front 1 Chapter 1 & 3 | back 1 Chapter 1 & 3 |
front 2 Microbes are NOT responsible for __________. | back 2 b. antibody production |
front 3 The cell theory states that __________ are made up of cells. | back 3 b. all living things |
front 4 In Pasteur's swan-neck flask experiment, the importance of the
S-shaped curves in the flasks was twofold. The curves allowed entry of
air but excluded __________. | back 4 d. airborne bacteria |
front 5 Pasteurization was first developed to kill __________ in
wine. | back 5 a. spoilage bacteria |
front 6 Robert Koch's studies on Bacillus anthracis established a sequence of
experimental steps to prove that microbes __________. | back 6 e. cause disease |
front 7 An exposure to __________ protects against infection with
smallpox. | back 7 a. cowpox |
front 8 Ehrlich searched for a/an __________ that would destroy a pathogen
without harming the infected host. | back 8 d. magic bullet |
front 9 How would you recognize an antibiotic-producing soil bacterium on a
plate crowded with other bacteria? The bacterial colony producing the
antibiotic would be __________. | back 9 b. surrounded by a clear area |
front 10 The usefulness of antibiotics is hampered by __________. | back 10 a. the emergence of antibiotic-resistant bacteria |
front 11 All living organisms can be classified into three domains:
__________. | back 11 d. Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya |
front 12 Which of the following is characteristic of bacteria? | back 12 b. Bacteria lack a membrane-bound nucleus. |
front 13 All of the following are eukaryotes EXCEPT __________. | back 13 a. bacteria |
front 14 A new microorganism has been isolated from hot springs in Yellowstone
National Park. It consists of single cells, which appear to lack a
nucleus. Chemical analysis shows the presence of both DNA and RNA in
the cytoplasm and pseudomurein in the cell wall. In which of the
following groups will this organism be classified? | back 14 a. Archaea |
front 15 Arsenic is a relatively common hazardous waste generated by smelting
processes and can contaminate soil and water surrounding smelting
facilities. A bioprocess using naturally occurring bacteria to remove
arsenic has been developed. This process is an example of
__________. | back 15 c. bioremediation |
front 16 Placing the DNA from an animal cell into the genome of a bacterium
will allow the bacterium to produce an animal product. This new piece
of DNA is referred to as __________. | back 16 d. recombinant DNA |
front 17 Which of the following properties are true of both bacteria and
viruses? | back 17 c. Both use a molecule of nucleic acid to determine heredity. |
front 18 Which is NOT a characteristic of the normal microbiota? | back 18 a. regularly associated with disease symptoms |
front 19 Increased human exposure to new and unusual infectious agents in
areas that are undergoing ecologic changes accounts for the
__________. | back 19 a. emergence of new infectious diseases |
front 20 Mad cow disease is caused by a prion, which is an infectious
__________. | back 20 a. protein |
front 21 Overuse and misuse of antibiotics has __________. | back 21 d. selected for antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria and increased their frequency in both the hospital environment and the community |
front 22 Microbes are responsible for __________. | back 22 e. all of the listed tasks |
front 23 Which of the following is a scientific name? | back 23 a. Legionella pneumophila |
front 24 In the scientific name Escherichia coli, Escherichia is the
__________. | back 24 d. genus |
front 25 All life can be classified into three domains: __________. | back 25 b. Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya |
front 26 Which of the following properties are true of bacteria but not
viruses? | back 26 d. Both contain DNA and RNA. |
front 27 Which of the following types of microorganism and its description are
NOT correctly matched? | back 27 b. protozoa—small animals |
front 28 An exposure to __________ protects against infection with
smallpox. | back 28 a. cowpox |
front 29 Which of the following fields of study and its example are NOT
correctly matched? | back 29 b. parasitology—study of HIV |
front 30 All of the following are examples of biotechnology EXCEPT
__________. | back 30 a. bread making with bacteria and fungi |
front 31 Mad cow disease is caused by a prion, which is an infectious
__________. | back 31 b. protein |
front 32 Which of the following is the most convenient and appropriate unit
for expressing the size of an average bacterial cell? | back 32 b. micrometer |
front 33 All of the following are visible through a compound light microscope
EXCEPT __________. | back 33 a. 0.02-μm ribosome |
front 34 Which of the following is NOT a type of a compound
microscope? | back 34 a. electron microscope |
front 35 Place these structures of the compound light microscope in the order
that light passes through them on the way to the observer's eyes: (1)
condenser, (2) ocular lens, (3) illuminator, (4) specimen, (5)
objective lens. | back 35 a. 3-1-4-5-2 |
front 36 Which of the following kinds of microscopy would be most appropriate
for viewing the shape and arrangement of pili or fimbriae on the
surface of a bacterial cell? | back 36 e. scanning electron microscopy |
front 37 Which of the following types of microscopy is most useful for viewing
the internal structures of unstained specimens? | back 37 c. phase-contrast |
front 38 In the Gram stain, if the decolorizing step is NOT performed,
gram-negative cells will appear __________ at the completion of the
staining procedure. | back 38 d. purple |
front 39 Acid-fast mycobacteria differ from non–acid-fast bacteria by the
presence of __________. In the decolorizing step of the acid-fast
stain, __________ is used. | back 39 waxy material in their cell walls; acid-alcohol |
front 40 The __________ charge of a basic dye adheres to the __________ charge
of bacterial cell surfaces. | back 40 b. positive; negative |
front 41 You are viewing a sputum smear that has been stained with an
acid-fast stain. On this smear you see 5-μm- long red cells. You can
conclude that __________. | back 41 e. there are acid-fast bacteria in the specimen |
front 42 _________are unicellular, eukaryotic microbes that move by pseudopods, flagella, or cilia. | back 42 Protozoa |
front 43 Robert Hooke's observation of the individual units in thin layers of cork tissue led to the development of the ____ theory. | back 43 CELL |
front 44 Lister knew that carbolic acid (phenol) kills bacteria. He used it as the first _____. | back 44 disinfectant |
front 45 The protection from disease provided by vaccination is called______________. | back 45 immunity |
front 46 The theory of spontaneous generation has been disproven and replaced with the concept that living cells arise only from preexisting cells. This is the concept of ____________. | back 46 biogenesis |
front 47 Laboratory methods that prevent contamination of materials by unwanted microbes are called _________ techniques. | back 47 ASEPTIC |
front 48 ____ _____ involves the ability afforded by genetic engineering to insert a missing gene or replace a defective gene in a human cell. | back 48 Gene therapy |
front 49 __________disease is one in which pathogens invade a susceptible host. | back 49 Infectious |
front 50 A complex community of microorganisms that may form a slimy layer on surfaces is known as a ___. | back 50 Biofilm |
front 51 Chapter 4,11, 12 | back 51 Chapter 4,11, 12 |
front 52 1. Spherical bacteria that divide and remain attached in chainlike
patterns are called __________. | back 52 d. streptococci |
front 53 Which of the following bacterial structures are necessary for
chemotaxis? | back 53 d. flagella |
front 54 Chemotaxis refers to the ability of microorganisms to
__________. | back 54 a. move toward or away from chemical stimuli |
front 55 All of the following are found in the cell walls of Gram-positive
bacteria EXCEPT __________. | back 55 b. lipid A |
front 56 Gram-negative cells contain a periplasmic space that is
__________. | back 56 e. rich in degradative enzymes |
front 57 Which of the following is NOT true of the Gram-negative outer
membrane? | back 57 b. It contains enzymes for energy synthesis |
front 58 Which of the following statements about a Gram-negative cell wall is
NOT true? | back 58 b. It has teichoic acids. |
front 59 A population of bacterial cells has been placed in a very
nutrient-poor environment with extremely low concentrations of sugars
and amino acids. Which kind of membrane transport becomes crucial in
this environment? | back 59 b. active transport |
front 60 Which of the following statements is true? | back 60 b. Endospores are extremely durable structures that can survive high temperatures. |
front 61 Which organism is NOT correctly matched to its motility? | back 61 d. Spirillum; axial filaments |
front 62 Some actinomycetes are similar to filamentous fungi because they
__________. | back 62 b. produce asexual reproductive spores |
front 63 Which answer is NOT true of bacterial photosynthesis and/or
photosynthetic bacteria? | back 63 e. Green nonsulfur bacteria use organic compounds as the source of electrons for reduction of carbon dioxide. |
front 64 A new microorganism has been discovered that resides in the mouths of
dogs. This microorganism lacks a nucleus, has a cell wall consisting
of peptidoglycan and an outer membrane of lipopolysaccharide, is
shaped like a corkscrew, and is motile by means of an axial filament.
This organism is most likely related to __________. | back 64 a. spirochaetes |
front 65 Which member of the gammaproteobacteria is a potential cause of
pneumonia and can be found in warm-water supply lines and air
conditioning cooling towers? | back 65 a. Legionella |
front 66 Which of the following bacteria are INCORRECTLY matched with gram
reaction and morphology? | back 66 b. Neisseria; gram-positive coccus |
front 67 Which of the following bacteria does NOT fix nitrogen? | back 67 e. Nitrobacter |
front 68 Which is NOT true of the rickettsias? | back 68 b. They reproduce by fragmentation. |
front 69 A bacterium isolated from the soil has the following characteristics:
it is a gram-negative straight rod, it is aerobic and motile, it
produces water-soluble pigment, and it readily grows on several common
laboratory media. Ribosomal RNA analysis places this bacterium with
the gammaproteobacteria. This organism is most likely in the genus
__________. | back 69 d. Pseudomonas |
front 70 Which of the following statements is NOT true of the genus Mycoplasma
? | back 70 c. They are obligate intracellular pathogens. |
front 71 Which of these bacteria is NOT associated with foodborne
illness? | back 71 a. Erwinia |
front 72 Enteric bacteria would most likely be found in which
environment? | back 72 c. intestinal tract of an animal |
front 73 Which of the following statements is true of members of the order
Lactobacillales? | back 73 c. They do not perform aerobic or anaerobic respiration. |
front 74 Which of the following is an example of a helical bacterium that does
NOT make a complete twist? | back 74 b. Helicobacter |
front 75 Which of the following is an endospore-forming bacterium? | back 75 a. Bacillus |
front 76 All of the following can form filaments EXCEPT __________. | back 76 d. Borrelia |
front 77 Enterics are __________. | back 77 d. facultatively anaerobic, Gram-negative rods |
front 78 Which of the following genera contains organisms that are
psychrotrophic? | back 78 b. Listeria |
front 79 Which of these descriptive terms best fits organisms growing near
hydrothermal vents on the ocean floor? | back 79 b. hyperthermophilic |
front 80 In the 1990s a new parasitic helminth was described in a 3-year-old
boy. The only unusual part of his history was that he played in a shed
frequented by raccoons. To diagnose the child's behavioral changes and
loss of speech and motor skills, doctors did MRIs and CT scans. The
data collected from these scans suggested the presence of larval
helminths in his brain. Which of the following is the most likely
scenario? | back 80 c. Raccoons are the definitive hosts, and humans are accidental intermediate hosts. |
front 81 Which of the following is NOT true of the fungi? | back 81 a. They are strict aerobes. |
front 82 Fungi are __________. | back 82 c. chemoautotrophs |
front 83 Fungal spores __________. | back 83 d. are considered "reproductive" spores |
front 84 Algae differ from fungi in that algae __________. | back 84 a. are unicellular |
front 85 Which of these answers appropriately describes the symbiotic
relationship within lichens? | back 85 a. mutualism |
front 86 Cellular slime molds differ from plasmodial slime molds because
cellular slime molds ___________. A unicellular alga with cell walls
containing pectin and silica is isolated from coastal waters. It is
capable of photosynthesis and stores oil for energy. This alga is most
likely a __________. | back 86 b. have uninucleate cells; diatom |
front 87 Which of the following phyla does NOT contain members that cause
disease in humans? | back 87 d. All of the listed phyla include human pathogens. |
front 88 You are an epidemiologist studying an emerging disease reported over
the past 3 years in Wisconsin, Minnesota, and Michigan. You have
noticed a seasonal pattern of disease, with new cases appearing in
late April through September and peaking in July. No new cases appear
during late fall or the winter months. This pattern is suggestive of
__________. | back 88 d. Giardia disease transmission by an arthropod vector such as a mosquito or tick |
front 89 Chapter 5 | back 89 Chapter 5 |
front 90 Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched? | back 90 b. oxidation; reaction in which electrons are gained |
front 91 Enzymes are important in living organisms because they
__________. | back 91 e. bring together reactants or properly orient a molecule for a reaction |
front 92 A coenzyme assists an enzyme by accepting or donating matter. What
does NAD+ transfer? | back 92 e. electron |
front 93 All of the following are required for the generation of ATP by
chemiosmosis EXCEPT __________. | back 93 c. conversion of pyruvic acid to lactic acid |
front 94 Competitive inhibition of enzyme action involves __________. | back 94 c. competition with the substrate for binding at the active site |
front 95 In an enzymatic reaction involving oxidation of a substrate, which of
the following would be required? | back 95 c. NAD+ |
front 96 A Thiobacillus bacterium uses the Calvin-Benson cycle to reduce CO2
and the oxidation of sulfide ions for energy. This organism is a
__________. | back 96 a. chemoautotroph |
front 97 Heterotrophs use organic molecules as energy and carbon sources. To
produce five-carbon intermediates needed for synthesis of nucleic
acids, the cell utilizes the __________. | back 97 d. pentose phosphate pathway |
front 98 Streptococcus bacteria lack an electron transport chain. How many
molecules of ATP can a Streptococcus cell net from one molecule of
glucose? | back 98 b. 2 |
front 99 The proton motive force is __________. | back 99 d. the movement of water across a membrane |
front 100 Unlike chemiosmosis in eukaryotes, prokaryotes chemiosmosis
__________. | back 100 b. occurs at the plasma membrane and not the mitochondria |
front 101 Which of the following would you predict to be a feedback inhibitor
of the glycolytic enzyme phosphofructokinase? | back 101 c. ATP |
front 102 All of the following are potential end-products of fermentation
EXCEPT __________. | back 102 a. pyruvic acid |
front 103 Which one molecule could provide the carbon source, the energy
source, and the electron source for a chemoheterotroph? | back 103 e. glucose |
front 104 Which organism is NOT correctly matched to its energy source? | back 104 e. photoautotroph; CO2 |
front 105 Organisms that use carbon dioxide as a carbon source and ammonia or
hydrogen sulfide as energy sources are called __________. | back 105 c. chemoautotrophs |
front 106 All of the following pairs are correctly matched EXCEPT
__________. | back 106 e. oxidation—reaction in which electrons are gained |
front 107 Competitive inhibition of enzyme action involves __________. | back 107 e. competition with the substrate for binding at the active site |
front 108 Which of the following mechanisms does NOT generate ATP using an
electron transport chain? | back 108 a. substrate-level phosphorylation |
front 109 The complete oxidation of glucose in aerobic and anaerobic
respiration involves which three stages? | back 109 d. glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and the electron transport chain |
front 110 Which of the following processes requires energy? | back 110 b. active transport |
front 111 Chapter 6 | back 111 Chapter 6 |
front 112 Bacteria growing in and on the human body, including normal
microbiota as well as pathogens, are classified as __________. | back 112 d. mesophilic and heterotrophic |
front 113 An organism displays some growth at 4°C and at 25°C. However, it
grows best at 20°C. This organism would be classified as a
__________. | back 113 c. psychrotroph |
front 114 Through metabolism, pathogens often produce acids that interfere with
their own growth. __________ are/is added to media to control pH
changes. | back 114 a. Buffers |
front 115 Which of the following terms are mismatched? | back 115 a. hyperthermophiles; 0 C |
front 116 When a bacterial cell reproduces by splitting into two daughter
cells, the process is called __________. | back 116 e. binary fission |
front 117 What do all of these bacteria have in common? | back 117 b. The bacteria are most likely growing in biofilms. |
front 118 Which of the following is NOT a chemical requirement of all
bacteria? | back 118 e. molecular oxygen |
front 119 An organism that grows both in the presence and the absence of oxygen
and uses oxygen when it is available is called a/an
__________. | back 119 e. facultative anaerobe |
front 120 A culture medium consisting of agar, peptone, and beef-heart extract
is a/an __________. | back 120 b. complex medium |
front 121 Members of the genus Clostridium display the following properties:
Gram-positive bacilli endospore formation anaerobic growth Which of
the following would be appropriate for the culture of members of this
genus? | back 121 e. both a blood agar plate in an anaerobe jar and sodium thioglycolate broth |
front 122 Chocolate blood agar is an enriched media (containing heated blood)
designed for the growth of Neisseria gonorrhea. Antibiotics are added
to suppress the growth of normal microbiota that may be found in
patient specimens, yet permit the growth of Neisseria gonorrhea. This
medium would best be described as __________. | back 122 c. selective media |
front 123 Niacin, when added to a medium, would be considered a/an
__________. | back 123 a. organic growth factor |
front 124 Which of the following is NOT a step in binary fission? | back 124 c. lysis of the existing cell wall |
front 125 If a single bacterium replicated every 30 minutes, how many bacteria
would be present in 2 hours? | back 125 c. 16 |
front 126 In which phase of the growth curve is the population-doubling time
fastest? | back 126 b. log phase |
front 127 During the lag phase, __________. | back 127 d. cells are engaged in intense enzymatic activity |
front 128 All of the following are true of the plate count method EXCEPT that
it __________. | back 128 a. takes less than 12 hours to complete |
front 129 Which of the following is NOT a method used for the direct
measurement of microbial growth? | back 129 c. turbidity |
front 130 Blood agar used to observe hemolysis or clearing around Streptococcus
pyogenes colonies is an example of a/an __________. | back 130 d. differential media |
front 131 Chapter 8 | back 131 Chapter 8 |
front 132 Which of the following statements is NOT true of base
substitutions? | back 132 a. A base substitution can result in the production of a shortened protein. |
front 133 A frameshift mutation in a gene encoding a protein usually
__________. | back 133 d. results in the production of a nonfunctional peptide |
front 134 Which of these statements is NOT true of translation? | back 134 b. Each amino acid is coded for by a single codon. |
front 135 The chemical 5-bromouracil is a mutagen because it
__________. | back 135 b. is similar to thymine in structure but not base-pairing ability |
front 136 Assume a cell is grown in a culture medium containing radioactively
labeled thymidine. After three cell divisions, what percentage of the
cells would contain the radioactive label? | back 136 e. 100% |
front 137 Both transcription and DNA replication involve __________. | back 137 d. synthesis using a DNA template |
front 138 Which of these answers is NOT true for positive (direct)
selection? | back 138 e. The procedure detects altered genotypes regardless of the phenotype. |
front 139 Auxotrophs __________. | back 139 e. will not grow on a plate that lacks the growth factor, but will grow on a complete medium that contains the growth factor |
front 140 The Ames test is used __________. | back 140 d. to determine if a chemical is mutagenic and possibly carcinogenic |
front 141 Which of the following is NOT a step in translation? | back 141 d. joining of the Okazaki fragments |
front 142 Which of the following processes is involved in the production of
diphtheria toxin by C. diphtheria or erythrogenic toxin by
Streptococcus pyogenes? | back 142 a. transduction |
front 143 Your lab partner has mixed a dead tryptophan+ strain of Bacillus
subtilis with a live tryptophan– strain and observes that her B.
subtilis culture is now tryptophan+. The most likely explanation for
this is __________. | back 143 b. transformation |
front 144 When the antibiotic chloramphenicol binds to the 50S portion of the
ribosome, the effect is to __________. | back 144 b. prevent the ribosome from moving along the mRNA strand |
front 145 Which of the following statements in NOT true of plasmids? | back 145 b. They are essential for survival of the organism in most situations. |
front 146 Consider the polypeptide sequence encoded by the following DNA.
TACAAAGAAATT If base number 6 is changed to G, how will this affect
the polypeptide? | back 146 e. There will be no change in the polypeptide |
front 147 In E. coli, Hfr cells __________. | back 147 a. can pass main chromosome genes to a recipient cell |
front 148 Which of these statements is true about transduction? | back 148 d. A virus is required for transfer of genetic material. |
front 149 In the lac operon of E. coli, __________. | back 149 e. the repressor protein binds to the operator in the absence of lactose |
front 150 Which of these statements is NOT true about DNA replication? | back 150 a. Only one strand of the parent DNA serves as a template for a newly synthesized complementary strand. |
front 151 Which one of the following is a method of vertical gene
transmission? | back 151 d. cell division |
front 152 Which of the following requires cell-to-cell contact? | back 152 b. conjugation |
front 153 Which one of the following would be the most likely to yield a
recombinant cell after mating? | back 153 c. Hfr cell transfers to F– cell. |
front 154 24.The major source of the genetic diversity among microorganisms
upon which natural selection operates is __________. | back 154 b. mutation |
front 155 Chapter 9 | back 155 Chapter 9 |
front 156 Which of the following is an example of a cloning vector? | back 156 b. plasmid |
front 157 Recombinant DNA technology is used for all of the following EXCEPT
________. | back 157 d. culturing unknown organisms |
front 158 The process of making multiple copies of a DNA molecule is referred
to as __________. | back 158 d. amplification |
front 159 Which of the following is NOT an advantage of obtaining the protein
product called human growth hormone by recombinant DNA technology
rather than extraction from cadavers? | back 159 e. production of endotoxins |
front 160 Which of these statements is true for restriction enzymes? | back 160 b. Restriction enzymes are useful in genetic engineering when they make staggered cuts in DNA. |
front 161 When two DNA pieces cut with the same restriction enzyme are
combined, sticky ends will __________. | back 161 d. associate by complementary base pairing and hydrogen bonds |
front 162 If DNA ligase were NOT used in the creation of a recombinant plasmid,
__________. | back 162 b. base-pairing would occur but the sugar phosphate backbone would not be connected |
front 163 A good cloning vector __________. | back 163 e. should have a gene or genes that allows for selection of transformed host cells |
front 164 Which of the following is NOT true of the polymerase chain reaction
(PCR)? | back 164 d. Large amounts of DNA must be isolated from the source organism. |
front 165 Which of the following is NOT a purpose of genetic
modification? | back 165 a. to remove antibiotic resistant plasmids from bacteria |
front 166 Recombinant DNA can be introduced into a host cell by any of the
following methods EXCEPT __________. | back 166 d. polymerase chain reaction |
front 167 For the introduction of a genetically modified plasmid into E. coli,
__________. | back 167 b. calcium chloride and heat shock can be used |
front 168 Which of the following statements correctly differentiates a genomic
library from a cDNA library? | back 168 b. A genomic library contains fragments of the entire DNA in an organism's genome. A cDNA library contains the coding sequences of eukaryotic genes (minus the introns). |
front 169 During the Southern blotting technique, what is the purpose of
transferring the DNA fragments from the gel to a nitrocellulose
filter? | back 169 e. This step attaches the DNA fragments to a permanent substrate, which then can be probed. |
front 170 An ampicillin-sensitive culture of E. coli is transformed with a
plasmid that contains the gene of interest plus an
ampicillin-resistant gene. If it is then plated on an
ampicillin-containing growth medium, __________. | back 170 c. only the bacteria with the plasmid will grow |
front 171 Which of the following might specifically be used as part of a
reverse-genetics approach to studying a gene? | back 171 b. RNA interference |
front 172 In the blue-white screening procedure, bacteria that are transformed
with recombinant plasmid and cultured in media containing ampicillin
and X-gal will __________. | back 172 c. produce white colonies |
front 173 Which of the following is NOT a step in Southern blotting? | back 173 d. addition of heat-stable DNA polymerase |
front 174 Genetic technology has enabled screening for a variety of genetic
conditions, and use of this technology is becoming more widely
available. Which of the following is likely to become an important
issue that will need to be addressed? | back 174 a. the need for legislation to protect the privacy of individuals' genetic information |
front 175 For Agrobacterium tumefaciens to be used to introduce foreign DNA
into a plant cell, that DNA must first be __________. | back 175 c. inserted into the T-DNA region of the Ti plasmid of A. tumefaciens |
front 176 Which of the following statements correctly differentiates
biotechnology and rDNA technology? | back 176 c. Biotechnology involves any use of microorganisms or cells to make products, regardless of the means used. rDNA technology involves the specific use of molecular |
front 177 The process of making multiple copies of a DNA molecule is referred
to as __________. | back 177 b. amplification |
front 178 In genetic engineering, antibiotic resistance genes are often cloned
into a vector to __________. | back 178 a. make direct selection of a clone possible |
front 179 Which of the following is NOT a purpose of genetic
modification? | back 179 e. removal of antibiotic-resistant plasmids from bacteria |
front 180 The following steps are necessary to clone eukaryotic genes in
bacteria. What is the third step? | back 180 d. splice exons together |
front 181 E. coli may pick up a recombinant plasmid from a solution by
__________. | back 181 d. transformation |
front 182 Recombinant DNA technology is used for all of the following EXCEPT
__________. | back 182 e. culturing unknown organisms |
front 183 Which of the following is NOT an advantage of obtaining the protein
product human growth hormone by recombinant DNA technology rather than
extraction from cadavers? | back 183 a. production of endotoxins |
front 184 If you insert the gene for Bt toxin from Bacillus thuringiensis into
a tomato plant, the resulting plants will __________. | back 184 d. be toxic to insects that eat them |
front 185 Chapter 13 | back 185 Chapter 13 |
front 186 Viruses possess genetic material comprised of DNA or
__________. | back 186 a. RNA |
front 187 Which type of microscope is needed to view a virus in the
laboratory? | back 187 d. electron |
front 188 Which of the following are possible strategies for treating viral
infections? | back 188 d. blocking viral attachment to host cell receptors |
front 189 A double-stranded, enveloped DNA virus that contains reverse
transcriptase belongs to which family? | back 189 b. Hepadnaviridae |
front 190 Members of the Adenoviridae cause __________. | back 190 b. the common cold |
front 191 Which method cannot be used to culture viruses in a
laboratory? | back 191 a. nutrient agar culture media |
front 192 Cell lines derived from transformed (cancerous) cells are called
__________. | back 192 c. continuous cell lines |
front 193 During the bacteriophage lysogenic cycle, __________. | back 193 b. phage DNA is inserted into the host chromosome |
front 194 After the attachment and entry of a virus into a host cell, what is
the next step in the multiplication of | back 194 e. uncoating |
front 195 An example of a latent virus infection is __________. | back 195 a. shingles |
front 196 A virus may contain any of the following EXCEPT (a) __________. a.
ribosomes | back 196 a. ribosomes |
front 197 Viruses that use RNA as a template for transcribing DNA include
__________. | back 197 a. Retroviridae |
front 198 All of the following are prion diseases EXCEPT __________. | back 198 e. Wiles-Davidoff syndrome |
front 199 Which of the following terms are NOT correctly matched? | back 199 e. Poxviridae; chickenpox |
front 200 In polio virus replication, the function of the antisense (– strand)
RNA is to __________. | back 200 e. serve as a template for the production of sense (+ strand) RNA |
front 201 How might a virus pick up a human oncogene? | back 201 a. specialized transduction |
front 202 Influenza viruses are classified according to their hemagglutin and
__________ proteins. | back 202 d. neuraminidase |
front 203 To what does the term viral species refer? | back 203 d. a group of viruses sharing the same genetic information and structure |
front 204 Which of these enzymes is necessary for the replication of a + strand
RNA virus? | back 204 a. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase |
front 205 Which of these statements is NOT true? | back 205 b. Attachment of animal viruses to host cells is random and nonspecific. |
front 206 Which of these processes of viral multiplication is most likely to
damage the host cell? | back 206 b. release of nonenveloped viruses |
front 207 Which of the following are possible strategies for treating viral
infections? | back 207 b. blocking viral attachment to host cell receptors |
front 208 The protein coat of a virus is called the __________. | back 208 c. capsid |
front 209 How would you know that viruses were multiplying in a confluent lawn
of E. coli on a solid culture | back 209 b. There would be small zones of clearing in the bacterial culture. |
front 210 What is the name given to the viral DNA incorporated into a lysogenic
cell? | back 210 a. prophage |
front 211 Chapter 14 | back 211 Chapter 14 |
front 212 Germ-free (gnotobiotic) animals often are more susceptible to
infections and serious disease than are animals with a typical
complement of normal microbiota. Based on this observation, which of
the following would be an appropriate conclusion? | back 212 e. Normal microbiota stimulate the development of the immune system. |
front 213 In a healthy human, resident microorganisms would be found in all of
the following areas EXCEPT the __________. | back 213 d. bloodstream |
front 214 Health care professionals who fail to use aseptic techniques can
cause __________. | back 214 a. nosocomial infections |
front 215 In the human intestinal tract, E. coli produces vitamins beneficial
to the host and can inhibit pathogen growth. In turn, the bacterium is
supplied with nutrients and an environment for growth. This symbiotic
relationship between E. coli and its host is an example of
________. | back 215 E. mutualism |
front 216 Which of the following is NOT an example of microbial antagonism
(also known as competitive exclusion)? | back 216 b. microbes producing vitamins and growth factors that can be utilized by the host |
front 217 An infection transmitted by a handkerchief or tissue is transmitted
by __________. | back 217 e. indirect contact |
front 218 Which of the following is NOT necessary to satisfy Koch's
postulates? | back 218 a. The organism must cause disease through toxin production. |
front 219 Following coronary artery bypass surgery, seven patients develop
Rhodococcus bronchialis infections. Cultures of the operating rooms,
Nurse A, and Nurse B are taken. R. bronchialis grows from the hand and
nasal swabs of Nurse A. The patients' infections are an example of
a/an __________. | back 219 d. nosocomial infection |
front 220 Women who have a healthy population of Lactobacillus spp. as part of
the normal vaginal microbiota are less likely to get yeast infections.
Which of the following terms is used to explain this
observation? | back 220 a. competitive exclusion |
front 221 The occurrence of streptococcal bronchopneumonia in an individual
recovering from influenza is an example of a __________. | back 221 b. secondary infection |
front 222 Infections in which the pathogen is distributed throughout the body
are referred to as generalized infections or __________. | back 222 b. systemic infections |
front 223 The presence of bacteria in the bloodstream is referred to as
__________. | back 223 a. bacteremia |
front 224 Which of these diseases does not have a human reservoir? | back 224 e. tetanus |
front 225 Which of these events is an example of contact transmission? | back 225 c. A person drinks from a cup used by another individual. |
front 226 Which of these disease stages is most likely to be altered in length
if the number of infecting organisms at the start of the infection is
very high? | back 226 a. incubation period |
front 227 Which of the following events does NOT occur in diseases transmitted
by vectors? | back 227 a. In biological transmission, the vector multiplies in the human host. |
front 228 Which of the following is the third stage of a disease? | back 228 b. period of illness |
front 229 The morbidity rate is best defined as __________. | back 229 e. the percentage of infectious diseases that are nationally notifiable |
front 230 19. Ingesting lactic acid bacteria to prevent colonization by
intestinal pathogens such as Salmonella enterica during antibiotic
therapy is an example of __________. | back 230 b. probiotics |
front 231 An example of descriptive epidemiology is __________. | back 231 John Snow's study of the London cholera outbreak from 1848 to 1849 |
front 232 The fungus Coccidioides immitis is found in the soil. Humans contract
coccidioidomycosis by inhaling fungal spores. Which of these terms
applies to the role of soil in transmission of
coccidioidomycosis? | back 232 b. Soil is the reservoir. |
front 233 Which of the following diseases does NOT share a commonality with the
others? | back 233 e. All of the listed diseases share a commonality; they are all zoonoses |
front 234 Which one of these diseases is noncommunicable? | back 234 d. botulism |
front 235 In order to understand the full scope of a disease, we take its
occurrence into account. The __________ of a disease is the number of
people in a population who develop a disease at a specified
time. | back 235 a. prevalence and b. incidence |
front 236 Monocytes and lymphocytes are agranular leukocytes. | back 236 False |
front 237 Inflammatory responses are orchestrated by the immune system and are
part of the body's third line of | back 237 False |
front 238 Endotoxin is an exogenous pyrogen. | back 238 True |
front 239 The production of interferon will protect the host cell from a viral
infection. | back 239 False |
front 240 Certain complement components stimulate inflammation and
phagocytosis. | back 240 True |
front 241 Genetic differences among species and within a species can convey
genetic immunity to certain | back 241 True |
front 242 B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes mature in the thymus gland. | back 242 False |
front 243 For a particular disease at a specific time period, morbidity rates
should always be equal or True or False | back 243 True |
front 244 Diseases that are referred to as emerging infectious diseases have
only been discovered in the True or False | back 244 False |
front 245 Chapter 15 | back 245 Chapter 15 |
front 246 1. Which disease is correctly matched with the common portal of
entry? | back 246 b. poliomyelitis; mucous membranes of gastrointestinal tract |
front 247 If a patient has a deep tissue infection as the result of an animal
bite on the arm, the portal of entry is described as the
__________. | back 247 e. parenteral route |
front 248 The ID50 for cutaneous anthrax due to Bacillus anthracis is 10 to 50
endospores, while the ID50 for inhalation anthrax is 10,000 to 20,000
endospores. This means that __________. | back 248 a. cutaneous anthrax is easier to acquire than inhalation anthrax |
front 249 Which would be the most UNLIKELY location to find adhesin molecules
on a newly discovered bacterium? | back 249 c. ribosomes |
front 250 What cell structures does Neisseria gonorrhoeae use to attach and
enter host epithelial cells? | back 250 b. fimbriae |
front 251 Which of these conditions would NOT affect the ability of
Streptococcus mutans to attach to teeth? | back 251 c. the absence of Actinomyces, a bacterium that can be part of dental plaque |
front 252 Which of these statements is NOT true for bacterial capsules? | back 252 e. Immune system antibodies are not produced against a capsule |
front 253 Capsules play a role in the virulence of all of the following EXCEPT
__________. | back 253 a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis |
front 254 Which of these substances are most important in the establishment of
biofilms? | back 254 b. adhesins |
front 255 Which one of these pairs is NOT correctly matched? | back 255 d. coagulase; lyses fibrin clots |
front 256 Which of these eukaryotic molecules/structures can be responsible for
movement of bacteria within host cells? | back 256 e. actin molecules |
front 257 Which of the following statements is NOT true of A-B
exotoxins? | back 257 c. They are produced only by gram-negative bacteria. |
front 258 The LD50 of Vibrio cholerae is 108 cells through the oral route. If
the bacterial cells are ingested with bicarbonate, the LD50 drops to
104. Which of these explanations is the most likely? | back 258 c. Stomach acid decreases the virulence of Vibrio cholerae. |
front 259 Which statement is true of endotoxins? | back 259 c. They are released upon cell lysis. |
front 260 A newly identified bacterial pathogen has been shown to cause disease
in humans, disrupting the production of some proteins by interfering
with the function of the endoplasmic reticulum of liver cells. Under
specific growth conditions, this bacterial strain secretes a protein
that appears to be responsible for the pathology of the disease. This
protein is composed of two polypeptide chains, one of which binds to a
receptor on the surface of liver cells, stimulating the uptake of the
protein by endocytosis. Once inside the cell, the other polypeptide
component interferes with the activity of ribosomes bound to the
endoplasmic reticulum. This bacterial protein will most likely be
classified as a/an __________. | back 260 a. A-B toxin |
front 261 Which statement is NOT true of endotoxins? | back 261 c. They are eliminated from the body as a result of antitoxin production. |
front 262 Which of these viral cytopathic effects is most likely to be
associated with the development of cancer? | back 262 a. loss of contact inhibition |
front 263 Which of these events leads to all of the others in a pyrogenic
(fever) response? | back 263 a. Endotoxin is released from the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria. |
front 264 The pathogenicity of which of the following is NOT the result of
lysogeny? | back 264 d. Clostridium tetani |
front 265 Which of the following would be the most UNLIKELY location to find
adhesin molecules on a newly discovered bacterium? | back 265 a. ribosomes |
front 266 Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched? | back 266 e. coagulase; lyses fibrin clots |
front 267 Which of these effects is most likely to occur if a pathogen enters
the body by a portal of entry other than the preferred one? | back 267 b. A milder disease will result. |
front 268 Which one of the following virulence factors contributes most to the
spread of disease in the body? | back 268 a. hyaluronidase |
front 269 Based on the following LD50 values, which microbe is the most
virulent? Assume each bacterium enters through the appropriate portal
of entry. | back 269 a. Shigella: 10 cells |
front 270 Which of these is a cell wall component that contributes to
invasiveness? | back 270 a. M protein |
front 271 Which of the following diseases CANNOT be prevented by
toxoids? | back 271 a. Gram-negative septic shock |
front 272 Microbes are more likely to enter the body through the skin than through the mucous membranes. T/F | back 272 FALSE |
front 273 Although some pathogens cause disease after entering the body via food and water consumption, many such microbes are killed by chemicals involved in the digestive process. T/F | back 273 TRUE |
front 274 The same disease symptoms result, regardless of how a particular microbe enters the body. T/F | back 274 FALSE |
front 275 If bacteria A and B have LD50 values of 109 and 1010, respectively, more cells of A than B will be needed to kill the host. T/F | back 275 FALSE |
front 276 M proteins are produced by some pathogenic bacteria to resist phagocytic immune cells. T/F | back 276 true |
front 277 If bacteria A and B have LD50 values of 109 and 1010, respectively, more cells of A than B will be needed to kill the host. T/F | back 277 FALSE |
front 278 Adhesin molecules can vary in structure among strains of a given bacterial species. T/F | back 278 TRUE |
front 279 The glycocalyx (capsule/slime layer) can affect bacterial virulence by allowing attachment and by hindering phagocytosis. T/F | back 279 TRUE |
front 280 Most host damage resulting from bacterial infection is the result of direct damage by the microbe T/F | back 280 FALSE |
front 281 Patient symptoms may worsen after antibiotic treatment of infections caused by gram-negative bacteria because of the sudden release of endotoxins. | back 281 TRUE |
front 282 Accumulations of viral proteins and nucleic acids inside infected host cells are called inclusion bodies. | back 282 TRUE |
front 283 Chapter 16 | back 283 Chapter 16 |
front 284 Which of these molecules or structures is/are NOT associated with
innate immunity? | back 284 c. antibodies |
front 285 The epidermis __________. | back 285 e. contains the protein keratin |
front 286 The ID50 for many pathogens is significantly smaller when testing
with gnotobiotic animals compared to animals with normal microbiota.
This is likely because of __________. | back 286 c. microbial antagonism |
front 287 The respiratory system is protected against harmful microbes by all
of the following EXCEPT __________. | back 287 e. the lacrimal apparatus |
front 288 Which of the following statements about sebum is NOT true? | back 288 d. It raises the pH of skin. |
front 289 One remarkable finding on a patient's laboratory workup is a marked
eosinophilia. This might be suggestive of __________. | back 289 d. an allergic (hypersensitivity) reaction |
front 290 Which of these structures are NOT part of the mononuclear phagocytic
system? | back 290 c. lymphocytes |
front 291 Which answer is NOT true for adherence of a phagocyte to a
microbe? | back 291 b. Antibody molecules attached to the microbe will limit adherence. |
front 292 Which answer is true for bacterial destruction by
phagocytosis? | back 292 c. Myeloperoxidase in lysosomes is involved in the formation of HOCl. |
front 293 The stage of phagocytosis in which the phagocyte's plasma membrane
attaches to the surface of the microbe is called __________. | back 293 d. adherence |
front 294 Which answer is NOT true of the inflammatory process? | back 294 a. The area becomes red because of a decrease in capillary diameter. |
front 295 Which of the following statements is NOT true of
inflammation? | back 295 b. Many neutrophils can be found at the site of chronic inflammation. |
front 296 Activation of the complement cascade __________. | back 296 b. can cause the infecting microbe to be killed by lysis |
front 297 Complement can be activated by all of the following EXCEPT
__________. | back 297 d. the presence of host tissue |
front 298 Which of the following statements is NOT true of nitric oxide
(NO)? | back 298 a. It is of little value in killing microbes or tumor cells. |
front 299 Assume you mix red blood cells, antibodies against the red blood
cells, and complement in a test tube. What would you expect to
see? | back 299 b. lysis of the red blood cells |
front 300 Which of the following statements is NOT true of the classical
pathway of complement activation? | back 300 d. C3 is the first component to be activated. |
front 301 Which of the following occurs first, setting in motion the remaining
events? | back 301 e. Toll-like receptors (TLRs) on macrophages and dendritic cells attach to pathogen-associated microbial patterns (PAMPS) on invading microorganisms. |
front 302 Interferons ___________. | back 302 c. are host-specific but not virus-specific |
front 303 Which of these structures are NOT part of the mononuclear phagocytic
system? | back 303 e. lymphocytes |
front 304 All of the following cells demonstrate phagocytic activity EXCEPT
__________. | back 304 a. lymphocytes |
front 305 Which of these answers best describes the relationship between humans
and most of their skin and intestinal normal microbiota? | back 305 a. mutualism |
front 306 Histamine causes all of the following reactions. Which occurs
first? | back 306 b. vasodilation |
front 307 The rise in temperature that causes a fever is due to the
hypothalamus responding to __________. | back 307 a. interleukin-1 |
front 308 Propionibacterium acnes is norma True l flora of sebaceous glands of the skin. True or False | back 308 True |
front 309 Acne can be prevented with antibiotics. | back 309 False |
front 310 Chickenpox is caused by an orthopoxvirus. | back 310 True |
front 311 The dermis is composed of connective tissue and serves the primary purpose of providing direct protection from the external environment. True or False | back 311 False |
front 312 Microorganisms that are members of the normal microbiota are also known to cause disease. True or False | back 312 TRUE |
front 313 The inflammatory response can only be triggered by an infection. True or False | back 313 FALSE |
front 314 Histamine and kinins cause increased blood flow and capillary permeability. True or False | back 314 TRUE |
front 315 Complement proteins in their intact and unactivated form act as opsonins by binding to microorganisms and promoting phagocytosis True or False. | back 315 False |
front 316 Digestion of microorganisms occurs in phagosomes. True or False. | back 316 FALSE |
front 317 A subcutaneous infection resulting from epidermal damage is likely to contain staphylococci. True or False. | back 317 True |
front 318 Dendritic cells are phagocytic cells derived from monocytes. True or False. | back 318 True |
front 319 The circulatory system and the lymphatic system are not connected in any way. True or False. | back 319 False |
front 320 Some microorganisms escape from the phagosome before fusing with the lysosome and are able to survive and grow within phagocytes True or False. | back 320 True |
front 321 Infections that alter the differential white blood cell count do so by increasing the number of leukocytes. True or False. | back 321 FALSE |
front 322 Neutrophils and eosinophils are the phagocytic granulocytes True or False. | back 322 TRUE |
front 323 If phagocytic cells are found in the tissues, they will be macrophages. True or False. | back 323 FALSE |
front 324 Interferons can cure many viral infections, including the common cold | back 324 FALSE |
front 325 Complement component C3b acts to increase adherence of phagocytes to microbes | back 325 TRUE |
front 326 For the complement cascade, only the classical pathway can result in cytolysis. | back 326 False |
front 327 Chapter 17 | back 327 Chapter 17 |
front 328 1. Which of the following results in comparatively long-lasting
immunity? | back 328 a. A person survives an infectious disease. |
front 329 2. The resistance to reinfection with measles virus following
recovery from measles infection is called __________. | back 329 c. adaptive immunity |
front 330 HIV selectively destroys CD4 cells and as a result, a person with
AIDS is susceptible to life-threatening viral infections. Knowing
this, you can conclude that __________. | back 330 a. these viruses have T-independent antigens |
front 331 Cyclosporine is a drug sometimes used to prevent transplant rejection
after organ transplant surgery. This drug specifically disrupts
cell-mediated immunity by cytotoxic T cells. Which of these events can
be predicted based on this information? | back 331 b. Antibody production will NOT be disrupted in the recipient. |
front 332 Cell-mediated immunity in part protects against __________. | back 332 e. intracellular bacteria and viruses |
front 333 Which of these cell types is NOT involved in cell-mediated
immunity? | back 333 a. plasma cells |
front 334 Which of the following statements is NOT true of antigens? | back 334 b. They often have a molecular weight of less than 10,000. |
front 335 The most abundant Ig in the blood serum is __________. | back 335 d. G |
front 336 Which of the following statements is NOT of the IgA antibody
class? | back 336 b. It can trigger the complement cascade. |
front 337 Which of the following would be a possible consequence of a disorder
that selectively destroys the T regulatory cells in a patient? | back 337 e. autoimmune diseases |
front 338 Which of the following are NOT antigen-presenting cells ? | back 338 b. All of the listed choices are antigen-presenting cells. |
front 339 Which of these processes is in the proper sequence? | back 339 a. IgE is formed; antigen binds IgE; IgE binds to mast cells; mast cells bind to |
front 340 Which of these lists is in the correct order of
differentiation? | back 340 d. stem cells to B cells to plasma cells |
front 341 Which of these statements is NOT true of antibody molecules? | back 341 a. Antibody molecules can directly destroy antigens. |
front 342 A property of T cells, but not B cells, is their __________. | back 342 b. ability to form cells that directly kill virus-infected host cells |
front 343 Which of the following statements is NOT true for T helper
cells? | back 343 a. They lyse target cells. |
front 344 T cytotoxic cells __________. | back 344 b. recognize antigen presented by class II MHC molecules |
front 345 Which of these answers is a potential concern of using T-independent
antigens as vaccines? | back 345 c. These antigens will be ineffective in producing an immune response in infants. |
front 346 Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity __________. | back 346 d. is particularly important for killing microbes that are too large be destroyed by phagocytosis |
front 347 Which answer is true of the anamnestic response? | back 347 c. IgG predominates. |
front 348 Technically speaking, all antibodies are True or False | back 348 True |
front 349 IgG is the largest of the five classes of True or False | back 349 False |
front 350 Common allergic reactions, such as those True or False | back 350 True |
front 351 IgM antibodies and basophils play major roles True or False | back 351 False |
front 352 Autoimmune diseases are always the result of True or False | back 352 False |
front 353 If a person's immune system is not True or False | back 353 False |
front 354 An IgM molecule can bind to 10 antigenic True or False | back 354 True |
front 355 Chapter 19 | back 355 Chapter 19 |
front 356 Which of the following statements is NOT true for type I
(anaphylactic) hypersensitivity reactions? | back 356 d. IgG and IgM antibodies are involved. |
front 357 What type of immunoglobulin binds to mast cells during an allergic
reaction? | back 357 d. IgE |
front 358 Which of the following is NOT a case of localized
anaphylaxis? | back 358 a. poison ivy rash |
front 359 Blood transfusion hypersensitivity reactions are examples of
__________. | back 359 b. type II (cytotoxic) hypersensitivity |
front 360 Although maternal–fetal incompatibilities are possible in the ABO
blood group, the incidence of adverse reactions in the fetus or
newborn is far less common than in the case of Rh incompatibilities.
Which of the following is the most likely explanation? | back 360 a. Maternal anti-A and anti-B antibodies typically do not cross the placenta. |
front 361 Which of the following diseases is a type III autoimmune
disease? | back 361 a. rheumatoid arthritis |
front 362 A patient with severe burns on her hands and arms has a skin graft
with skin taken from her upper thigh. This type of tissue transplant
is a/an __________. | back 362 a. autograft |
front 363 Following an organ transplant, therapeutic immunosuppression to
prevent organ rejection may be accomplished by any of the following
EXCEPT __________. | back 363 a. cyclosporine |
front 364 9. Which of the following is NOT an example of immunotherapy for
cancer treatment or prevention? | back 364 a. HAART for HIV infection |
front 365 10. Which type of graft will most likely cause hyperacute
rejection? | back 365 d. xenotransplant |
front 366 11. Which of the following is/are NOT a component of the HIV
virion? | back 366 e. DNA strands |
front 367 12. HIV can remain latent in the host cell by integrating its
reverse-transcriptase-produced DNA into the host chromosome, becoming
a/an __________. | back 367 a. provirus |
front 368 13. All of the following concerning the clinical phases of HIV
infection are correct EXCEPT__________. | back 368 c. phase 1: Kaposi’s sarcoma |
front 369 14. Which of the following could be predicted for an individual with
a mutation in the gene encoding CCR5? | back 369 a. resistance to HIV infection |
front 370 15. Which of the following predictions can be made regarding the
immune responses of individuals with AIDS? | back 370 c. They can make antibody in response to T-independent antigens. |
front 371 16. Which of the following diseases is most likely to be similar to
AIDS in terms of the specific immunodeficiency? | back 371 b. DiGeorge syndrome |
front 372 Which is NOT a mechanism used in anti-HIV drugs? | back 372 d. inhibition of cell-wall synthesis |
front 373 Which of the following is NOT a common disease associated with
AIDS? | back 373 c. influenza |
front 374 19. The desensitization injections for allergy treatments are aimed
at producing __________. | back 374 d. IgG |
front 375 20. In hemolytic disease of the newborn, fetal red blood cells are
targeted for destruction by __________. | back 375 a. maternal IgG antibodies |
front 376 21. When will someone infected with HIV have the most viral particles
in his or her blood? | back 376 a. 1 to 2 months after the initial infection |
front 377 22. What causes the rapid decline in the HIV population in the blood
3 to 6 months after the initial infection? | back 377 b. The patient begins to make antibodies against HIV. |
front 378 23. Which of the following statements is NOT true for type I
hypersensitivity reactions? | back 378 c. IgG and IgM antibodies are involved. |
front 379 24. Immune complexes cause tissue damage by __________. | back 379 b. causing T cells to destroy self |
front 380 25. Which of the following promotes the development of self-tolerance
and prevents the eventual development of autoimmune diseases? | back 380 c. clonal deletion of self-reactive T cells |
front 381 26.All of the following are causes of immune deficiencies. Which one
is NOT a natural cause? | back 381 c. transplant drugs |
front 382 27. Incidence of which of the following cancers is now reduced by a
vaccine? | back 382 b. cervical cancer |
front 383 The tuberculin reaction develops within 30 minutes of the skin test
in people with prior sensitization due | back 383 False |
front 384 A person who is Rh- will have anti-Rh antibodies in their serum from
early infancy. | back 384 False |
front 385 A xenograft is graft tissue from a donor of one species transplanted
to a recipient of another species. | back 385 True |
front 386 The tuberculin reaction develops within 30 minutes of the skin test
in people with prior sensitization due | back 386 False |
front 387 AIDS is a secondary immunodeficiency disease that affects several
types of immune cells. | back 387 True |
front 388 HIV infects the CD8+ T cells as well as CD4 cells. True or False | back 388 TRUE |
front 389 The symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis are due to activated T cells that damage joint tissue. True or False | back 389 True |
front 390 Heterosexual sex is the most common form of HIV transmission. True or False | back 390 True |
front 391 The Southern blot is used to detect HIV antigens (virus). True or False | back 391 True |
front 392 HIV virus can be transmitted from the mother to a baby during a normal vaginal birth. True or False | back 392 True |
front 393 Chapter 20 | back 393 Chapter 20 |
front 394 1. You have a 200 mg/ml antibiotic solution. You prepare serial
dilutions (1:2, 1:4, etc.) of the antibiotic; the first tube contains
100 mg/ml. You then inoculate each tube with Salmonella. Bacteria grow
in tubes 4, 5, and 6. You subculture bacteria from tubes 1 through 3
to nutrient broth. Growth occurs in the tube 3 subculture. You can
conclude that the MIC is __________. | back 394 e. none of the listed choices |
front 395 An antimicrobial drug that inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis is most
likely to be effective against __________. | back 395 d. gram-positive bacteria |
front 396 Which of the following antibiotics inhibits protein
synthesis? | back 396 d. streptomycin |
front 397 You are reviewing the following results of a disk- diffusion
antibiotic susceptibility test on an isolate of Staphylococcus
aureus: | back 397 e. The correct answer cannot be determined from the information provided |
front 398 Which antimicrobial works by inhibiting the synthesis of mycolic
acid? | back 398 c. isoniazid |
front 399 Which of the following antibiotics is a common choice to treat
streptococcal infections in children? | back 399 a. erythromycin |
front 400 Which of the following antibiotics inhibits folic acid
synthesis? | back 400 d. sulfanilamide |
front 401 Which of the following drugs inhibits the synthesis of mRNA in
bacteria? | back 401 b. rifampin |
front 402 Which of the following antibiotics is frequently used as an
alternative for those who are allergic to penicillin? | back 402 b. erythromycin |
front 403 Which of the following types of antibiotics is most likely to be
associated with the development of a superinfection? | back 403 b. broad-spectrum antibiotics |
front 404 Which drug would be used to treat athlete's foot? | back 404 b. clotrimazole |
front 405 Which antifungal drug was recently introduced to treat systemic
fungal infections? | back 405 c. posaconazole |
front 406 Tetracyclines are effective against all of the following EXCEPT
__________. | back 406 e. fungi |
front 407 A nucleoside analog used to treat HIV infection is
__________. | back 407 a. zidovudine |
front 408 All of the following are antiprotozoan drugs EXCEPT
__________. | back 408 e. mebendazole |
front 409 Which drug is NOT a nucleoside analog? | back 409 a. nevirapine |
front 410 Which of the following is the drug of choice for the treatment of
malaria? | back 410 b. chloroquine |
front 411 The drug Flagyl is commonly used to treat an STD caused by
__________. | back 411 d. Trichomonas vaginalis |
front 412 Which of the following mechanisms is antifungal? | back 412 d. inhibit ergosterol synthesis |
front 413 Which of the following is used for treating influenza
infections? | back 413 b. oseltamivi |
front 414 Clindamycin binds to the 50S ribosomal subunit to inhibit
translocation. This antibiotic stops __________. | back 414 d. translation in prokaryotes |
front 415 Which of the following statements about antibiotics is true? | back 415 d. Most of our antibiotics are produced by Streptomyces, a genus of filamentous soil bacteria. |
front 416 A drug that binds with sterols would injure __________. | back 416 b. eukaryotic plasma membranes |
front 417 The method of action of nucleoside analogs is __________. | back 417 a. inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis |
front 418 The mode of action for erythromycin is __________. | back 418 b. inhibition of protein synthesis |
front 419 What is the mechanism of the resistance of MRSA to
methicillin? | back 419 c. alteration of the target molecule |
front 420 An antibiotic that attacks the LPS layer would be expected to have a
narrow spectrum of True or False | back 420 TRUE |
front 421 Due to its target, rifamycins can be effective over a broad spectrum. True or False | back 421 TRUE |
front 422 Penicillin and streptomycin are commonly used in synergism because
they display the same True or False | back 422 FALSE |
front 423 Community-acquired MRSA is typically more virulent than health care-associated MRSA. True or False | back 423 TRUE |
front 424 Antiviral drugs target viral processes that occur during viral infection. True or False | back 424 True |
front 425 Phage therapy has been used in the past as an antiviral treatment. True or False | back 425 FALSE |
front 426 Antibiotic resistance can only develop against drugs that are naturally created by other microbes. True or False | back 426 False |
front 427 The MIC is the lowest concentration of drug capable of preventing microbial growth. True or False | back 427 True |
front 428 It is relatively easy to find drugs that are effective against eukaryotic pathogens. True or False | back 428 False |
front 429 Bacteriostatic agents are not capable of killing microbes directly. True or False | back 429 False |
front 430 Some drug combinations are synergistic; therefore, when taken together, they are more effective. True or False | back 430 False |
front 431 Penicillins are generally more effective against gram-negative bacteria. True or False | back 431 False |
front 432 Alexander Fleming performed the first clinical trials with penicillin, demonstrating its effectiveness as a chemotherapeutic agent. True or False | back 432 False |
front 433 Because antifungal drugs like amphotericin B target sterols in the plasma membrane, they are ineffective as antibacterial drugs True or False | back 433 True |
front 434 Metronidazole is an antiprotozoan drug. True or False | back 434 True |
front 435 A drug that inhibits translation at 70S ribosomes can be used to treat human viral infections. True or False | back 435 False |
front 436 Semisynthetic penicillins are more effective antibiotics than is natural penicillin. True or False | back 436 True |
front 437 Chapter 21 | back 437 Chapter 21 |
front 438 Which of the following is NOT normal skin microbiota? | back 438 a. Streptococcus |
front 439 What do the following diseases have in common? | back 439 c. They are all caused by exotoxins produced by strains of Staphylococcus aureus. |
front 440 Which microorganism is responsible for otitis externa? | back 440 e. Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
front 441 Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of
Streptococcus? | back 441 b. coagulase-positive |
front 442 Place the following infections in order of increasing tissue
involvement and
severity: | back 442 a. 2, 4, 3, 1 |
front 443 Which of the following may produce infections of the skin with
blue-green pus? | back 443 c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
front 444 Warts are generally caused by __________. | back 444 c. papillomavirus |
front 445 All of the following are characteristics of the varicella-zoster
virus EXCEPT __________. | back 445 a. benign skin growths |
front 446 Which of the following is NOT caused by HSV-1? | back 446 a. canker sores |
front 447 Which of the following is NOT a possible result of rubeola? | back 447 d. shingles |
front 448 All of the following cause conjunctivitis EXCEPT __________. | back 448 b. Propionibacterium |
front 449 Sporotrichosis is the most common type of __________. | back 449 d. subcutaneous mycoses |
front 450 Which of the following is NOT associated with Candida
albicans? | back 450 d. susceptibility to penicillin |
front 451 Which of the following would be the most appropriate way of testing
whether a skin lesion is caused by a dermatophyte? | back 451 a. culture scrapings of the lesion periphery on Sabouraud’s agar |
front 452 Ringworm is caused by a/an __________. | back 452 a. fungus |
front 453 Which of the following statements is true regarding chickenpox and
shingles? | back 453 b. A child who is not immune to chickenpox may get it following exposure to a patient with shingles. |
front 454 Which of the following is NOT a treatment for papillomas? | back 454 b. acyclovir treatment |
front 455 Which enzyme is NOT produced by deep-tissue streptococcal
infections? | back 455 b. coagulase |
front 456 Measles can potentially be eradicated because __________. | back 456 d. humans are the only reservoir, and vaccination is effective |
front 457 Which of the following is a eukaryotic pathogen that infects the
eye? | back 457 c. Acanthamoeba |
front 458 Chapter 22 | back 458 Chapter 22 |
front 459 Consider the following three common agents of bacterial meningitis:
Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Haemophilus
influenzae type B. Which of the following would be most helpful in
differentiating these three agents? | back 459 a. Gram-stain morphology |
front 460 The current first choice of antibiotic for bacterial meningitis is
__________. | back 460 b. cephalosporin |
front 461 Vaccination is recommended to prevent epidemic meningitis among
college students and military recruits resulting from infection with
__________. | back 461 c. Neisseria meningitidis |
front 462 The most important element in the pathogenicity of S. pneumoniae is
__________. | back 462 c. the capsule |
front 463 The diagnosis of bacterial meningitis requires a sample of
__________. | back 463 e. cerebrospinal fluid |
front 464 Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by a prion? | back 464 a. African sleeping sickness |
front 465 Treatment for rabies exposure requires __________. | back 465 a. injections of antirabies vaccine and immune globulin |
front 466 Which disease may be transmitted by contaminated dairy
products? | back 466 d. listeriosis |
front 467 Which of the following statements is NOT true about botulism? | back 467 a. Antibiotics are the first choice of treatment. |
front 468 Which of the following is used to diagnose West Nile
encephalitis? | back 468 a. ELISA test for IgM antibodies |
front 469 Reservoirs for rabies include all of the following EXCEPT
__________. | back 469 c. mosquitoes |
front 470 Which of these vaccines has actually been implicated in causing the
disease it is designed to prevent? | back 470 d. Sabin oral polio vaccine |
front 471 A migrant farmworker has been brought into the emergency room showing
early symptoms of tetanus. He indicates that he had received a
puncture wound in his hand a week before the onset of symptoms. When
asked about vaccination or booster, he did not know whether he had
ever been vaccinated. Which of the following should be administered to
the patient as soon as possible? | back 471 a. tetanus immune globulin |
front 472 A 10-month-old infant has become constipated and demonstrates
muscular weakness by her inability to sit up or crawl. Her muscle tone
is continuing to deteriorate, and she is beginning to have difficulty
holding her head up. While questioning her mother to get more
information, the doctor noted that the infant's cereal had been
sweetened with honey for the last 10 days. What is a likely
diagnosis? | back 472 a. infant botulism |
front 473 What is the best way to control West Nile encephalitis? | back 473 b. Eliminate the vector. |
front 474 Which method is best for controlling African trypanosomiasis? | back 474 a. Control the vector. |
front 475 An otherwise healthy 19-year-old college student was admitted to the
emergency room with a fever, bad headache, and a stiff neck, symptoms
suggestive of meningitis. A spinal tap was done. The CSF was cloudy,
and the cell count on the fluid was 500 WBC/ml. The differential WBC
count of the CSF showed predominantly neutrophils. The CSF glucose was
decreased, and the CSF protein was elevated. The Gram stain showed
gram-negative diplococci. The most likely etiologic agent is
__________. | back 475 a. Neisseria meningitidis |
front 476 Naegleria encephalitis is commonly acquired by __________. | back 476 a. children swimming in ponds and streams |
front 477 Which of these statements is true concerning foodborne botulism in
older children and adults? | back 477 a. Disease results from consuming |
front 478 Which of the following begins as a lung infection but may cause
meningitis in immunosuppressed individuals? | back 478 a. cryptococcosis |
front 479 Drugs used to treat encephalitis must __________. | back 479 c. be lipid soluble |
front 480 Which of the following microorganisms is NOT a bacterial cause of
meningitis? | back 480 a. Cryptococcus neoformans |
front 481 Which if the following diseases is caused by the toxin released by a
bacterium? | back 481 c. botulism |
front 482 Which one of the following diseases is transmitted by a
vector? | back 482 a. African trypanosomiasis |
front 483 A postmortem examination of a brain shows spongelike degeneration.
This is most likely a case of __________. | back 483 c. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease |
front 484 Chapter 23 | back 484 Chapter 23 |
front 485 Which disease is NOT caused by an obligatory intracellular
bacterium? | back 485 a. Lyme disease |
front 486 A hyperbaric chamber is sometimes used to treat wounds infected with
__________. | back 486 e. Clostridium perfringens |
front 487 The CDC recommends that pregnant women be tested and offered
antibiotic therapy before delivery if they are vaginal carriers of
__________. | back 487 b. Streptococcus agalactiae |
front 488 Why do antibiotics sometimes aggravate septic shock? | back 488 d. Antibiotics may cause the lysis of more bacteria and the release of more endotoxin. |
front 489 A 24-year-old woman in Minnesota complained of a flu like illness
accompanied by a high fever and headache a week after being bitten by
a tick. During examination of a blood smear, it was noted that some of
her monocytes contained clumps of tiny bacteria (morulae). What is the
most likely diagnosis? | back 489 b. human granulocytic anaplasmosis |
front 490 Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched to its
vector? | back 490 d. Babesia microti; flea |
front 491 Tularemia can be contracted by humans by all of the following methods
EXCEPT __________. | back 491 a. infection with Epstein-Barr virus |
front 492 Which of the following statements is NOT true of brucellosis? | back 492 b. Transmission occurs via mosquitoes. |
front 493 Most cases of Burkitt’s lymphoma occur in individuals who are
infected with EB virus and __________. | back 493 b. Plasmodium species |
front 494 Which of the following pairs is NOT a correct match? | back 494 e. Leishmania spp.; water |
front 495 Which of the following is frequently the cause of infection following
animal bites? | back 495 e. Pasteurella multocida |
front 496 Most naturally occurring anthrax infections are __________. | back 496 b. cutaneous infections from endospore entry at a skin lesion |
front 497 A man found living in a rat-infested building develops a high fever
and swollen lymph nodes, called buboes, in the armpit and groin. A
gram-negative bacillus is isolated from the patient, and the rats are
found to be infested with Xenopsylla cheopis. What is the
disease? | back 497 a. bubonic plague |
front 498 A patient has flulike symptoms and a bull's-eye rash on his leg.
Investigation reveals that he had been hiking in Connecticut and was
bitten by two ticks. What is the diagnosis? | back 498 e. Lyme disease |
front 499 Which of the following statements is NOT true of yellow
fever? | back 499 b. Burkitt's lymphoma may develop. |
front 500 A Nigerian tourist is hospitalized with a fever and chills that occur
in 48-hour cycles. A blood smear reveals circular rings within the
erythrocytes. What is the treatment of choice for this
patient? | back 500 d. chloroquine |
front 501 Swimmer's itch is caused by __________. | back 501 c. larvae of schistosomes |
front 502 The symptoms of schistosomiasis are due primarily to
__________. | back 502 c. eggs deposited by adult worms in host tissue |
front 503 A 34-year-old Caucasian male is being examined in the emergency room
of a Boston hospital, complaining of a high fever and severe muscle
pain and joint pain. He returned to Boston two days ago, after
spending 10 days traveling throughout Brazil on business. He indicated
that he was bitten by mosquitoes several times while on the trip.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | back 503 e. dengue fever |
front 504 Toxoplasmosis is most commonly contracted by __________. | back 504 d. contact with cat feces |
front 505 All of the following are defensive cells associated with the lymph
nodes | back 505 c. T lymphocytes |
front 506 A slaughterhouse worker develops fever and chills, with the fever
reaching a high of 40°C each evening. Oxidase-positive, gram-negative
coccobacilli are isolated from a lesion on his arm. What is your
diagnosis? | back 506 d. brucellosis |
front 507 A patient is hospitalized with fever, headache, jaundice, and rash.
Spirochetes are observed in her blood. What is your diagnosis? | back 507 a. relapsing fever |
front 508 Which one of these diseases has the highest incidence in the United
States? | back 508 a. CMV (cytomegalovirus) infection |
front 509 A microorganism has just been introduced to a point below the dermis
of the foot via the parenteral route. It is in the interstitial fluid
and will eventually become engulfed by a fixed macrophage in an
inguinal lymph node. What is the next location it will travel to after
leaving the interstitial fluid? | back 509 d. lymph capillary |
front 510 Chapter 24 | back 510 Chapter 24 |
front 511 One of the most serious infections of the upper respiratory system is
__________. | back 511 d. epiglottitis |
front 512 One of the most important reasons to diagnose and treat strep throat
is that __________. | back 512 d. untreated strep throat may contribute to the development of rheumatic fever |
front 513 Which of the following statements is NOT true of diphtheria? | back 513 d. It is readily treated with antibiotics. |
front 514 Haemophilus influenzae can cause all of the following respiratory
infections EXCEPT __________. | back 514 c. influenza |
front 515 All of the following cause lower respiratory tract infections EXCEPT
__________. | back 515 a. rhinovirus |
front 516 Pertussis is characterized by __________. | back 516 d. a whooping type cough |
front 517 An effective vaccine does NOT exist for the common cold, because
__________. | back 517 d. there are likely over 200 agents that cause the common cold |
front 518 Which of the following best describes why antibiotic administration
is inappropriate for most of the common upper respiratory tract
infections? | back 518 e. Most are caused by viruses |
front 519 A physician receives a lab report indicating that acid-fast bacilli
were found in sputum from a patient with a lower respiratory tract
infection. The physician suspects __________. | back 519 e. tuberculosis |
front 520 An 8-week-old infant has been brought to the ER because of difficulty
breathing. Chest sounds and a chest X-ray indicate an acute
bronchiolitis. Oxygen saturation is poor. What is the most likely
diagnosis? | back 520 b. respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) |
front 521 Which of the following statements is NOT true of
tuberculosis? | back 521 b. Infection has been greatly reduced because of mass immunization. |
front 522 If a patient has a positive tuberculin skin test, it means that
__________. | back 522 e. All of the listed choices are possible regarding a patient with a positive tuberculin skin test. |
front 523 An outbreak of pneumonia occurs in a wing of a hospital housing
kidney-transplant patients. The source of infection is traced to the
water supply of the air conditioner. This case describes transmission
of which of the following? | back 523 c. Legionella pneumophila |
front 524 The frequency of influenza epidemics is associated with the
__________. | back 524 c. frequency of mutations in viral genes for envelope spikes |
front 525 A 90-year-old patient is diagnosed with pneumonia. Microscopic
examination shows a bacterial agent that lacks cell walls. What is the
etiological cause of the patient’s pneumonia? | back 525 b. Mycoplasma pneumoniae |
front 526 The DTaP immunization is for __________. | back 526 b. diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis |
front 527 Which of the following descriptions does NOT pertain to mycoplasmal
pneumonia? | back 527 c. usually a life-threatening illness in adolescence |
front 528 An 85-year-old man has been experiencing weight loss, night sweats,
and a dry cough for several months; recently, he has begun coughing up
sputum with tinges of blood in it. Following a chest X-ray showing
some white spots on his lungs, an AFB stain and culture were ordered,
and both were positive for the presence of AFB. He has been PPD
positive since his twenties. Which of the following most accurately
describes his current situation? | back 528 a. reactivation tuberculosis |
front 529 A patient has a rapid onset of fever, chills, labored breathing, and
sore throat. He recently returned from Mexico, where he drank local
water and stayed in an air-conditioned room. Several weeks ago, he
purchased a parrot. After a physical exam, his physician prescribes
tetracycline. What is the cause of the patient's illness? | back 529 a. Chlamydia psittaci |
front 530 Some respiratory diseases are best diagnosed by a gram-stained smear
and/or culture, while others are best diagnosed by specific antigen
testing or by detecting IgM antibodies. Which of the following
respiratory diseases is best diagnosed by doing a specific IgM
titer? | back 530 a. Mycoplasma pneumoniae |
front 531 All of these statements are true of tuberculosis EXCEPT: | back 531 a. infection has been greatly reduced due to mass immunization. |
front 532 All of these descriptions pertain to Mycoplasmal pneumonia EXCEPT
that __________. | back 532 a. it is usually a life-threatening illness in adolescence |
front 533 All of these statements are true of diphtheria EXCEPT: | back 533 b. it is prevented by immunization with diphtheria toxoid. |
front 534 An 81-year-old female has a mass in her lower-left lung. Her
tuberculin skin test is negative. Microscopic examination of her lung
biopsy reveals large, ovoid cells. The patient has __________. | back 534 a. histoplasmosis |
front 535 Which of these answers describes normal microbiota of the respiratory
system? | back 535 a. The normal microbiota does not include potentially pathogenic microorganisms. |
front 536 A 35-year-old male is hospitalized for cough, fever, and shortness of
breath. He is HIV-positive. Bronchial washings reveal cysts. What is
the etiology? | back 536 a. Pneumocystis |
front 537 The following sequence occurs during the initiation of tuberculosis.
What is the first step? | back 537 d. Mycobacteria reproduce in macrophages. |
front 538 Chapter 25 | back 538 Chapter 25 |
front 539 Which of the following does NOT pertain to dental caries? | back 539 d. Normal mouth microbiota act as first-line nonspecific defenses. |
front 540 Which of the following does NOT pertain to Streptococcus
mutans? | back 540 c. Cells lyse on contact with fluoride. |
front 541 You see flagellated cells in a microscopic examination of feces from
a patient with diarrhea. You conclude that the etiology
is__________. | back 541 b. Giardia |
front 542 Which of the following does NOT pertain to Staphylococcus aureus,
which causes food poisoning? | back 542 d. It is transmitted by contaminated drinking water. |
front 543 Bacillary dysentery __________. | back 543 e. is caused by members of the Shigella genus |
front 544 Beef is checked for cysticerci to prevent transmission of
__________. | back 544 b. Taenia saginata |
front 545 Staphylococcal food poisoning is most likely to result from
__________. | back 545 a. consumption of staphylococcal enterotoxin in potato salad that has been |
front 546 Which of the following is NOT characteristic of mumps? | back 546 d. It is spread via the fecal-oral route. |
front 547 Which of the following is NOT true of salmonellosis? | back 547 c. Antibiotic therapy is required for all patients. |
front 548 All of the following cause diarrhea EXCEPT __________. | back 548 e. Enterobius vermicularis |
front 549 Which of the following can be prevented by cooking food? | back 549 e. All of the listed choices can be prevented by cooking food. |
front 550 Which of the following is NOT true of typhoid fever? | back 550 c. Fluid and electrolyte replacement are the primary treatments. |
front 551 The majority of traveler's diarrhea cases are caused by
__________. | back 551 b. Escherichia coli |
front 552 Which of the following does NOT pertain to E. coli? | back 552 a. All pathogenic strains invade mucosal cells and cause lesions. |
front 553 Which answer is true of hepatitis A but NOT hepatitis B? | back 553 c. fecal-oral; spread via water and food |
front 554 Which of the following pairs is NOT a correct match? | back 554 a. hepatitis A; chronic form of hepatitis |
front 555 An epidemiologist is involved in a hepatitis outbreak in a community.
She traces the source of all cases to food served in a local
restaurant. What health recommendations should be made to customers
who ate at the restaurant? | back 555 a. Customers should be offered passive immunization with immune globulin. |
front 556 An open cut on a dental hygienist's hand is exposed to blood from a
patient's mouth. All of the following are potentially bloodborne
pathogens to which she may have been exposed EXCEPT
__________. | back 556 a. hepatitis A |
front 557 Some gastrointestinal diseases are diagnosed using a culture, others
by direct antigen detection methods, and still others by measuring a
specific IgM titer. Which of the following diseases is detected by
doing an IgM titer? | back 557 a. hepatitis A |
front 558 Diarrhea caused by Clostridium difficile __________. | back 558 d. can result in life-threatening inflammation of the colon |
front 559 Chapter 26 | back 559 Chapter 26 |
front 560 Which of the following pairs is NOT a correct match? | back 560 b. cystitis; inflammation of urethra |
front 561 Which of the following statements does NOT pertain to urinary tract
infections (UTIs)? | back 561 b. They typically begin in kidneys and descend to the bladder and urethra. |
front 562 Which microorganism is responsible for approximately 75% of all UTIs
and half of the nosocomial infections of the urinary tract? | back 562 a. Escherichia coli |
front 563 A 22-year-old female college student visits the campus health center,
complaining of low pelvic pain, dysuria, and hematuria. A clean-catch
urine specimen is collected and upon culture, it grows more than
100,000 colony-forming units per millimeter of a catalase-positive,
coagulase-negative, gram-positive cocci. What is the most likely
identification of this etiologic agent? | back 563 a. Staphylococcus saprophyticus |
front 564 Non-gonococcal urethritis is commonly caused by __________. | back 564 a. Chlamydia trachomatis |
front 565 Which of the following does NOT pertain to leptospirosis? | back 565 c. Penicillin A is the preferred drug for treatment. |
front 566 Which of the following does NOT pertain to vaginitis? | back 566 c. always sexually transmitted |
front 567 All of the following are potentially predisposing conditions for
vaginitis EXCEPT __________. | back 567 b. a vaginal pH of 4.5 or lower |
front 568 A clinical microbiologist detects clue cells from a vaginal swab of a
patient. These cells are diagnostic of infection associated with
__________. | back 568 c. Gardnerella vaginalis |
front 569 A 23-year-old woman comes to the emergency room complaining of low
abdominal pain and a fever. As she walks into the examination room,
she is slightly stooped over and says that even walking is painful.
She indicates that intercourse has been painful for the past week and
evidence of purulent vaginal discharge is noted during a pelvic exam.
What is the most likely diagnosis? | back 569 e. pelvic inflammatory disease |
front 570 Which of the following does NOT correctly represent a stage of
syphilis? | back 570 b. incubation: 3- to 5-day incubation period |
front 571 Which of these statements about gonorrhea is true? | back 571 e. Neisseria gonorrhoeae can disseminate from the genital area to the joints, causing arthritis. |
front 572 A patient has an STI characterized by sporadically recurring,
painful, fluid-filled blisters in the genital area. A Gram stain and
bacterial culture indicate the presence of normal bacterial
microbiota. What is the most likely etiologic agent? | back 572 d. herpes simplex (HSV) |
front 573 Which of the following statements does NOT pertain to genital
warts? | back 573 . They are caused by a disease of the tropics that is uncommon in the United States. |
front 574 All of the following methods are used for diagnosis of syphilis
EXCEPT __________. | back 574 d. Gram staining |
front 575 Which of the following is NOT a disease of the reproductive
system? | back 575 e. candidiasis |
front 576 A mother infected with gonorrhea has transmitted the disease to her
infant as he passed through the birth canal. This infection in the
infant is called __________. | back 576 e. ophthalmia neonatorum |
front 577 Which of the following statements is NOT true of pelvic inflammatory
disease? | back 577 e. Most infections are resolved without treatment. |
front 578 A 20-year-old male reports to an STI clinic with symptoms of painful
urination. A Gram stain of urethral exudate reveals gram-negative
diplococci inside leukocytes. What is the causative agent of the
patient's symptoms? | back 578 a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae |
front 579 All of the following are exclusively sexually transmitted infections
(STIs) EXCEPT __________. | back 579 b. leptospirosis |