Which of the following statements about algae is FALSE?

They are important in the degradation of dead plants and animals.

Which of the following scientists provided evidence in favor of the concept of spontaneous generation?

Needham

The study of the body's defenses against pathogens is called

Immunology

Which of the following statements concerning Koch's postulates is false?

A suspected pathogen must be found in the majority of individuals with a particular disease.

The microbes commonly known as __________ are single-celled eukaryotes that are generally motile.

Protozoa

Microbes that can live in the presence or absence of oxygen are called

Facultative anaerobes

Using a microscope, you observe an amoeba moving toward a food source. This is an example of

Responsiveness

Which of the following statements concerning prokaryotic flagella is FALSE?

Prokaryotic flagella are composed of tubulin.

A bacterial cell moving toward light would be an example of

Positive phototaxis

Which of the following statements concerning the characteristics of life is FALSE?

reproduction is defined as an increase in the size of an organism.

Which of the following is NOT a component of bacterial cell walls?

Tubulin

Which of the following is NOT a component of bacterial flagella?

Tubulin

Which of the following statements concerning pili is FALSE?

Pili are longer than fimbriae and flagella.

Which of the following bacterial cell structures plays an important role in the creation of biofilms?

both fimbriae and glycocalyces

Bacterial pili can be described as

Specialized fimbriae

Short, hairlike structures used only by eukaryotic cells for movement are called

cilia

Which of the following is an incorrect pairing?

Numerical aperture: curved glass

Which of the following is NOT associated with an electron microscope?

A prism

All of the following are types of light microscopes EXCEPT

scanning tunneling

The microscope preferred for viewing living specimens is the __________ microscope.

Phase-contrast

If you were trying to visualize flagella without staining, which microscope would you use?

phase-contrast

Cellular organelles and viruses are generally measured in

Nanometers

Which of the following is(are) (a) magnifying lens(es)?

both the objective and the ocular

The ability of a lens to gather light is referred to as its

Numerical aperture

All of the following are associated with different types of phase microscopes EXCEPT

A dark-field stop

Why does immersion oil improve resolution?

It increases numerical aperture and maintains a uniform light speed.

Carbon dioxide is a by-product of which of the following?

The Krebs Cycle

Sulfanilamide is an antimicrobial drug that mimics the shape of an important substrate for a particular bacterial enzyme, thereby inhibiting the enzyme. This type of inhibition is known as

Competitive inhibition

Which of the following produces NADPH?

both the pentose phosphate and Entner-Doudoroff pathways

Which of the following statements concerning reduction reactions is FALSE?

An electron acceptor becomes more positively charged

Anabolic reactions may be characterized as

forming large molecules from smaller molecules

Pyruvic acid is a product of

both glycolysis and the Entner-Doudoroff pathway

Which of the following statements concerning cellular metabolism is FALSE?

Macromolecules are converted into cell structures via catabolism

Which of the following statements concerning glycolysis is TRUE?

If both requires the input of ATP and produces ATP

Which of the following statements concerning enzymes is FALSE?

They always function best at 37* C.

The molecule that an enzyme acts upon is known as its

Substrate

An aquatic microbe that can grow only at the surface of the water is probably which of the following?

A phototroph

A(n) __________ organism is one that requires oxygen for growth.

Obligate aerobic

A microbe that grows only at the bottom of a tube of thioglycollate medium is probably a(n)

Obligate anaerobe

Which of the following growth factors would NOT be required by microbes which do not utilize electron transport chains?

Heme

Which of the following forms of oxygen is detoxified by the enzyme catalase?

Peroxide anion

In microbiology, the term growth usually refers to an increase in

The number of microbial cells

All of the following are used to protect organisms from the toxic by-products of oxygen EXCEPT

Protease

At temperatures higher than the maximum growth temperature for an organism,

hydrogen bonds are broken, proteins are denatured, and membranes become too fluid.

Nitrogen is a growth limiting nutrient for many organisms because

only a few microbes can extract it from the atmosphere, but all organisms require it for amino acid and nucleotide synthesis.

A cell that uses an organic carbon source and obtains energy from light would be called a

Photoheterotroph

All of the following are associated with nucleic acid structure EXCEPT

ionic bonds

Which of the following is NOT involved the packaging of eukaryotic chromosomes?

Okazaki fragments

Which of the following statements concerning transcription in bacteria is FALSE?

The same RNA polymerase transcribes primer RNA, mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA.

Which of the following is found at the 5 end of a DNA strand?

a phosphate group

Which of the following statements is true of bacterial plasmids?

They are small circular DNA molecules that can replicate autonomously.

The bacterial chromosome is

both circular and found in a nucleoid

Which of the following is a characteristic shared by DNA and RNA polymerases?

direction of polymerization

DNA helicases

break hydrogen bonds between complementary nucleotides

Which of the following types of plasmids allows a bacterial cell to kill its competitors?

bacteriocin factors

Which of the following is involved in translation?

mRNA, rRNA and tRNA are all involved.

In the 20th century, scientists harnessed the natural metabolic reactions of bacteria to make __________ for the first time in an industrial setting.

acetone

Which of the following would be an appropriate temperature for the first step of PCR?

94°C

Which of the following processes did NOT contribute to the development of genetic engineering?

chemiosmosis

Which of the following statements regarding vectors is FALSE?

Vectors are generally over 100,000 base pairs in size.

A library of cloned sequences representing the expressed genes of an organism is known as a(n)

cDNA library

Which of the following restriction enzyme sites would produce blunt-ended fragments (the arrow represents the cutting site of the enzyme)?

CCC↓GGG

Synthetic nucleic acids are useful as

DNA probes, primers, and antisense RNAs.

The natural role of restriction enzymes in bacteria is to

protect the cell from invading phages.

Which of the following items is NOT a part of the name of a restriction enzyme?

the Gram reaction of the source bacterium

Put the following steps in the correct order needed to produce a recombinant vector containing a human gene insert.
I. Introduce the recombinant plasmid into a bacterial cell.
II. Isolate the human gene and the vector DNA using restriction enzymes.
III. Ligate the DNA fragments to produce a recombinant plasmid.
IV. Grow bacterial cells on a medium containing a selective agent (such as an antibiotic).

II, III, I, IV

Which of the following is an example of sanitization?

A public toilet is treated with disinfectants.

Which of the following would NOT be bacteriostatic?

Autoclaving

Standard methods of sterilization are not effective in inactivating

Prions

Which of the following statements concerning microbial death is FALSE?

It is not an effective means of evaluating the efficacy of antimicrobial agents.

An instrument that will come into contact with only the skin of a patient should be disinfected with a(n)

low-level germicide

Antimicrobial agents that damage nucleic acids also affect

protein synthesis

Aseptic means

free of pathogens

Which of the following statements is true of disinfectants?

Disinfectants are used on inanimate surfaces

Which of the following is NOT an effective means of sterilization?

lyophilization

Seventy percent alcohol is effective against

enveloped viruses

Another term for the Kirby-Bauer test is the

diffusion susceptibility test.

Which of the following antibiotics disrupts cytoplasmic membrane function?

amphotericin B

Which scientist coined the term antibiotic?

Waksman

Which of the following is a primary advantage of semisynthetic drugs?

They have a broader spectrum of action.

Beta-lactam antibiotics have an effect on which of the following types of cells?

bacterial cells

The most limited group of antimicrobial agents is the __________ drugs.

antiviral

An antimicrobial that inhibits cell wall synthesis will result in which of the following?

Cells become more susceptible to osmotic pressure.

Which of the following drugs specifically targets cell walls that contain arabinogalactan-mycolic acid?

isoniazid

Which of the following is NOT a target of drugs that inhibit protein synthesis?

interference with alanine-alanine bridges

A large percentage of antibiotics and semisynthetic drugs are produced by members of the genus

Streptomyces

Which of the following is NOT associated with Corynebacterium?

Gram-negative

Which of the following bacterial arrangements is the result of snapping division?

palisades

The archaea known as halophiles

are members of the Euryarchaeota and require salt concentrations above 9%.

The largest known group of archaea is the

methanogens

Which of the following characteristics does NOT distinguish the archaea from the bacteria?

the deoxyribonucleotides

Endospores

can be produced when nutrients are scarce.

Bergey's Manual contains

classification schemes for prokaryotes

Which of the following types of microbes might be found in the Dead Sea?

halophiles

Pleomorphic bacteria

vary in shape and size

What bacterial structure is responsible for separating the daughter DNA molecules after replication?

cytoplasmic membrane

Which of the following statements regarding meiosis is most accurate?

A diploid cell produces haploid daughter cells

Replication of the DNA occurs during

interphase

Sister chromatids separate and move toward the poles of the cell during __________ of mitosis.

anaphase

Which of the following is a protozoan stage that allows for transmission of intestinal parasites from one host to another?

cyst

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

Toxoplasma: cilia

Sister chromatids separate during __________ of meiosis.

anaphase II

An aligned pair of homologous chromosomes is called a

tetrad

Merozoites are a result of

schizogony

The fusion of two gametes produces a

zygote

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

fungi: usually diploid

Host specificity of a virus is due to

interactions between viral and cellular surface molecules.

The outermost layer of a virion fulfills which of the following functions of the virus?

protection and recognition

Which of the following infectious particles do not have protein in their structure?

viroids

Which of the following statements concerning viruses is FALSE?

Viruses enter a cell to complete the replication they have begun extracellularly.

Which of the following statements regarding virus taxonomy is true?

Some virus family names are derived from the name of an important member of the family.

Who was the first person to demonstrate the existence of viruses?

Ivanowsky

Viruses are primarily classified according to their

type of nucleic acid

During the intracellular state, a virus exists as

a nucleic acid

How are fungal viruses different from viruses that infect other organisms?

they have no extracellular state

Which of the following would NOT be found as a component of a bacteriophage?

envelope

The fungus Pneumocystis jiroveci is found in the lungs of most people in low numbers, but in immunocompromised people it overgrows, resulting in severe respiratory problems. The fungus is best described as

both resident microbiota and opportunistic pathogen.

Axenic systems of the body include

the kidneys

A protozoan and its resident bacteria invade the body of a worm. The bacteria release toxins and exoenzymes that immobilize and digest the worm, and the protozoan and bacteria absorb the nutrients produced. The relationship between the protozoan and the bacteria would best be described as

mutualism

Which of the following statements regarding the demonstration of the etiology of disease is FALSE?

The suspect agent must be the only potential pathogen present in disease cases.

Mutualism is a relationship

that sometimes provides benefits for both members such that one or both parties cannot live without the other.

Symptoms are

subjective characteristics of a disease that only the patient can feel.

Which of the following situations is NOT a way in which a baby acquires normal microbiota?

microbes cross the placenta during pregnancy

Chagas' disease is transmitted by a bug with mouthparts that penetrate blood vessels. Which type of exposure does this represent?

parenteral route

In which of the following do the mucous membranes serve as a portal of entry for disease?

A pathogen is introduced into the body when the person rubs the eye with contaminated fingers and the pathogen is washed into the nasal cavity by way of tears

Which of the following is NOT an example of symbiosis?

microbes passing across the placenta to the fetus

Which of the following contributes to protecting the eyes from microbial invasion?

tears contain lysozyme and salt and mechanically flush particles from the eyes.

Which of the following cells increase in number during a helminth infection?

eosinophil

Which of the following is NOT considered part of the body's nonspecific lines of defense against disease?

antibodies

Which of the following is NOT one of the signs of inflammation?

odor

Microbial antagonism refers to

the presence of normal microbiota that protect the body by competing with pathogens in a variety of ways to prevent pathogens from invading the body.

Chemotaxis is the

movement of cells toward or away from a chemical stimulus.

Mucous membranes are quite thin and fragile. How can such delicate tissue provide defense against microbial invaders?

the mucus physically traps microbes, contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals, and is shed constantly, along with the outermost layer of cells.

Which of the following are phagocytic cells found in the epidermis?

dendritic cells

Which of the following statements regarding the surface of the skin is FALSE?

It has goblet cells

Protection from infection known as species resistance is a result of

both the absence of necessary receptors and lack of suitable environment in the body.

Which of the following produces an exogenous antigen?

a bacterium outside a cell

Adaptive immunity is sometimes also called acquired immunity. Which of the following statements provides a basis for the alternative name?

To become activated, lymphocytes require exposure to the antigenic determinant for which they are specific.

You step on something in the yard and get a puncture wound that does not bleed freely. Antigens from any microbes that entered the wound will most likely end up in the

lymph nodes of the groin

Large accumulations of young self-tolerant lymphocytes conducting surveillance for specific antigenic determinants are found in

the MALT and lymph nodes

Which of the following statements about lymphocytes is FALSE?

B and T lymphocytes can be differentiated under the microscope.

Which of the following is NOT included in the MALT?

the spleen

Antigens are

specific molecules, or parts of molecules, that the body recognizes as foreign.

The type of immunoglobulin that forms a pentamer is

IgM

Which of the following statements concerning the chemical structure of an antibody is FALSE?

The heavy and light chains are connected by hydrogen bonds.

The designation "B" for B lymphocytes comes from the

bone marrow where these cells mature

The discovery and use of __________ have greatly decreased the mortality and morbidity of infectious diseases.

immunoglobulins

Variolation was first used

to immunize the Chinese against smallpox

What is the most efficient and cost-effective way to control infectious diseases?

active immunization by vaccination

A vaccine is currently available against which of the following microbes?

poliovirus

Which of the following statements regarding an inactivated vaccine is FALSE?

It is made from mutated forms of the pathogen

Almost a century after Edward Jenner introduced successful vaccination, Louis Pasteur developed vaccine(s) against

anthrax and rabies

An adjuvant is a substance that

increases the effective antigenicity of a pathogen

Which of the following statements regarding variolation is FALSE?

It was risk free

he vaccine against smallpox developed by Edward Jenner is an example of a(n) __________ vaccine.

attenuated

Pathogens may be attenuated for use in vaccines by

genetic manipulation and/or raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture cells.

Which of the following bind the constant region of IgE?

eosinophils and mast cells

Which of the following is an example of a type I hypersensitivity reaction?

watery eyes after exposure to animal dander

When mast cells degranulate and release histamine, which of the following events may occur?

bronchial spasms and increased mucus production

What is the function of the proteases released when mast cells degranulate?

destruction of nearby cells and activation of the complement system

How can type I allergic reactions be diagnosed?

by injecting very small quantities of dilute solutions of suspected allergens under the skin

Which of the following is NOT considered a hypersensitivity reaction?

immune system attack on the thyroid gland

Which of the following is a connective tissue cell which produces leukotrienes and prostaglandins?

mast cell

Which of the following allergic reactions is the result of type IV (delayed) hypersensitivity?

dermatitis in response to latex gloves

Which of the following immunoglobulins is produced by plasma cells in response to an allergen?

IgG

Which of the following substances released during a type I hypersensitivity reaction stimulates the release of eosinophils from the bone marrow?

peptides

Which of the following diseases is considered an autoimmune disease triggered by bacterial infection?

rheumatic fever

Over 90% of Staphylococcus aureus isolates are penicillin-resistant. Why?

they produce β-lactamase.

A woman comes to the emergency department with fever and vomiting. She soon develops a red rash all over her body, and her blood pressure begins to drop. What is a likely diagnosis?

toxic shock syndrome

Which of the following statements about "flesh-eating" streptococci is FALSE?

It is considered a common complication of pyoderma

The presence of ________ can be used to distinguish Staphylococcus from other Gram-positive cocci.

catalase enzyme

Bacteria collected from a severely inflamed wound are sent to the lab for analysis. The results come back as follows: Gram-positive cocci in irregular clusters, kinase and coagulase positive, and able to grow in the presence of most antibiotics except vancomycin. The bacteria in the wound are most likely

methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA).

What is one virulence factor that differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other species of staphylococci?

It can produce coagulase

Streptococci are frequently classified by

Lancefield antigen destinations

How do group A streptococci camouflage themselves from white blood cells?

they have hyaluronic acid capsules

Which of the following is an antiphagocytic factor of Staphylococcus?

protein A

Which of the following statements about Neisseria gonorrhoeae is FALSE?

The gonococci induce lasting immunity

Lipid A causes which of the following symptoms?

fever and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

What virulence factor(s) do all Gram-negative bacteria share?

lipid A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection in men is

an acute painful infection with pus discharge.

Which of the following are virulence factors contributing the pathogenicity of Neisseria species?

both a capsule and fimbriae

Members of the Enterobacteriaceae can be distinguished from each other by

both motility and the ability to ferment lactose

Which of the following statements regarding Neisseria meningitidis is FALSE?

There are vaccines available to prevent infection with all strains

The major damage caused by Neisseria meningitidis is a result of

the release of lipid A into the tissues, triggering severe inflammation and DIC.

Among the areas of the female genital tract, which of the following is NOT colonized by Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

the vagina

Which of the following is diagnostic for Neisseria meningitidis?

the presence of Gram-negative diplococci in CSF phagocytes

Rickettsiosis is caused by Rickettsia rickettsii, a pathogen that

infects the lining of blood vessels and leads to leaking of plasma into tissue.

The rash of spotted fever rickettsiosis is the result of

capillary damage

Which of the following is the correct pairing of rickettsial pathogen and vector?

R prowazekii; louse

Which of the following statements regarding Ehrlichia is FALSE?

It usually causes a spotted rash similar to Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

Transovarian transmission is a process in which

an infected female vector transmits the pathogen to the eggs forming in its ovaries.

Which of the following bacteria is responsible for the most common bacterial gastroenteritis in the United States, usually accompanied by frequent, bloody diarrhea?

Campylobacter jejuni

Shortly after returning from a trip to several continents, a young man experiences episodes of fever, chills, muscle aches, and headache that recur at irregular intervals. The young man reports carrying only a large backpack and commonly staying in hostels along the way while traveling. Which of the following diseases is he likely to have?

louse-borne relapsing fever

What type of cell does Ehrlichia chaffeensis infect in humans?

monocytes

Red mites (chiggers) spread ________ among both humans and rodents.

Orientia tsutsugamushi

Rickettsia prowazekii is transmitted by

the human body louse Pediculus humanus.

What is the diagnostic structure produced by Paracoccidioides brasiliensis?

"steering wheel" or "captain's wheel" buds visible by brightfield microscopy

Which of the following techniques reveal(s) the presence of fungal cells in tissues?

both KOH treatment and Gomori methenamine silver (GMS) staining

Opportunistic fungi

are normal microbiota for many individuals.

Which of the following is NOT a major contributor to opportunistic mycoses?

growth of fungus in food

Which of the following media is preferred for the culture of fungi?

Sabouraud dextrose agar

Most mycoses are difficult to treat because

fungal cells provide few targets for selective toxicity.

All of the true pathogen fungi discussed in this chapter are

members of the Ascomycota and are dimorphic.

Which of the following is an opportunistic pathogenic fungus in humans?

Candida albicans

Which of the following types of fungal disease is primarily the result of ingestion?

toxicosis

Ocular histoplasmosis is a(n)

type I hypersensitivity immune reaction.

The definitive host of a parasite is

where the mature form of the parasite occurs.

Which of the following is the most common parasitic disease in industrialized nations?

Trichomonas infection

Trypanosoma cruzi is introduced into the body by

feces containing trypomastigotes contaminating a bite wound.

The protozoans known as apicomplexans

reproduce by schizogony and are intracellular parasites.

The presence of active motile multiflagellated trophozoites in vaginal or urethral secretion is indicative of infection with

Trichomonas vaginalis.

Which of the following is an accidental parasite of humans?

Acanthamoeba

Once infected with Trypanosoma brucei, the patient's immune system cannot clear the infection and develop immunity because the parasite

changes its glycoprotein surface antigens every time it replicates.

Which of the following organisms can colonize the nasal cavity and enter the brain to cause meningoencephalitis?

Naegleria

Which of the following is a ciliated pathogen of the intestinal tract?

Balantidium

Which of the following is the same for both Trypanosoma cruzi and Trypanosoma brucei?

importance of early diagnosis and treatment

Which of the following families of DNA viruses is the most prevalent in humans?

Herpesviridae

What cell type can the Simplexviruses infect latently?

neurons

Which of the following lesions is a hard, raised sore?

papules

Which of the follow produces a rash that leaves permanent scars on the skin?

Poxviridae

High fever, headache, extreme fatigue, and a rash on the face that progresses to fluid- and pus-filled sores before crusting over and healing are signs and symptoms consistent with infection with

poxvirus

A teenager shows up at a clinic with lesions on his face. The sores are raised, light-colored bumps with a waxy texture. A few similar lesions are present on the torso as well. With which of the following viruses might he be infected?

molluscum contagiosum

Which of the following characteristics are common to Poxviridae, Herpesviridae, and Hepadnaviridae?

double-stranded DNA in the virion and the presence of an envelope

What is unique about the Hepadnaviridae family of viruses?

they contain both single-stranded DNA and double-stranded DNA.

Which of the following poxviruses are zoonoses?

both cowpox and monkeypox

Which of the following statements is true of both molluscum contagiosum and smallpox?

The causative agent is a large dsDNA virus with a complex capsid.

Enteroviruses gain their name from the fact that they

are transmitted by the fecal-oral route.

The "common cold" is so common because

100+ strains of rhinovirus and several other types of virus cause "colds."

Some patients who have suffered from polio develop symptoms 30-40 years later in the form of

crippling deterioration and dysfunction in the polio-affected muscles.

Which of the following statements about rhinoviruses is FALSE?

They are the only viruses that can cause a common cold.

Fever, fatigue, loss of appetite, and a yellow color of the sclera and skin, without hemorrhaging or kidney damage, are typically observed with

hepatitis

Which vaccine-preventable disease caused by an RNA virus has been nearly eradicated?

polio

Diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting are signs and symptoms associated with which of the following viruses?

norovirus

Which of the following is a family of six-pointed, star-shaped viruses that cause gastrointestinal diseases?

Caliciviridae

The type of polio that involves the infection of the brain stem and medulla is

bulbar poliomyelitis

Which of the following RNA virus families include the smallest viral pathogens in animals?

Picornaviridae