produce two haploid sperm cells, what type of cell division is used to produce the sperm cells EXAM 2

mitosis

72.

Which of the following is correct regarding flowering plants EXAM 2

pollination is the delivery of pollen to the stigma of a carpel

73.

Animal and Insect pollinated produces 1000 pollen grains while wind produces 1,000,000 pollen grains what does that indicate EXAM 2

wind pollination is less efficient then animal-assisted pollination

74.

Angiosperms are the most successful terrestrial plants, which feature is unique to them and made for their success EXAM 2

fruits inclosing seeds

75.

The coordination of a vertebrate body from chemical signals by the EXAM 2

endocrine system

76.

If you bend your ear and let go it returns to shape because the cartilage contains EXAM 2

elastic fibers

77.

All animals large or small have EXAM 2

most cells in contact with aqueous medium

78.

What type of tissue would the term carcinoma and melanoma is closely associated with EXAM 2

epithelial

79.

An elephant and mouse run around in the sun, overheat, then go in the shade to rest who cools down faster EXAM 2

mouse will, higher surface-area-to-volume ratio

80.

blood glucose rises, pancreas secretes insulin, as result levels decrease, when level is low pancreas secretes glucagon it rises, such regulation of blood glucose level is result of EXAM 2

negative feedback

81.

advantages + disadvantages to adaptions, Endotherms are at a disadvantage in EXAM 2

environments with variable and limited food sources

82.

energy budgets of a human, elephant, penguin, mouse, snake ______ has highest annual energy and _____ highest energy expenditure per unit mass EXAM 2

elephant; mouse

83.

The Human Knee-Jerk reflex requires an intact (EXAM 4)

Spinal cord

84.

The divisions of the nervous system that have antagonistic or opposing actions are (EXAM 4)

Sympathetic and Parasympathetic systems

85.

Internal and external fertilization membrane requires an increase in the availability of (EXAM 4)

Calcium ions

86.

If gastrulation was blocked by an environmental toxin then (EXAM 4)

Embryonic germ layers would not form

87.

The vertebrate ectoderm is the origin of (EXAM 4)

Nervous and sensory systems

88.

From earliest to latest, the overall sequence of early development proceeds in which of the following sequences (EXAM 4)

Cleavage -> Gastrulation -> Organogenesis

89.

Animal cells that are present only for a brief developmental phase will, following completion of that phase, undergo (EXAM 4)

Apoptosis

90.

Cells transplanted from the neural tube of a frog embryo to the ventral part of another embryo develop into nervous system tissue. This result indicates that the transplanted cells were (EXAM 4)

Determined

91.

Most of the neurons in the human brain are (EXAM 4)

Interneuron

92.

A common feature of action potentials is that they (EXAM 4)

Are triggered by a depolarization that reaches the threshold

93.

The “threshold” potential of membrane (EXAM 4)

Is the minimum depolarization needed to operate the voltage-gated sodium and potassium channels

94.

Cerebrospinal fluid can be described as all of the following except (EXAM 4)

Formed from layers of connective tissue

95.

Supposing you dived to the bottom of the ocean to study fish and discovered a population of fish that are only females. Give the type of reproduction these fish most likely use (EXAM 4)

Parathenogensis

96.

The “undershoot” phase of after hyper polarization is due to (EXAM 4)

Sustained opening of voltage-gated potassium channels

97.

Immediately after an action potential passes along an axon, it is not possible to generate a second action potential; thus, we state (EXAM 4)

Refractory

98.

Neurotransmitters are released from axon terminals via (EXAM 4)

Exocytosis

99.

The fastest possible conduction velocity of action potentials is observed in (EXAM 4)

Thick, myelinated neurons

100.

Neural transmission across a mammalian synapse gap is accomplished by (EXAM 4)

Impulse causing the release of a chemical signal and its diffusion the gap

101.

Neurotransmitters affect postsynaptic cells by (EXAM 4)

All of these options are correct

102.

Environmental cues that influence the timing of reproduction generally do so by (EXAM 4 BONUS)

Direct effects on hormonal control mechanisms

103.

The blood-brain barrier (EXAM 4 BONUS)

Is formed by tight junctions

104.

Among non-mammalian vertebrates the cloaca is an anatomical structure that functions as (EXAM 4 BONUS)

A shared pathway for the digestive, excretory, and reproductive system

105.

A reproductive difference between sea urchins, and humans (EXAM 4 BONUS)

The sea urchin egg completes meiosis prior to fertilization, but meiosis in humans is completed after fertilization

106.

Contact of a sea urgent egg with signal molecules on sperm cause the egg to undergo brief (EXAM 4 BONUS)

Membrane depolarization

107.

Preparation for the fight-or-flight response includes activation of the ____ nervous system (EXAM 4 BONUS)

Sympathetic

108.

The primitive streak in a bird is the function equivalent of (EXAM 4 BONUS)

The lip of the blastopore in the frog

109.

Action potentials normally carried in only one direction from the axon hillock toward the axon terminals. If you experimentally depolarize the middle of the axon to threshold, using an electronic probe, then (EXAM 4 BONUS)

two action potentials will be initiated are going toward the axon terminal and one going back towards the headlock

110.

a chemical that affects neuron function, but is not stored in the presynaptic vesicles is (EXAM 4 BONUS)

Nitric oxide

111.

The coronation of groups of skeletal muscles is driven by activity in the (EXAM 4 BONUS)

cerebellum

112.

A Human sperm cells first arise in the (EXAM 4 BONUS)

Seminiferous tubles

113.

Increasing the temperature of the human scrotum of 2°C (i.e, near the normal body core temp) and holding it there would (EXAM 4 BONUS)

Reduce the fertility of the men by impairing, spermatogenesis

114.

The vitelline layer of the sea urchins eggs (EXAM 4 BONUS)

has receptor molecules that are specific for binding acrosomal proteins

115.

At the time of fertilization, the complete maturation of each oogonium has resulted in

One secondary oocyte

116.

For a neuron with an initial membrane potential at -70 mv an increase in the movement of potassium ions out of the neurons cytoplasm would result in (EXAM 4 BONUS)

The hyperpolarization of the neuron.