51 notecards = 13 pages (4 cards per page)
1) Bacterial cells protect their own DNA from restriction enzymes
(endonucleases) by _____. A) adding methyl groups to adenines and
D) forming "sticky ends" of bacterial DNA to prevent the enzyme (endonuclease) from attaching
2) What is the most logical sequence of steps for splicing foreign
DNA into a plasmid and inserting the plasmid into a bacterium?
III. Extract plasmid DNA from bacterial cells.
3) A principal problem with inserting an unmodified mammalian gene
into a plasmid and then getting that gene expressed in bacteria is
C) bacteria cannot remove eukaryotic introns
4) Yeast cells are frequently used as hosts for cloning because they _____.
A) easily form colonies
D) are eukaryotic cells
5) Sequencing an entire genome, such as that of C. elegans, a
nematode, is most important because _____.
B) it allows research on a group of organisms we do not usually care
6) To introduce a particular piece of DNA into an animal cell, such
as that of a mouse, you would most likely be successful with which of
the following methods?
C) infecting the mouse cell with a Ti plasmid
D) transcription and translation
7) Why is it so important to be able to amplify DNA fragments when
8) Pax-6 is a gene that is involved in eye formation in many invertebrates, such as Drosophila. Pax-6 is also found in vertebrates. A Pax-6 gene from a mouse can be expressed in a fly and the protein (PAX-6) leads to a compound fly eye. This information suggests which of the following?
A) Pax-6 genes are identical in nucleotide sequence.
B) PAX-6 proteins have identical amino acid sequences.
D) PAX-6 proteins are different for formation of different kinds of eyes.
9) The reason for using Taq polymerase for PCR is that _____.
A) it is heat stable and can withstand the heating step of PCR
B) only minute amounts are needed for each cycle of PCR
D) it has regions that are complementary to the primers
10) Which enzyme was used to produce the molecule in the figure above?
D) DNA polymerase
12) A laboratory might use dideoxyribonucleotides to _____.
A) separate DNA fragments
D) visualize DNA expression
13) Many identical copies of genes cloned in bacteria are produced as a result of _____.
A) plasmid replication
D) plasmid and bacterial cell replication
14) Which of the following sequences is most likely to be cut by a restriction enzyme?
15) What information is critical to the success of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) itself?
A) The DNA sequence of the ends of the DNA to be amplified must be
D) The sequence of restriction-enzyme recognition sites in the DNA to be amplified and in the plasmid where the amplified DNA fragment will be cloned must be known.
16) Which of the following is in the correct order for one cycle of
polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?
C) Extend primers; anneal primers; denature DNA.
D) Denature DNA; anneal primers; extend primers.
17) The final step in a Sanger DNA sequencing reaction is to run the
DNA fragments on a gel. What purpose does this serve?
C) It separates DNA fragments based on their charge.
18) DNA sequencing has transformed our understanding of genes,
genomes and evolution. Which of the following statements comparing two
common sequencing techniques, the chain termination method and next
generation sequencing is TRUE?
B) The chain termination method employs the polymerase chain
reaction, but next generation sequencing does not.
D) Next generation sequencing employs electrophoresis, but the chain termination method does not.
19) A gene that contains introns can be made shorter (but remain
functional) for genetic engineering purposes by using _____.
C) DNA polymerase to reconstruct the gene from its polypeptide
20) Which of the following is required to make complementary DNA (cDNA) from RNA?
A) restriction enzymes (endonucleases)
D) reverse transcriptase
21) DNA microarrays have made a huge impact on genomic studies
because they _____.
D) allow physical maps of the genome to be assembled in a very short time
22) RNAi methodology uses double-stranded pieces of RNA to trigger
breakdown of a specific mRNA or inhibit its translation. For which of
the following might this technique be useful?
C) to form a knockout organism that will not pass the deleted sequence to its progeny
D) to raise the concentration of a desired protein
23) A researcher has used in vitro mutagenesis to mutate a cloned
gene and then has reinserted the mutated gene into a cell. To have the
mutated sequence disable the function of the gene, what must then
24) Silencing of selected genes is often done using RNA interference
(RNAi). Which of the following questions would NOT be answered with
C) Is gene HA292 expressed in individuals for a disorder in humans?
D) Will the disabling of this gene in Drosophila and in a mouse cause similar results?
25) In large scale, genome-wide association studies in humans we look
26) For a particular microarray assay (DNA chip), cDNA has been made
from the mRNAs of a dozen patients' breast tumor biopsies. The
researchers will be looking for _____.
C) a pattern shared among some or all of the samples that indicates
gene expression differing from control samples
27) Imagine that you compare two DNA sequences found in the same location on homologous chromosomes. On one of the homologs, the sequence is AACTACGA. On the other homolog, the sequence is AACTTCGA. Within a population, you discover that each of these sequences is common. These sequences _____.
A) contain an SNP that may be useful for genetic mapping
B) identify a protein-coding region of a gene
28) Which of the following uses labeled probes to visualize the
expression of genes in whole tissues and organisms?
C) DNA microarrays
29) Which of the following is most like the formation of identical twins?
A) cell cloning
D) organismal cloning
30) In 1997, Dolly the sheep was cloned. Which of the following
processes was used?
31) Which of the following problems with animal cloning might result
in premature death of the clones?
C) abnormal gene regulation due to variant methylation
D) the indefinite replication of totipotent stem cells
32) Reproductive cloning of human embryos is generally considered
unethical. However, on the subject of therapeutic cloning there is a
wider divergence of opinion. Which of the following is a likely
B) Cloning to produce embryonic stem cells may lead to great medical
benefits for many.
D) A clone that lives until the blastocyst stage does not yet have human DNA.
33) Which of the following is true of embryonic stem cells but not of adult stem cells?
A) They normally differentiate into only eggs and sperm.
D) One aim of using them is to provide cells for repair of diseased tissue.
34) A researcher is using adult stem cells and comparing them to
other adult cells from the same tissue. Which of the following is a
C) The two kinds of cells have virtually identical gene expression patterns in microarrays.
D) The nonstem cells have fewer repressed genes.
35) In animals, what is the difference between reproductive cloning
and therapeutic cloning?
36) The first cloned cat, called Carbon Copy, was a calico, but she
looked significantly different from her female parent because
B) fur color genes in cats is determined by differential acetylation
D) X inactivation in the embryo is random and produces different patterns
37) In recent times, it has been shown that adult cells can be
induced to become pluripotent stem cells (iPS). To make this
conversion, what has been done to the adult cells?
C) Cytoplasm from embryonic cells is injected into the adult
38) Let us suppose that someone is successful at producing induced
pluripotent stem cells (iPS) for replacement of pancreatic
insulin-producing cells for people with type 1 diabetes. Which of the
following could still be problems?
III. the inability of the iPS cells to respond to appropriate regulatory signals
A) I only
D) I, II, and III
39) Genetically engineered plants _____.
C) are used in research but not yet in commercial agricultural production
D) are banned throughout the world
40) Scientists developed a set of guidelines to address the safety of
DNA technology. Which of the following is one of the adopted safety
B) Genetically modified organisms are not allowed to be part of our
41) Which of the following is one of the technical reasons why gene therapy is problematic?
A) Most cells with an engineered gene do not produce gene
D) mRNA from transferred genes cannot be translated.
42) One possible use of transgenic plants is in the production of
human proteins, such as vaccines. Which of the following is a possible
hindrance that must be overcome?
C) use of plant cells to translate non-plant-derived mRNA
43) What characteristic of short tandem repeats (STRs) DNA makes it
useful for DNA fingerprinting?
C) The sequence variation is acted upon differently by natural selection in different environments.
D) Every racial and ethnic group has inherited different short tandem repeats.
44) Transgenic mice are useful to human researchers because they _____.
A) can be valuable animal models of human disease
D) were instrumental in pinpointing the location of the huntingtin gene
45) Gene therapy requires _____.
46) For applications in gene therapy, what is the most favorable characteristic of retroviruses?
A) Retroviruses have an RNA genome.
47) Using retroviral vectors for gene therapy might increase the
patient's risk of developing cancer because they might _____.
C) not integrate their recombinant DNA into the patient's
48) In the form of gene therapy used successfully for severe combined
immunodeficiency syndrome (SCID)-X1, the genetic engineering of human
cells is done by _____.
C) treating a relative's cultured bone marrow cells with genetically
engineered viruses and then injecting these cells into the patient's
49) One predicted aspect of climate change is that climates,
including precipitation and temperature, over most of the Earth will
become more variable. Which of the following is a good crop genetic
engineering strategy if this is true?
50) Plasmids are used as vectors in plant and bacterial genetic
engineering. However, there is a major difference in the fate of genes
introduced into bacteria on most bacterial plasmids and into plants on
tumor-inducing (Ti) plasmids. What is this difference?
B) Gene expression tends to decrease rapidly and unpredictably in
bacteria; gene expression is much more stable in plants.
51) In an experiment, DNA from the linear form of the bacteriophage Lambda was cut into fragments using the restriction enzyme Hind III. Restriction enzymes are isolated from bacteria and cut DNA in specific locations. Hind III cuts the Lambda DNA between the adenine nucleotides on the complimentary strands in a specific sequence, as indicated in the diagram, producing eight different size fragments. These fragments are then separated with an electrical current based on size after the DNA fragments are placed in a porous gel, a process called gel electrophoresis.
Select an observation that best describes a correct aspect of the
two processes of restriction digest and gel electrophoresis:
B) The sequence AAGCTT is found eight times in the Lambda genome and
the restriction enzyme Hind III finds each location.
D) Only the restriction enzyme Hind III can be used to cut Lambda DNA since restriction enzymes are specific to the type of DNA they can cut.
52) Organisms share many conserved core processes and features, including transcription and translation using a uniform genetic code. Scientists have used these shared processes and features in biotechnology. For example, for the process of some transformations, a plasmid is constructed when a eukaryotic gene of interest is added with an antibiotic resistant gene such beta-lactamase, which is used for ampicillin resistance. This plasmid is then inserted into a prokaryotic bacterial cell, such as E-coli, through a transformation process that leads to the production of the product protein from the eukaryotic organism. To culture the bacteria and obtain the protein product, the bacteria must grow.
Select the appropriate condition to determine if the plasmid has
entered the E-coli bacterial cell. A) Nutrient broth to which no
antibiotic has been added.
D) Nutrient broth to which other resistant bacteria have been added.