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Viewing:

safety1

front 1

Which of the following are recommended to prevent radiation exposure to patients in early pregnancy?

1. Ask patient the date of her last menstrual period
2. Posters stating "tell the radiographer if you are pregnant"
3. Ask patient if there is any chance she could be pregnant

back 1

1,2,3

front 2

Which of the following publications recommends limits of exposure to ionizing radiation?

A. NCRP #100 B. NCRP #102 C. NCRP #105 D. NCRP #116

back 2

D. NCRP #116

front 3

Which of the following devices alerts the radiologist that 5 minutes of fluoroscopy has elapsed?

A. Phototimer B. Cumulative timer C. Synchronous timer D. Mechanical timer

back 3

B. Cumulative timer

front 4

A secondary barrier protects the technologist from which of the following types of radiation?

A. Stem radiation B. Primary radiation C. Scatter radiation D. Gamma radiation

back 4

scatter radiation

front 5

How far must a radiographer stand back during a mobile radiographic exposure?

A. 1 meter B. 2 meters C. 3 meters D. 4 meters

back 5

2meters

front 6

Which of the following characteristics makes lead such an excellent protective barrier?

1. High density
2. High atomic number
3. High absorption coefficient
A. 1 only B. 1 & 3 only C. 2 & 3 only D. 1, 2 & 3

back 6

D. 1, 2 & 3

front 7

What is the effective dose limit a radiography student may receive in one year if he/she is under 18 years old?

A. 1 mSv B. 5 mSv C. 10 mSv D. 50 mSv

back 7

1msv

front 8

The time it takes for a radioactive material to have 1/2 of its atoms disintegrate is known as what?

A. Lethal dose B. Half-life C. Degree of disintegration D. Specific ionization

back 8

half-life

front 9

Which of the following is a major disadvantage of a film badge as a radiation monitoring device?

A. Radiation types cannot be determined B. Immediate readings are not available C. Must be changed monthly D. They are grossly inaccurate

back 9

Immediate readings are not available

front 10

What is the equivalent dose limits that the hands and feet may receive?

A. 200 mSv B. 300 mSv C. 400 mSv D. 500 mSv

back 10

500msv

front 11

The Geiger counter is capable of detecting which of the following type(s) of radiation?

1. Alpha particles
2. Beta particles
3. Gamma rays

back 11

1,2,3

front 12

There are two national bodies that set standards for radiography. Which of these is one of them?

A. National Council on Radiation Protection & Measurements

B. Department of Commerce

C. National Bureau of Standards

D. Food and Drug Administration

back 12

A. National Council on Radiation Protection & Measurements

front 13

The equivalent dose limits for radiation workers is based on the radiation received from what sources?

A. Background radiation B. Medical imaging C. Occupational exposure D. Radiation fallout

back 13

Occupational exposure

front 14

Which of the following is a radiation survey instrument?

A. Gamma camera B. Cutie pie C. Pocket dosimeter D. Thermoluminescent dosimeter

back 14

cutie pie

front 15

A recommendation that is to be applied when practical is indicated by the use of which of these terms?

A. Can B. May C. Shall D. Should

back 15

should

front 16

What is the equivalent dose limits for the hands of a technologist?

A. 50 mSv/year

B. 250 mSv/year

C. 500 mSv/year

D. 750 mSv/year

back 16

C. 500 mSv/year

front 17

The fact that some materials can store energy, then emit light when heated, is the principle that is used for which of these?

A. Ion detector B. Thermoluminescent dosimeter C. Rate meter D. Proportional spectrometer

back 17

B. Thermoluminescent dosimeter

front 18

A recommendation that is necessary to meet the accepted standards is indicated by the use of which term?

A. Can B. May C. Shall D. Should

back 18

shall

front 19

Radiation that leaves the tube housing by any means other than through the window is called what?

A. Primary B. Scatter C. Leakage D. Remnant (exit)

back 19

leakage

front 20

e following radiation monitoring devices is considered to be the most accurate?

A. Film badge

B. Ring badge

C. Optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter (OSL)

D. Thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD)

back 20

Optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter

front 21

Radiation that changes direction as it passes through a material is called what?

A. Secondary B. Scatter C. Leakage D. Remnant (exit)

back 21

scattered

front 22

A radiographer will receive most of his/her occupational exposure from which of these types of radiation?

A. Primary radiation B. Scatter radiation C. Remnant (exit) radiation D. Gamma radiation

back 22

scattered

front 23

Which of the following is the unit of exposure dose of gamma or x rays?

A. Gray B. Joule C. Sievert D. Coulomb per kilogram

back 23

D. Coulomb per kilogram

front 24

How does the energy of scatter radiation compare to that of the primary beam?

A. Less energy B. More energy C. Equal energy D. Doubled energy

back 24

less energy

front 25

Which of the following definitions describes equivalent dose limits?

A. The maximum dose a body can tolerate

B. A dose that is not expected to produce significant effects

C. The dose a worker will receive/year

D. The maximum dose a radiation monitor records

back 25

B. A dose that is not expected to produce significant effects

front 26

Patient dose during fluoroscopy can be minimized by which of the following?

1. Decrease tube to tower distance
2. Restrict beam size
3. Increase fluoroscopic milliamperage
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 3 only D. 1 & 3 only

back 26

2. Restrict beam size

(Restricting the beam to just the area of interest is good practice for fluoroscopy as well as radiography.)

front 27

Which of the following has the greatest effect on the amount of radiation exposure to the patient?

A. Focal spot size B. SID C. Size of exposed area D. Type of grid (linear or crossed)

back 27

Size of exposed area

-Exposure means "being subjected to radiation". The greater the area, the greater the patient is "being subjected to radiation".

front 28

Which of the following will reduce radiation exposure to the patient if done by the radiologist during a fluoroscopic study?

A. Magnifying the fluoroscopic image B. Intermittent exposures C. Using the grid D. Increasing the field of view

back 28

B. Intermittent exposures

front 29

If 2 mm Al is added to an x-ray beam that has a HVL of 2 mm Al, how much will the exposure be reduced?

A. 25% B. 50% C. 75% D. 95%

back 29

50%

front 30

Which type of gonadal shielding could be used for a patient having an exam requiring a sterile field?

A. Lead sheet B. Lead apron C. Shadow shield D. Pseudo shield

back 30

shadow shield

-A shadow shield is mounted on the tube and positioned in the primary beam to cast a "shadow" on the patient. Physical touching of the patient is not necessary.

front 31

Which of the following will NOT have an effect on patient dose?

A. Filtration B. SID C. Focal spot size D. kVp

back 31

focal spot size

-The size of the focal spot is very important in controlling recorded detail on a radiograph, but it has no affect on the quantity of x rays reaching the patient.

front 32

Which of the following will reduce exposure to the patient as well as improve image contrast?

A. Increase grid ratio B. Beam restriction C. Increase kVp D. Decrease SID

back 32

beam restriction

-Beam restriction (collimation) will produce less scatter radiation

front 33

The source-to-skin distance in stationary fluoroscopy must NOT be less than how many inches?

A. 6 B. 12 C. 15 D. 24

back 33

15

NCRP #102 states that kilovoltage, filtration and source-to-skin distance should be as large as practical. The source-to-skin distance for stationary fluoroscopy shall not be less than 15" (38 cm).

front 34

The source-to-skin distance in mobile fluoroscopy must NOT be less than how many inches?

A. 6 B. 12 C. 24 D. 36

back 34

12

-NCRP #102 states that kilovoltage, filtration and source-to-skin distance should be as large as practical. The source-to-skin distance for mobile fluoroscopy shall not be less than 12" (30 cm).

front 35

Which of the following signals is needed to indicate that a radiation exposure has been made?

A. Laser light B. Ultraviolet light C. High frequency sound wave D. Audible sound and visible light

back 35

D. Audible sound and visible light

-Whenever an exposure is made there has to be an audible sound so the radiographer can watch the patient and still know an exposure was made. A visible indicator is also required.

front 36

The quality of an x-ray beam can be measured by which of the following methods?

A. Rate meter B. Sensitometry C. Half-value layer (HVL) D. Spinning top

back 36

-. Half-value layer (HVL)

-Quality refers to the energy of the x-ray beam. A rate meter measures the quantity (number) of x rays, but the HVL indicates the beams energy.

front 37

The function of a beam filter is to remove which of the following from the x-ray beam?

A. Secondary radiation B. Scatter radiation C. Low energy radiation D. High energy radiat

back 37

C. Low energy radiation

Low energy x rays have no potential except to harm the patient. That is why it is important to filter them out of the beam before they reach the patient.

front 38

Which of the following are advantages of using dynamic flat-panel detectors for digital fluoroscopy compared to image-intensified fluoroscopy?

1. Rectangular image
2. Post-processing of images
3. Better contrast resolution

back 38

1. Rectangular image
2. Post-processing of images
3. Better contrast resolution

-Collimation can be smaller when it is not necessary to compensate for the image-intensifier's circular image. Post-processing and contrast resolution are the main advantages of digital fluoroscopy.

front 39

Which of the following could result from excessive radiation exposure to a fetus during the first trimester?

1. Prenatal death
2. Neonatal death
3. Congenital abnormalities

back 39

1. Prenatal death
2. Neonatal death
3. Congenital abnormalities

-An exposure of 10 rem in the 1st two weeks can result in prenatal death. Neonatal death would only result from large doses during the 2-8 weeks. 10 rem during 2-8 weeks can cause abnormalities.

front 40

Which of the following methods is used to determine if an x-ray tube has adequate filtration?

A. Read tube specifications B. Physical examination of tube C. Visual inspection of tube D. Half-value layer (HVL) measurement

back 40

D. Half-value layer (HVL) measurement

-A half-value layer test is the accepted method for determining beam filtration. Title 21 of the Code of Federal Regulations lists minimum HVL's for various tube potentials.

front 41

Which of the following filters would produce an x-ray beam with the highest average photon energy?

A. 1 mm Al B. 2 mm Al C. 3 mm Al D. 4 mm Al

back 41

4mm AI

-The thicker 4 mm Al filter would filter out more low energy x rays, leaving a beam with only high energy photons.

front 42

When should gonadal shielding be used on a patient?

1. If the patient is of a reproductive age or younger
2. If the shield will not interfere with the exam
3. If the gonads lie in or near the primary beam

back 42

1. If the patient is of a reproductive age or younger
2. If the shield will not interfere with the exam
3. If the gonads lie in or near the primary beam

front 43

Which of the following are disadvantages of using a flat piece of lead for gonadal shielding?

1. Cannot be used for erect views
2. Difficult to keep in place
3. Is not very useful for fluoroscopy

back 43

1. Cannot be used for erect views
2. Difficult to keep in place
3. Is not very useful for fluoroscopy

front 44

Which of the following relates to the equivalent dose limits for a non-radiation worker?

A. 1/10 that of a radiation worker B. 1/2 that of a radiation worker C. The same as a radiation worker D. Twice that of a radiation worker

back 44

This would equal 5.0 mSv (.5 rem).

-This would equal 5.0 mSv (.5 rem).

front 45

Which of the following will NOT reduce the amount of exposure to the patient?

A. Higher grid ratio B. Proper collimation C. Beam filtration D. Use of intensifying screens

back 45

A. Higher grid ratio

-Using a grid always requires more exposure to the patient than non-grid techniques

front 46

What is the equivalent dose limit for an embryo-fetus?

A. .1 mSv/month B. .5 mSv/month C. 1.5 mSv/month D. 5.0 mSv/month

back 46

.5 mSv/month C

front 47

Standards state that the exposure in air from fluoroscopic equipment shall not exceed how many Coulomb/kg/minute?

A. 1.29 x 10-3 Coulomb/kg B. 2.58 x 10-3 Coulomb/kg C. 3.87 x 10-3 Coulomb/kg D. 5.16 x 10-3 Coulomb/kg

back 47

- B. 2.58 x 10-3 Coulomb/kg

Most fluoroscopic equipment is calibrated to emit 2 R/minute/mA. Since fluoroscopic mA is usually between 3-5 mA, if calibrated properly, it could not exceed 10 R/minute even at maximum output.

front 48

Which of the following refers to the x-ray beam after it has passed through the beam restricting device?

A. Primary beam B. Remnant (exit) beam C. Secondary beam D. Stem beam

back 48

A. Primary beam

-Primary radiation is produced in the tube. The radiation that passes through the window and beam restricting device is called the primary beam.

front 49

Automatic exposure rate control (AERC) is designed to compensate for changes in which of the following?

A. Examination time B. Technique selection C. Patient positioning D. Patient dose

back 49

Patient positioning

-As the patient is moved and repositioned, the anatomical areas allow more or less x rays through. This changes the brightness of the fluoroscopic image. The AERC automatically changes the mA or kVp settings to adjust for these changes in brightness so the image is always easy to view.

front 50

Which of the following are reasons for using beam restricting devices?

1. Reduce scatter radiation
2. Reduce patient exposure
3. Improve image contrast

back 50

1. Reduce scatter radiation
2. Reduce patient exposure
3. Improve image contrast

front 51

Which of the following types of beam restricting devices is considered the best at reducing patient exposure?

A. Cone B. Diaphragm C. Collimator An extension cylinder produces a round beam. The area of a circle will be less than the area of a square collimator covering the same anatomical part

back 51

- Extension cylinder

-An extension cylinder produces a round beam. The area of a circle will be less than the area of a square collimator covering the same anatomical part

front 52

Which of the following situations would cause the greatest skin dose to a patient?

A. Short SID B. Long SID C. Small focal spot size D. Highest practical kilovoltage

back 52

short SID

-The shorter the distance, the more low energy x rays will reach the patient. It is not recommended to use an SID of less than 40" for radiography.

front 53

A .5 mm lead gonadal shield will reduce female gonadal exposure by approximately what percentage?

A. 25% B. 50% C. 75% D. 99%

back 53

-75%

A .5 mm lead gonadal shield will prevent 75% of the useful beam from reaching the gonad

front 54

What is the purpose of fluoroscopy?

A. To view static anatomy B. To view dynamic anatomy C. To view transaxial anatomy D. To view internal organs

back 54

-B. To view dynamic anatomy

-The primary purpose of fluoroscopy is to view dynamic (moving) anatomy. The radiologist can make a diagnosis of the motility (movement) of the structures being viewed. This is why radiographers cannot do fluoroscopy, because they are not allowed to diagnose.

front 55

What is the primary purpose of beam filtration?

A. Improve radiographic contrast B. Protect patient from low energy x rays C. Produce uniform densities in the image D. Increase visibility of detail

back 55

Protect patient from low energy x rays

-inherent or added filtration placed in the beam absorbs low-energy x rays that would otherwise be absorbed by the patient.

front 56

Which of the following describes the fluoroscopic system designed to maintain a constant image brightness?

A. Automatic exposure rate control (AERC) B. Automatic exposure control (AEC) C. Automatic collimation D. Anatomically programmed radiography

back 56

-A. Automatic exposure rate control (AERC)

Automatic exposure rate control (AERC) adjusts for changes in brightness during fluoroscopy. The reason this is required is because it is quicker than doing it manually and therefore, reduces patient exposure.

front 57

Which of the following examinations would NOT allow male gonadal shielding?

A. Intravenous urogram B. Pelvis examination C. Knee arthrogram D. Voiding cystourethrogram

back 57

- Voiding cystourethrogram

The male testes should be shielded for an IVU or pelvis exam; a gonadal shield would probably get in the way during a voiding cystourethrogram.

front 58

To prevent leakage radiation from exposing the patient, an x-ray tube must have how much protective lead?

A. 1.5 mm B. 2.5 mm C. 3.5 mm D. 4.5 mm

back 58

1.5mm

-X rays that are not in the primary beam are called leakage radiation. The tube housing contains at least 1.5 mm of lead to absorb this leakage radiation.

front 59

The dose rate at the table top during fluoroscopy cannot exceed _______ R per minute.

A. 2 B. 5 C. 7 D. 10

back 59

10

-Most fluoroscopy tubes are calibrated to produce 2R/mA/minute. For the average patient, 1 - 3 mA is required to produce an adequate image. The average patient receives 2 - 6 R/min.

front 60

How fast can dynamic flat-panel detectors, used in digital fluoroscopy, capture and display an image?

A. 10 - 20 ms B. 30 - 50 ms C. 50 - 70 ms D. 75 - 90 ms

back 60

-These speeds are necessary to capture all of the motion.