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Bio Final

front 1

The "universal" genetic code is now known to have exceptions. Evidence for this can be found if which of the following is true?

back 1

If UGA, usually a stop codon, is found to code for an amino acid such as tryptophan (usually coded for by UGG only).

front 2

Which of the following nucleotide triplets best represents a codon?

back 2

a triplet in the same reading frame as an upstream AUG

front 3

Which of the following provides some evidence that RNA probably evolved before DNA?

back 3

DNA polymerase uses primer, usually made of RNA.

front 4

Which of the following statements best describes the termination of transcription in prokaryotes?

back 4

RNA polymerase transcribes through the polyadenylation signal, causing proteins to associate with the transcript and cut it free from the polymerase.

front 5

Which of the following does not occur in prokaryotic eukaryotic gene expression, but does in eukaryotic gene expression?

back 5

A poly-A tail is added to the 3' end of an mRNA and a cap is added to the 5' end.

front 6

RNA polymerase in a prokaryote is composed of several subunits. Most of these subunits are the same for the transcription of any gene, but one, known as sigma, varies considerably. Which of the following is the most probable advantage for the organism of such sigma switching?

back 6

It might allow the polymerase to recognize different promoters under certain

front 7

Which of the following is a function of a poly-A signal sequence?

back 7

It codes for a sequence in eukaryotic transcripts that signals enzymatic cleavage ~1035 nucleotides away.

front 8

In eukaryotes there are several different types of RNA polymerase. Which type is involved in transcription of mRNA for a globin protein?

back 8

RNA polymerase II

front 9

Transcription in eukaryotes requires which of the following in addition to RNA polymerase?

back 9

several transcription factors (TFs)

front 10

A part of the promoter, called the TATA box, is said to be highly conserved in evolution. Which of the following might this illustrate?

back 10

Any mutation in the sequence is selected against

front 11

The TATA sequence is found only several nucleotides away from the start site of transcription. This most probably relates to which of the following?

back 11

the number of hydrogen bonds between A and T in DNA

front 12

What is a ribozyme?

back 12

an RNA with enzymatic activity

front 13

A transcription unit that is 8,000 nucleotides long may use 1,200 nucleotides to make a protein consisting of approximately 400 amino acids. This is best explained by the fact that

back 13

many noncoding stretches of nucleotides are present in mRNA.

front 14

During splicing, which molecular component of the spliceosome catalyzes the excision reaction?

back 14

RNA

front 15

Alternative RNA splicing

back 15

can allow the production of proteins of different sizes from a single mRNA.

front 16

In the structural organization of many eukaryotic genes, individual exons may be related to which of the following?

back 16

the various domains of the polypeptide product

front 17

In an experimental situation, a student researcher inserts an mRNA molecule into a eukaryotic cell after he has removed its 5' cap and poly-A tail. Which of the following would you expect him to find?

back 17

The molecule is digested by exonucleases since it is no longer protected at the 5' end.

front 18

5' UTR E1 I1 E2 I2 E3 I3 E4 UTR 3'

Which components of the previous molecule will also be found in mRNA in the cytosol?

back 18

5' I1 I2 I3 3'

front 19

When the spliceosome binds to elements of this structure, where can it attach?

back 19

to the end of an intron

front 20

Which of the following is a useful feature of introns for this model?

back 20

Introns allow exon shuffling.

front 21

Suppose that exposure to a chemical mutagen results in a change in the sequence that alters the 5' end of intron 1 (I1). What might occur?

back 21

inclusion of I1 in the mRNA

front 22

A particular triplet of bases in the coding sequence of DNA is AAA. The anticodon on the tRNA that binds the mRNA codon is

back 22

UUU

front 23

A mutant bacterial cell has a defective aminoacyl synthetase that attaches a lysine to tRNAs with the anticodon AAA instead of the normal phenylalanine. The consequence of this for the cell will be that

back 23

proteins in the cell will include lysine instead of phenylalanine at amino acid positions specified by the codon UUU.

front 24

There are 61 mRNA codons that specify an amino acid, but only 45 tRNAs. This is best explained by the fact that

back 24

the rules for base pairing between the third base of a codon and tRNA are flexible.

front 25

Which of the following is the first event to take place in translation in eukaryotes?

back 25

the small subunit of the ribosome recognizes and attaches to the 5' cap of mRNA

front 26

Which of the following is a function of a signal peptide?

back 26

to signal the initiation of transcription

front 27

When translating secretory or membrane proteins, ribosomes are directed to the ER membrane by

back 27

a signal-recognition particle that brings ribosomes to a receptor protein in the ER membrane.

front 28

What is the function of the release factor (RF)?

back 28

It binds to the stop codon in the A site in place of a tRNA

front 29

When the function of the newly made polypeptide is to be secreted from the cell where it has been made, what must occur?

back 29

Its signal sequence must target it to the ER, from which it goes to the Golgi

front 30

Suppose that a mutation alters the formation of a tRNA such that it still attaches to the same amino acid (phe) but its anticodon loop has the sequence AAU that binds to the mRNA codon UUA (that usually specifies leucine leu).

back 30

One mutated tRNA molecule will be relatively inconsequential because it will compete with many "normal" ones.

front 31

Why might a point mutation in DNA make a difference in the level of protein's activity?

back 31

It might substitute an amino acid in the active site.

front 32

Which of the following types of mutation, resulting in an error in the mRNA just after the AUG start of translation, is likely to have the most serious effect on the

back 32

a deletion of two nucleotides

front 33

What is the effect of a nonsense mutation in a gene?

back 33

It introduces a premature stop codon into the mRNA.

front 34

Which small-scale mutation would be most likely to have a catastrophic effect on the functioning of a protein?

back 34

a base deletion near the start of a gene

front 35

The most commonly occurring mutation in people with cystic fibrosis is a deletion of a single codon. This results in

back 35

a polypeptide missing an amino acid.

front 36

Which of the following mutations is most likely to cause a phenotypic change?

back 36

a single nucleotide deletion in an exon coding for an active site

front 37

In comparing DNA replication with RNA transcription in the same cell, which of the following is true only of replication?

back 37

The entire template molecule is represented in the product.

front 38

According to Beadle and Tatum's hypothesis, how many genes are necessary for this pathway?

back 38

2

front 39

A mutation results in a defective enzyme A. Which of the following would be a consequence of that mutation?

back 39

an accumulation of A and no production of B and C

front 40

A possible sequence of nucleotides in the template strand of DNA that would code for the polypeptide sequence phe-leu-ile-val would be

back 40

3' AAA-GAA-TAA-CAA 5'.

front 41

What amino acid sequence will be generated, based on the following mRNA codon sequence?

back 41

met-ser-ser-leu-ser-leu

front 42

A peptide has the sequence NH2-phe-pro-lys-gly-phe-pro-COOH. Which of the following sequences in the coding strand of the DNA could code for this peptide?

back 42

5' TTT-CCC-AAA-GGG-TTT-CCC

front 43

The dipeptide that will form will be

back 43

proline-threonine.

front 44

Assume that you are trying to insert a gene into a plasmid. Someone gives you a preparation of genomic DNA that has been cut with restriction enzyme X. The gene you wish to insert has sites on both ends for cutting by restriction enzyme Y. You have a plasmid with a single site for Y, but not for X. Your strategy should be to

back 44

cut the DNA again with restriction enzyme Y and insert these fragments into the plasmid cut with the same enzyme.

front 45

How does a bacterial cell protect its own DNA from restriction enzymes?

back 45

by adding methyl groups to adenines and cytosines

front 46

What is the most logical sequence of steps for splicing foreign DNA into a plasmid and inserting the plasmid into a bacterium?

back 46

III, II, IV, V, I

front 47

A gene that contains introns can be made shorter (but remain functional) for genetic engineering purposes by using

back 47

reverse transcriptase to reconstruct the gene from its mRNA

front 48

Which of the following best describes the complete sequence of steps occurring during every cycle of PCR?

  1. The primers hybridize to the target DNA.
  2. The mixture is heated to a high temperature to denature the double-stranded target DNA.
  3. Fresh DNA polymerase is added.
  4. DNA polymerase extends the primers to make a copy of the target DNA.

back 48

2, 1, 4

front 49

Which of the following is used to make complementary DNA (cDNA) from RNA?

back 49

reverse transcriptase

front 50

The reason for using Taq polymerase for PCR is that

back 50

it is heat stable and can withstand the temperature changes of the cycler

front 51

As genetic technology makes testing for a wide variety of genotypes possible, which of the following is likely to be an increasingly troublesome issue?

back 51

the need to legislate for the protection of the privacy of genetic information

front 52

Which enzyme was used to produce the molecule in Figure 20.1?

back 52

a restriction enzyme

front 53

Which of the following is a protein produced by a regulatory gene?

back 53

repressor

front 54

A mutation that inactivates the regulatory gene of a repressible operon in an E. coli cell would result in

back 54

continuous transcription of the structural gene controlled by that regulator.

front 55

The lactose operon is likely to be transcribed when

back 55

the cyclic AMP and lactose levels are both high within the cell.

front 56

Transcription of the structural genes in an inducible operon

back 56

starts when the pathway's substrate is present.

front 57

If you were to observe the activity of methylated DNA, you would expect it to

back 57

have turned off or slowed down the process of transcription

front 58

Genomic imprinting, DNA methylation, and histone acetylation are all examples of

back 58

epigenetic phenomena

front 59

When DNA is compacted by histones into 10-nm and 30-nm fibers, the DNA is unable to interact with proteins required for gene expression. Therefore, to allow for these proteins to act, the chromatin must constantly alter its structure. Which processes contribute to this dynamic activity?

back 59

methylation and phosphorylation of histone tails

front 60

Two potential devices that eukaryotic cells use to regulate transcription are

back 60

DNA methylation and histone modification

front 61

During DNA replication,

back 61

methylation of the DNA is maintained because methylation enzymes act at DNA sites where one strand is already methylated and thus correctly methylates daughter strands after replication.

front 62

Steroid hormones produce their effects in cells by

back 62

binding to intracellular receptors and promoting transcription of specific genes.

front 63

Transcription factors in eukaryotes usually have DNA binding domains as well as other domains that are also specific for binding. In general, which of the following would you expect many of them to be able to bind?

back 63

other transcription factors

front 64

Which of the following experimental procedures is most likely to hasten mRNA degradation in a eukaryotic cell?

back 64

removal of the 5' cap

front 65

Which of the following is most likely to have a small protein called ubiquitin attached to it?

back 65

a cyclin that usually acts in G1, now that the cell is in G2

front 66

The phenomenon in which RNA molecules in a cell are destroyed if they have a sequence complementary to an introduced double-stranded RNA is called

back 66

RNA interference

front 67

At the beginning of this century there was a general announcement regarding the sequencing of the human genome and the genomes of many other multicellular eukaryotes. There was surprise expressed by many that the number of protein-coding sequences was much smaller than they had expected. Which of the following could account for most of the rest?

back 67

non-protein-coding DNA that is transcribed into several kinds of small RNAs with biological function

front 68

Which of the following is characteristic of the product of the p53 gene?

back 68

It is an activator for other genes.

front 69

Which of the following best describes this phenomenon?

back 69

inherited inability to repair UV-induced mutation

front 70

One of the human leukemias, called CML (chronic myelogenous leukemia), is associated with a chromosomal translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22 in somatic cells of bone marrow. Which of the following allows CML to provide further evidence of this multistep nature of cancer?

back 70

The translocation requires breaks in both chromosomes 9 and 22, followed by fusion between the reciprocal pieces.