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136 notecards = 34 pages (4 cards per page)

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Echo500

front 1

79. The most common etiology of mitral stenosis in adults is:

back 1

Rheumatic fever

front 2

80. The cardiac valves listed in decreasing order as they are affected by rheumatic heart disease are:

back 2

Mitral, Aortic, Tricuspid, Pulmonic

front 3

81. Signs and symptoms of mitral stenosis secondary to rheumatic heart disease include:

back 3

Pulmonary hypertension

front 4

82. Patients with mitral stenosis, left atrial enlargement and atrial fibrillation are at increased risk for the development of:

back 4

Left atrial thrombus

front 5

83. Conditions that may lead to clinical symptoms that mimic those associated with rheumatic mitral stenosis include:

back 5

Left atrial myxoma

front 6

84. The equation used in the cardiac catherization laboratory to determine mitral valve area is the:

back 6

Gorlin

front 7

85. The M-mode being demonstrated below is an example of:

back 7

mitral stenosis

front 8

86. A strong indication for mitral stenosis on two-dimensional echocardiography is an anterior mitral valve leaflet that exhibits

back 8

Diastolic doming

front 9

87. Two-dimensional echocardiographic findings for rheumatic mitral stenosis include all of the following except:

A. Hockey-stick appearance of anterior mitral leaflet
B. Increased left atrial dimension
C. Reverse doming of the anterior mitral leaflet
D. Thickened mitral valve leaflets and subvalvular apparatus

back 9

Reverse doming of the anterior mitral leaflet

front 10

88. The most accurate method for determining the severity of mitral valve stenosis is:

back 10

Performing planimetry of the mitral valve orifice by two-dimensional echocardiography

front 11

89. Critical mitral valve stenosis is said to be present if the mitral valve area is reduced to:

back 11

< 1.0cm2

front 12

90. Typical echocardiographic finding in a patient with isolated rheumatic mitral stenosis include all of the following except:

A. D-shaped left ventricle
B. Dilated left ventricle
C. Left atrial enlargement
D. Left atrial thrombus

back 12

Dilated left ventricle

front 13

91. Secondary echocardiographic/Doppler findings in patients with rheumatic mitral stenosis include all of the following except:

A. Abnormal interventricular septal wall motion
B. Increase right heart dimensions
C. Increased tricuspid regurgitant jet velocity
D. Left ventricular dilation

back 13

Left ventricular dilation

front 14

92. The classic cardiac Doppler features of mitral valve stenosis include all of the following except:

A. Increased E velocity
B. Increased mitral valve area
C. Increased pressure half-time
D. Turbulent flow

back 14

Increased mitral valve area

front 15

93. The abnormal mitral valve pressure half-time for patients with mitral valve stenosis is:

back 15

90 to 400 msec

front 16

94. A deceleration time of 800 msec was obtained by continues wave Doppler in a patient with rheumatic mitral valve stenosis. The pressure half-time is:

back 16

232msec

front 17

95. A Doppler mean pressure gradient across a stenotic mitral valve of 22mmhg is obtained. The severity of the mitral stenosis is:

back 17

severe

front 18

96. Mitral stenosis is considered to be severe by all of the following criteria except:

A. Mean pressure gradient >=10mmHg
B. Mitral valve area <= 1.0cm2
C. Mitral valve Doppler A wave peak velocity >1.3m/s
D. Pressure half-time >220 msec

back 18

Mitral valve Doppler A wave peak

front 19

97. Two-dimensional echocardiographic examination reveals thin mobile mitral valve leaflet tips and a Doppler E velocity of 1.0m/s with a pressure half-time of 180msec in an elderly patient. The most likely diagnosis is:

back 19

moderate to severed mitral annular calcification

front 20

98. All of the following are possible etiologies of anatomic mitral regurgitation except:

A. Mitral annular calcification
B. Mitral valve prolapse
C. Ruptured chordae tendineae
D. Dilated cardiomyopathy

back 20

Dilated cardiomyopathy

front 21

99. All of the following are causes of chronic mitral regurgitation except:

A. Rheumatic heart disease
B. Cleft mitral valve
C. Ruptured papillary muscle
D. Mitral annular calcification

back 21

Ruptured papillary muscle

front 22

100. The most common presenting symptom of significant chronic mitral regurgitation is:

back 22

dyspnea

front 23

101. Congestive heart failure in a patient with significant chronic mitral regurgitation occurs because of increased pressure in the:

back 23

left atrium

front 24

102. Possible signs and symptoms associated with acute severe mitral regurgitation include

back 24

pulmonary edema

front 25

103. Chronic significant mitral regurgitation may result in all of the following except:

A. Left atrial enlargement
B. Left ventricular enlargement
C. Left ventricular volume overload pattern
D. Mitral annular calcification

back 25

Mitral annular calcification

front 26

104. The most likely heart sound to be hear in patients with significant chronic pure mitral regurgitation is:

back 26

S3

front 27

105. The classic description of the murmur of chronic mitral regurgitation is:

back 27

Holosystolic murmur heart beats at the apex radiating to the axilla

front 28

106. Cardiac magnetic resonance imaging provides all of the following information in the evaluation of mitral regurgitation except:

A. Regurgitant volume
B. Left ventricular volumes
C. Detailed visualization of the mitral valve apparatus
D. Left ventricular mass

back 28

Detailed visualization of the mitral valve apparatus

front 29

107. M-mode and two-dimensional finding associated with significant chronic mitral regurgitation include all of the following except:

A. Fine diastolic fluttering of the mitral valve
B. Left atrial enlargement
C. Left ventricular enlargement
D. Left ventricular volume overload pattern

back 29

Fine diastolic fluttering of the mitral valve

front 30

108. The M-mode shown is demonstrating:

back 30

left ventricular volume overload pattern

front 31

109. Systolic bowing of the inter-atrial septum toward the right atrium throughout the cardiac cycle may be an indication of:

back 31

mitral regurgitation

front 32

110. In patients with significant pure mitral regurgitation, the E velocity of the mitral valve pulsed-wave Doppler tracing is

back 32

increased

front 33

111. The effect significant mitral regurgitation has on the pulsed-wave Doppler tracing of the pulmonary veins may be described as:

back 33

S wave reverses, D wave increases

front 34

112. An accepted method for determining the severity of the mitral regurgitation by continuous-wave Doppler is spectral:

back 34

Jet density

front 35

113. In patients with significant mitral regurgitation, the continuous-wave Doppler tracing of the regurgitant lesion may demonstrate a(n):

back 35

Asymmetrical shape of the mitral regurgitation flow velocity spectral display

front 36

114. The peak mitral regurgitation velocity as determined with continuous-wave Doppler reflects the:

back 36

Maximum pressure difference between the left atrium and the left ventricle

front 37

115. In patients with severe acute mitral regurgitation, the continuous-wave Doppler peak velocity of the regurgitant jet is:

back 37

decreased

front 38

116. In patients with significant mitral regurgitation, the isovolumic relaxation time may be:

back 38

decreased

front 39

117. A color flow Doppler method for semi-quantitating mitral regurgitation is regurgitant jet:

back 39

area

front 40

118. All of the following are useful color-flow Doppler techniques in the evaluation of mitral regurgitation except:

A. Vena contracta width
B. PISA diameter
C. Peak velocity
D. Jet area

back 40

Peak velocity

front 41

119. Quantitative approaches to determine the severity of mitral regurgitation include all of the following except:

A. Regurgitant volume
B. Regurgitant fraction
C. Regurgitant jet area
D. Effective regurgitant orifice

back 41

Regurgitant jet area

front 42

120. Cardiac Doppler evidence of severe mitral regurgitation includes all of the following except:

A. Dense, triangular CW tracing
B. Mitral valve E wave velocity <1.0 m/sec
C. Pulmonary vein systolic flow reversal
D. Regurgitant jet area/left atrial area ration >40%

back 42

Mitral valve E wave velocity <1.0 m/sec

front 43

121. All of the following are true statements concerning mitral regurgitation except:

A. Mitral regurgitation may be acute, chronic, or intermittent
B. Mitral regurgitation may result in an increase in preload
C. Severity of mitral regurgitation is not affected by afterload
D. Regurgitant jet area, vena contracta width and proximal isovelocity surface area are recommended when determining severity

back 43

Severity of mitral regurgitation is not affected by afterload

front 44

122. Diastolic mitral regurgitation is associated with:

back 44

Sever aortic regurgitation

front 45

123. The most common symptoms of mitral valve prolapse include all of the following except:

A. Atypical chest pain
B. Palpatations
C. Syncope
D. Ascites

back 45

Ascites

front 46

124. The complications of mitral valve prolapse include all of the following except:

A. Increased risk of infective endocarditis
B. Significant mitral regurgitation
C. Mitral valve repair and replacement
D. Valvular stenosis

back 46

Vavular stenosis

front 47

125. The associated auscultatory findings for mitral prolapse include:

back 47

Mid-systolic click

front 48

126. A key word that is often used to describe characteristics of the valve leaflets in mitral valve prolapse is:

back 48

redundant

front 49

127. The term myxomatous degeneration is associated with mitral valve:

back 49

prolapse

front 50

128. Echocardiographic characteristics of mitral valve prolapse include all of the following except:

A. Increased mitral valve annulus diameter
B. Systolic bowing of the mitral valve leaflets towards the LA
C. Thickened, redundant, myxomatous leaflets
D. Diastolic doming of the mitral valve leaflets

back 50

Diastolic doming of the mitral valve leaflets

front 51

129. The gold standard Two-dimensional echocardiographic view recommended to diagnose the presence of mitral valve prolapse is:

back 51

parasternal long axis

front 52

130. Secondary causes of mitral valve prolapse include all of the following except:

A. Atrial septal defect
B. Bicuspid aortic valve
C. Cardiac tamponade
D. Primary pulmonary hypertension

back 52

Bicuspid aortic valve

front 53

131. All of the following are associate with mitral valve prolapse except:

A. Mitral regurgitation
B. Tricuspid valve prolapse
C. Aortic valve prolapse
D. Pulmonary atresia

back 53

Pulmonary atresia

front 54

132. Which of the following is most commonly associated with mitral valve prolapse:

back 54

Left heart volume overload

front 55

133. There is posterior mitral valve prolapse present. With color flow Doppler on, which direction will the mitral regurgitation jet be baffled?

back 55

Anterior

front 56

134. Flail mitral valve can be differentiated from severe mitral valve prolapse on two-dimensional echocardiography because flail mitral valve leaflet demonstrates:

back 56

leaflet tip that points towards the left atrium.

front 57

135. Mitral valve chordal rupture usually results in:

back 57

mitral valve regurgitation

front 58

136. A common finding associated with a regurgitant murmur in the elderly is:

back 58

Mitral annular calcification

front 59

137. On M-mode and two-dimentional echocardiography dense echoes are noted posterior to normal mitral valve leaflets. The probable diagnosis is mitral valve:

back 59

Annular calcification

front 60

138. The etiology of aortic valve stenosis includes all of the following except:

A. Bacterial
B. Congenital
C. Degenerative
D. Rhuematic

back 60

Bacterial

front 61

139. The most likely etiology of aortic valve stenosis in a 47-year-old patient is:

back 61

Congenital

front 62

140. The cardinal symptom of valvular stenosis includes all of the following except:

A. Angina pectoris
B. Congestive heart failure
C. Anasarca
D. Syncope

back 62

Anasarca

front 63

141. The murmur of aortic stenosis is describes as:

back 63

Systolic ejection murmur heard best at the right upper sternal boarder

front 64

142. The pulse that is characteristic of significant valvular stenosis is:

back 64

Pulsus parvus et tardus

front 65

143. The aoritic valve area considered critical aortic valve stenosis is:

back 65

<=.75cm2

front 66

144. The formula used to determine aortic valve area in the cardiac catherization laboratory is the:

back 66

Gorlin equasion

front 67

145. All of the following may be measured in the cardiac catherization laboratory when evaluating aortic stenosis except:

A. Peak velocity
B. Maximum peak instantaneous pressure gradient
C. Peak-to-peak pressure gradient
D. Mean pressure gradient

back 67

Peak velocity

front 68

146. The Doppler maximum peak instantaneous pressure gradient in a patient with aortic stenosis is 100mmHg. The cardiac catherization peak-to-peak pressure gradient will most likely be:

back 68

Lower than 100mmHg

front 69

147. An effect of significant aortic valve stenosis on the left ventricle is:

back 69

Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy

front 70

148. Pathologies that may result in a left ventricular pressure overload include all of the following except:

A. Discrete subaortic stenosis
B. Mitral valve stenosis
C. Systemic hypertension
D. Valvular aortic stenosis

back 70

Mitral valve stenosis

front 71

149. The characteristic M-mode findings for aortic valvular stenosis include all of the following except:

A. A lack of systolic flutter of the aortic leaflets
B. Diastolic flutter of the aortic leaflets
C. Reduced leaflet separation in systole
D. Thickening of the aortic valve leaflets

back 71

Diastolic flutter of the aortic leaflets

front 72

150. Possible two-dimensional echocardiographic findings in significant aortic valve stenosis include all of the following except:

A. Aortic valve calcification
B. Left ventricular hypertrophy
C. Post-stenotic dilatation of the ascending aorta
D. Post-stenotic dilatation of the decending aorta

back 72

Post-stenotic dilatation of the decending aorta

front 73

151. In the parasternal long axis view, sever aortic valve stenosis is define as an aortic valve leaflet separation that measures:

back 73

<= 8mm

front 74

152. Secondary echocardiographic findings associated with sever valvular aortic stenosis include all of the following except:

A. Decreased left ventricular systolic function
B. Left ventricular hypertrophy
C. Post-stenotic dilatation of the ascending aorta
D. Right ventricular hypertrophy

back 74

Right ventricular hypertrophy

front 75

153. The two-dimensional view which best to visualize systolic doming of the aortic leaflets is the:

back 75

parasternal long axis view

front 76

154. Cardiac Doppler parameters used to assess the severity of valvular aortic stenosis include all of the following except:

A. Aortic pressure half-time
B. Aortic velocity ratio
C. Mean pressure gradient
D. Peak aortic valve velocity

back 76

Aortic pressure half-time

front 77

155. Of the transvalvular pressure gradients that can be measured in the echocardiography laboratory, the most useful in examining aortic valve stenosis is probably:

back 77

mean systolic gradient

front 78

156. A Doppler mean pressure gradient of 18mmHg is calculated in a patient with valvular aortic stenosis. The severity of the aortic stenosis is;

back 78

Mild

front 79

157. The onset of flow to peak aortic velocity CW Doppler tracing in severe valvular aortic stenosis is

back 79

increased

front 80

158. The severity of aortic valve stenosis may be underestimated if only the maximum velocity measurement is used in the following condition:

back 80

Low cardiac output

front 81

159. The echocardiographer may differentiate between the similar systolic flow patters seen in coexisting severe aortic valve stenosis and mitral regurgitation by all of the following except:

A. Aortic ejection time is shorter than that of the mitral regurgitation time
B. Mitral regurgitation flow always lasts until mitral valve opening, whereas aortic valve stenosis flow does not
C. Mitral diastolic filling profile should be present during recording of the mitral regurgitation, whereas no diastolic flow is observed in aortic valve stenosis
D. Since both are systolic flow patterns, it is not possible to separate mitral regurgitation from aortic stenosis

back 81

D is false

front 82

160. The two-dimentional echocardiogram demonstrates a thickened aortic valve with reduced systolic excursion. On physical examination there was a crescendo-decrescendo murmur heard. The most likely diagnosis is:

back 82

Stenosis and regurgitation

front 83

161. When two-dimensional evaluation of a systolic ejection murmur reveals thickened aortic valve with normal systolic excursion and a peak velocity across the aortic valve of 1.5m/s. The diagnosis is likely aortic valve:

back 83

sclerosis

front 84

162. The most common etiology of chronic aortic regurgitation is:

back 84

Dilatation of the aortic root and aortic annulus

front 85

163. All of the following represents possible etiologies for acute aortic regurgitation except:

A. Infective endocarditis
B. Aortic valve sclerosis
C. Aortic dissection
D. Trauma

back 85

Aortic valve sclerosis

front 86

164. The LEAST common valve regurgitation found in normal patients is:

back 86

aortic

front 87

165. All of the following all associated with significant chronic aortic regurgitation except:

A. Wide pulse pressure
B. Congestive heart failure
C. Holosystolic murmur heard best at the cardiac apex
D. Angina pectoris

back 87

Holosystolic murmur herad best at the cardiac apex

front 88

166. The characteristic feature of the murmur of chronic aortic regurgitation is a:

back 88

Diastolic decrescendo murmur heard best along the left sternal boarder

front 89

167. The murmur associated with sever aortic regurgitation is:

back 89

Austin-Flint

front 90

168. Cardiac magnetic resonance imaging provides all of the following information in a patient with aortic regurgitation except:

A. Detailed resolution of the aortic valve
B. Regurgitant volume
C. Effective regurgitant orifice
D. Left ventricular volumes

back 90

Detailed resolution of the aortic valve

front 91

169. The hallmark M-mode finding for aortic regurgitation is:

back 91

Fine diastolic flutter of the anterior mitral valve leaflet

front 92

170. Reverse diastolic doming of the anterior mitral valve leaflet is associated with:

back 92

severe aortic regurgitation

front 93

171. All of the following are two-dimentional echocardiography findings in a patient with significant chronic aortic regurgitation except:

A. Left atrial enlargement
B. Abnormal aortic valve or aortic root
C. Left ventricular enlargement
D. Hyperkinetic left ventricular wall motion

back 93

Left atrial enlargement

front 94

172. In significant chronic aortic regurgitation, M-mode and 2D evidence includes all of the following except:

A. Hyperkinesis of the interventricular septum
B. Hyperkinesis of the posterior wall of the left ventricle
C. Left ventricular dilation
D. Paradoxical interventricular septal motion

back 94

Paraxoxical interventricular septal motion

front 95

173. The M-Mode/2D parameters that have been proposed as an indicator for aortic valve replacement in severe chronic regurgitation are left ventricular:

back 95

End-systolic dimension >=55mm and fractional shortening of <= 25%

front 96

174. Premature closure of the mitral valve is associated with all of the following except:

A. Acute severe mitral regurgitation
B. Acute severe aortic regurgitation
C. First-degree AV block
D. Loss of sinus rhythm

back 96

Acute sever mitral regurgitation

front 97

175. In a patient with severe acute aortic regurgitation the left ventricular end-diastolic pressure increases rapidly. This pathophysiology will affect which of the following?

back 97

Closure of the mitral valve

front 98

176. The M-mode finding that indicates severe aortic regurgitation is premature aortic valve:

back 98

opening

front 99

177. Echocardiographic evidence of severe acute aortic regurgitation includes all of the following except

A. Premature closure of the mitral valve
B. Premature opening of the aortic valve
C. Premature opening of the mitral valve
D. Reverse doming of the anterior mitral valve leaflet

back 99

Premature opening of the mitral valve

front 100

178. The mitral valve PW Doppler flow pattern often associated with sever acute aortic regurgitation is grade:

back 100

III or IV (restrictive)

front 101

179. The pulmonary vein atrial reversal wave may be ________ in peak velocity and duration in a patient with severe acute aortic regurgitation

back 101

increased

front 102

180. Severe aortic regurgitation is diagnosed with CW Doppler by all of the following except:

A. A maximum velocity of 4 m/s
B. A pressure half-time of < 200msec
C. Increased jet density
D. Steep deceleration slope

back 102

A maximum velocity of 4 m/s

front 103

181. The CW Doppler signal of aortic regurgitation may be differentiated for the CW Doppler signal for mitral stenosis by the following guideline:

back 103

If the diastolic flow pattern commences before mitral valve opening than the signal is due to aortic regurgitation

front 104

182. The severity of aortic regurgitation may be best determined with color flow Doppler by all of the following methods except:

A. Measuring aortic regurgitation jet aliasing area in the parasternal long-axis view
B. Comparing the aortic regurgitation jet width with the left ventricular outflow tract width in the parasternal long axis
C. Measuring the vena contracta in the parasternal long axis view
D. Determinging the presence of holodiastolic flow reversal in the descending aorta / abdominal aorta

back 104

Measuring the aortic regurgitant jet aliasing area in the parasternal long axis view.

front 105

183. Holodiastolic flow reversal in the descending aorta and or the abdominal aorta may be present in each of the following except:

A. Sever aortic regurgitation
B. Severe mitral regurgitation
C. Patent ductus arteriosus
D. Aortopulmonary window

back 105

Sever mitral regurgitation

front 106

184. All of the following are considered useful quantitative measurements to determine the severity of aortic regurgitation except:

A. Peak velocity of aortic regurgitation
B. Regurgitant volume
C. Regurgitant fraction
D. Effective regurgitant orifice

back 106

Peak velocity of the aortic regurgitation

front 107

185. Posterior displacement of the aortic valve leaflets into the left ventricle outflow tract during ventricular diastole is called aortic valve:

back 107

prolapse

front 108

186. The most common etiology of tricuspid stenosis is:

back 108

Rheumatic fever

front 109

187. The typical 2D findings in rheumatic tricuspid stenosis include all of the following except:

A. Leaflet thickening especially at the leaflet tips and chordae tendineae
B. Diastolic doming of the anterior tricuspid valve leaflet
C. Right atrial dilatation
D. Systolic bowing of the posterior tricuspid valve leaflet

back 109

Systolic bowing of the posterior tricuspid valve leaflet

front 110

188. All of the following are cardiac Doppler findings for tricuspid valve stenosis except:

A. Increased Tricuspid valve E wave velocity
B. Decreased pressure Half-time
C. Decreased tricuspid valve area
D. Increased mean pressure gradient

back 110

Decreased pressure half time

front 111

189. Causes of anatomic tricuspid regurgitation include all of the following except:

A. Carcinoid heart disease
B. Ebstein’s anomaly
C. Infective endocarditis
D. Pulmonary hypertension

back 111

Pulmonary hypertension

front 112

190. The most common cause of chronic tricuspid regurgitation is

back 112

pulmonary hypertension

front 113

191. Signs of significant tricuspid regurgitation include all of the following except:

A. Hepatomegaly
B. Jugular venous distension
C. Pulsus paradoxus
D. Right ventricular heart failure

back 113

Pulsus paradoxus

front 114

192. The murmur of tricuspid regurgitation is best described as a:

back 114

pansystolic murmur heard best at the lower left sternal boarder

front 115

193. All of the following are dilated in significant chronic tricuspid regurgitation except:

A. Hepatic veins
B. Inferior vena cava
C. Pulmonary veins
D. Right atrium

back 115

Pulmonary veins

front 116

194. M-mode and 2D findings for chronic tricuspid regurgitation include:

back 116

Paradoxical interventricular septal motion

front 117

195. Methods for determining the severity of tricuspid regurgitation with PW Doppler include all of the following except:

A. Increased E wave velocity of the tricuspid valve
B. Holosystolic flow reversal of the hepatic vein
C. Laminar flow of the tricuspid regurgitant jet
D. Peak velocity of the tricuspid regurgitant jet

back 117

Peak velocity of the tricuspid regurgitant jet

front 118

196. Cardiac Doppler findings associated with significant tricuspid regurgitation include all of the following except:

A. Concave late systolic configuration of the regurgitation signal
B. Increased E velocity of the tricuspid valve
C. Systolic flow reversal in the hepatic vein
D. Systolic flow reversal in the pulmonary vein.

back 118

Systolic flow reversal in the pulmonary vein

front 119

197. And intracardiac pressure that may be determined form the CW Doppler tricuspid regurgitation signal is:

back 119

Systolic pulmonary artery pressure

front 120

198. A tricuspid regurgitation peak velocity of 3.0 m/s is obtained. This indicates:

back 120

pulmonary hypertension

front 121

199. Possible echocardiographic and cardiac Doppler findings in a patient with carcinoid heart disease include all of the following except:

A. Tricuspid regurgitation
B. Tricuspid stenosis
C. Tricuspid valve prolapse
D. Pulmonary regurgitation

back 121

Tricuspid valve prolapse

front 122

200. The most common etiology of tricuspid regurgitation is:

back 122

pulmonary hypertension

front 123

201. Significant chronic pulmonary regurgitation is associated with:

back 123

Right ventricular volume overload

front 124

202. All of the following color follow Doppler findings indicate significant pulmonary regurgitation except:

A. Wide jet width at origin
B. Jet width/right ventricular outflow tract width >70%
C. Holodiastolic flow reversal in the pain pulmonary artery
D. Peak velocity of <1.0m/s

back 124

Peak velocity of <1.0 m/s

front 125

203. Which of the following pressures can be predicted when measuring the pulmonary regurgitation end-diastolic velocity

back 125

Pulmonary artery end-diastolic pressure

front 126

204. Which of the following pressures can be calculated when measuring the peak velocity of the pulmonary regurgitation

back 126

Mean pulmonary artery pressure

front 127

205. The most common symptom of infective endocarditis is:

back 127

Fever

front 128

206. The complications of infective endocarditis include all of the following except:

A. Congestive heart failure
B. Embolization
C. Valve ring abscess
D. Annular calcification

back 128

Annular calcification

front 129

207. Infective endocarditis is a greater risk in patients with

back 129

Prosthetic heart valve

front 130

208. A patient with a history of IV drug use presents to the echocardiography laboratory with complaints of fever, night sweats, and weight loss. The most likely explanation is:

back 130

infective endocarditis

front 131

209. The classic manifestation of infective endocarditis is cardiac valve:

back 131

vegetation

front 132

210. The usual site of attachment for vegetations on the mitral valve and tricuspid valve are the:

back 132

atrial side of the valve leaflets

front 133

211. The vegetation diameter as determined by 2D echo that most often is associated with systemic emboli is:

back 133

10mm

front 134

212. The essential 2D finding of valve ring abscess secondary to infective endocarditis may be best described as:

back 134

Echolucent

front 135

213. Valve ring abscess is usually cause by

back 135

infective endocarditis

front 136

214. The test of choice for diagnosing the presence of vegetation and the complications of infective endocarditis is:

back 136

Transesophogeal