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exam 4 do better

front 1

Trp operon responding to tryptophan

A) Positive regulation of an inducible system
B) Negative regulation of an inducible system
C) Positive regulation of a repressible system
D) Negative regulation of a repressible system

back 1

D

front 2

Lac operon responding to lactose

A) Positive regulation of an inducible system
B) Negative regulation of an inducible system
C) Positive regulation of a repressible system
D) Negative regulation of a repressible system

back 2

B

front 3

Lac operon responding to glucose

A) Positive regulation of an inducible system
B) Negative regulation of an inducible system
C) Positive regulation of a repressible system
D) Negative regulation of a repressible system

back 3

C

front 4

7) Leu operon responding to leucine

A) Positive regulation of an inducible system
B) Negative regulation of an inducible system
C) Positive regulation of a repressible system
D) Negative regulation of a repressible system

back 4

D

front 5

Yeast genes responding to galactose

A) Positive regulation of an inducible system
B) Negative regulation of an inducible system
C) Positive regulation of a repressible system
D) Negative regulation of a repressible system

back 5

A

front 6

9) Yeast genes responding to tryptophan

A) Positive regulation of an inducible system
B) Negative regulation of an inducible system
C) Positive regulation of a repressible system
D) Negative regulation of a repressible system

back 6

C

front 7

The major cause of allele frequency change in short term population studies

A. Cladogenesis
B. Anagenesis
C. Genetic Drift
D. Allopatric
E. Sympatric

back 7

C

front 8

Involves changes in chromosome number

A. Cladogenesis
B. Anagenesis
C. Genetic Drift
D. Allopatric
E. Sympatric

back 8

E

front 9

Separated populations becoming new species
A. Cladogenesis
B. Anagenesis
C. Genetic Drift
D. Allopatric
E. Sympatric

back 9

D

front 10

Genetic changes accumulating within a species B
A. Cladogenesis
B. Anagenesis
C. Genetic Drift
D. Allopatric
E. Sympatric

back 10

B

front 11

The point of speciation

A. Cladogenesis
B. Anagenesis
C. Genetic Drift
D. Allopatric
E. Sympatric

back 11

A

front 12

20 ) The Ames test includes liver extract because
a) Ames hated liver
b) liver absorbs substances which might be toxic to the bacteria
c) liver metabolizes chemicals to a mutagenic form
d) this allows the testing of the affect of the chemicals on eukaryotic DNA

back 12

C

front 13

Which of the following is true
a) Proto-oncogenes are the gas pedal and tumor suppressor genes are the brakes
b) Proto-oncogenes are the brakes and tumor suppressor genes are the brakes
c) Proto-oncogenes are the gas pedal and tumor suppressor genes are the gas pedal
d) Proto-oncogenes are the brakes and tumor suppressor genes are the gas pedal

back 13

A

front 14

22) Linear relationship of number of mutations to evolutionary distance
A. Horizontal Gene transfer
B. Nonsynonymous substitutions
C. Synonymous substitutions
D. Molecular clock
E. Phylogenetic tree

back 14

D

front 15

23) Does not change amino acid sequence
A. Horizontal Gene transfer
B. Nonsynonymous substitutions
C. Synonymous substitutions
D. Molecular clock
E. Phylogenetic tree

back 15

C

front 16

24) Changes amino acid sequence
A. Horizontal Gene transfer
B. Nonsynonymous substitutions
C. Synonymous substitutions
D. Molecular clock
E. Phylogenetic tree

back 16

B

front 17

25) Large part of a chromosome moving to a different species
A. Horizontal Gene transfer
B. Nonsynonymous substitutions
C. Synonymous substitutions
D. Molecular clock
E. Phylogenetic tree

back 17

A

front 18

26) Representation of evolutionary distance and common ancestry

A. Horizontal Gene transfer
B. Nonsynonymous substitutions
C. Synonymous substitutions
D. Molecular clock
E. Phylogenetic tree

back 18

E

front 19

28) Which of the following statements is true?
a. In the absence of allolactose, the lac operon is constitutively transcribed.
b. In the absence of tryptophan, the genes of the trp operon are not expressed.
c. When a structural gene is under positive inducible control, a mutation that eliminates the activator will cause the structural gene to
be constitutively expressed.
d. When a structural gene is under positive repressible elimination of the repressor will cause the structural gene to not be expressed.
e. An inducible gene is transcribed when a specific substrate is present.

back 19

E

front 20

30) What does an Internal Node represent on a phylogenetic tree?
A.Evolutionary time
B. A common ancestor
C. The point of evolution
D. Level of divergence

back 20

B

front 21

A repressor can only function in a
a) inducible system
b) repressible system
c) negatively regulated system
d) positively regulated system
e) all of these systems

back 21

E

front 22

Which of the following is likely to have the most serious mutational outcome
a) frameshift
b) missense
c) silent
d) transition
e) transversion

back 22

A

front 23

33) Why won’t the number of DNA mutations in a gene always be proportional to evolutionary time of separation?
A.Can’t read mutations from fossils
B.Not all living things use DNA as their genetic material
C.Mutations aren’t related to evolution
D.Some mutations occur less frequently since they change amino acids
E.Mutation rates change in different environments

back 23

D

front 24

Which of the following is not a transversion?
a) A to G
b) G to T
c) A to C
d) G to C
e) T to A

back 24

A

front 25

Operons which regulate the production of amino acids often have an attenuator/leader sequence in addition to the operator because:
a) Amino acids can be toxic and need to be tightly regulated
b) The attenuator actually determines expression level, not the operator
c) The enzymes produced by these operons would waste resources if produced when not needed
d) Attenuators need ribosomes to function

back 25

C

front 26

The main way that a species acquires new genes with novel functions is:
A. Gene duplication followed by divergence
B. Vertical gene transfer
C. Horizontal gene transfer
D. Mutation
E. Natural selection

back 26

A

front 27

What is the major factor defining a species?
A. Similar appearance
B. Reproductive isolation
C. Which genus it is part of
D. Common DNA sequences
E. Survival of the fittest

back 27

B

front 28

41) Uses methylation to determine which strand to change
A mismatch repair
B SOS response
C Tautomerization
D Acridine Dyes
E Direct repair

back 28

A

front 29

42) outcome of multiple UV damage
A mismatch repair
B SOS response
C Tautomerization
D Acridine Dyes
E Direct repair

back 29

B

front 30

43) Causes frameshifts
A mismatch repair
B SOS response
C Tautomerization
D Acridine Dyes
E Direct repair

back 30

D

front 31

44) Removes specific methyl groups

A mismatch repair
B SOS response
C Tautomerization
D Acridine Dyes
E Direct repair

back 31

E

front 32

45) Caused by the many double bonds in the nitrogenous bases

A mismatch repair
B SOS response
C Tautomerization
D Acridine Dyes
E Direct repair

back 32

C

front 33

47) A neural cell cannot give rise to a muscle cell. This is known as
A. totipotent cell
B. differentiation
C. determination
D. methylation
E. brains over brawn

back 33

C

front 34

The signal for high glucose levels in a bacterial cell is
A. high cAMP
B. low cAMP
C. high ATP
D. CAP binds to operator
E. Repressor binding

back 34

B

front 35

A wingless fruit fly is isolated from a population after exposure of the parental generation to EMS. Eventually the mutation is shown to have occurred within the coding sequence of a gene that changes a 5’-GGC-3’ codon (encoding glycine) to a 5’- AGC-3’ codon (encoding serine). Which term would not correctly describe this mutation?
a. Transversion
b. Induced
c. Substitution
d. Missense
e. Loss-of-function

back 35

A

front 36

3. Which of the following statements about an animal bearing a somatic mutation is true?
a. Some but not all of the animal's offspring will also carry the mutation.
b. All of the animal's offspring will carry the mutation.
c. Both the animal and its offspring will show the mutant trait.
d. The animal but not its offspring can be affected by the mutation
e. None of the above

back 36

D

front 37

Which of the following is most likely to cause a frameshift mutation?
a. Base analog
b. Alkylating agent
c. Intercalating agent
d. Ionizing radiation
e. UV light

back 37

C

front 38

9. In the absence of glucose, the CAP protein binds to a DNA sequence adjacent to the promoter of the lac operon. Binding of CAP helps RNA polymerase to bind to the promoter and allows for a high level of transcription of the lac operon. Regulation of the lac operon by the CAP protein is an example of
a. negative regulation.
b. positive regulation.
c. induction.
d. an allosteric effect.
e. constitutive expression.

back 38

B

front 39

11) Photoreactivation repairs DNA using
A. Blue light
B. UV light
C. ATP
D. ligase
E. Elmerʼs glue

back 39

A

front 40

Which of the following kinds of mutations is most likely to be null loss-of-function?
a. Transition
b. Transversion
c. Frameshift
d. Missense

back 40

C

front 41

In Burkitt lymphoma patients, despite translocation, the oncogene c-MYC remains intact in its new location. Yet c-MYC is believed to be responsible for the lymphoma because
a. the c-MYC DNA sequence undergoes hypermethylation.
b. the c-MYC DNA sequence is intact but is inverted in the new position.
c. the c-MYC gene is placed under the control of B-cell-specific gene promoter.
d. the c-MYC gene is placed under the control of B-cell-specific gene regulatory sequences.

back 41

D

front 42

The lac repressor functions as a tetramer and requires binding of all four sites before it releases because:
a) Four is a lucky number for geneticists
b) A tetramer binds the DNA better
c) A tetramer is more accurate in finding DNA sequences
d) This assures that lactose levels are high before the operon turns on

back 42

D

front 43

The open reading frame in the leader region of the trp operon is deleted. The effect will be:
A. Termination of most transcripts
B. No termination of most transcripts
C. Improper translation of the structural genes
D. Normal regulation of transcription
E. Random regulation of transcription

back 43

A

front 44

Which element of the lac operon can act in cis or trans?
a. Operator
b. I gene
c. Structural genes
d. Promoter
e. CAP-binding site

back 44

B

front 45

18. Which statement about the genetic code is not true?
a. Coding sequences are read in groups of three adjacent nucleotides.
b. No codon normally specifies more than one amino acid.
c. Each species of organisms has its own unique genetic code.
d. Some amino acids are specified by more than one codon.
e. Genetic messages are punctuated with start and stop signals.

back 45

C

front 46

In catabolite repression of the lac operon, glucose affects most directly the
a. catabolite-activating protein
b. level of ATP.
c. lac repressor.
d. lac operator.
e. level of cAMP.

back 46

E

front 47

Myoglobin is a protein in muscle cells that consists of a single polypeptide. If you are concerned with interactions between amino acids that stabilize its overall three-dimensional structure in muscle cells, you are concerned with its _____________ structure.
a. quaternary
b. tertiary
c. secondary
d. primary
e. None of the above

back 47

B

front 48

A mutant E. coli strain, grown under conditions that normally induce the lac operon, does not produce ß-galactosidase. What is a possible genotype of the cells?
a. lacI+ lacP+ lacO+ lacZ+ lacY– lacA+
b. lacI+ lacP+ lacOc lacZ+ lacY+ lacA+
c. lacl+ lacP+ lacO+ lacZ+ lacY+ lacA+
d. lacI+ lacP– lacO+ lacZ+ lacY+ lacA+

back 48

D

front 49

Which event is not normally associated with development of cancer?
a. Inactivation of a tumor-suppressor gene in a cell
b. Inactivation of a proto-oncogene in a cell
c. Infection of a cell with a virus that carries an oncogene
d. Chromosome rearrangements including insertions and deletions
e. Activation of genes encoding telomerase in somatic cells
.

back 49

B

front 50

28. Control of the E. coli lac operon by lac I is most accurately described as
a. negative inducible.
b. negative repressible.
c. positive inducible.
d. positive repressible

back 50

A

front 51

An operon is controlled by a repressor. When the repressor binds to a small molecule, it binds to DNA near the operon. The operon is constitutively expressed if a mutation prevents the repressor from binding to the small molecule. Control of this operon is
a. negative inducible.
b. negative repressible.
c. positive inducible.
d. positive repressible

back 51

B

front 52

33. transversion
a. pyrimidine dimers
b. nucleotide-excision repair
c. A•T--> G•C
d. dominant
e. A•T --> C•G

back 52

E

front 53

34. xeroderma pigmentosum
a. pyrimidine dimers
b. nucleotide-excision repair
c. A•T--> G•C
d. dominant
e. A•T --> C•G

back 53

B

front 54

35. gain-of-function mutant
a. pyrimidine dimers
b. nucleotide-excision repair
c. A•T--> G•C
d. dominant
e. A•T --> C•G

back 54

D

front 55

36. ultraviolet light
a. pyrimidine dimers
b. nucleotide-excision repair
c. A•T--> G•C
d. dominant
e. A•T --> C•G

back 55

A

front 56

37. transition a. pyrimidine dimers
b. nucleotide-excision repair
c. A•T--> G•C
d. dominant
e. A•T --> C•G

back 56

C

front 57

2) Which feature of gene regulation is present only in prokaryotic genomes?
A. Gene dosage
B. Activators
C. Enhancers
D. Alternative splicing
E. Attenuators

back 57

E

front 58

8) The corepressor of tryptophan biosynthesis is
A. tRNATrp
B. Tryptophan
C. Tryptophanase
D. Tryptophan attenuator
E. None of the above

back 58

B

front 59

What is a silent mutation?
a) A change that adds or deletes a base from a codon
b) A change causing the protein to start in the wrong place
c) A change from an amino acid codon to a stop codon
d) A change in a degenerate codon position that doesn't change the meaning of the codon
e) A change from a codon for one amino acid to a codon for another amino acid

back 59

D

front 60

Which of the following crosses will result in hybrid dysgenesis?
a) P- male X P- female
b) P+ male X P+ female
c) P+ male X P- female
d) P- male X P+ female

back 60

C

front 61

In the presence of lactose and glucose, which of the following bacteria will not produce high levels of lacZ
A. I+O+Z+
B. I+OCZ+
C. ISO+Z+
D. I-O+Z+
E. None will produce lacZ

back 61

E

front 62

Approximately how big would the average fragment size be following digestion with a restriction enzyme that recognizes a 6 base pair sequence?
a) 500 bp
b) 1000 bp
c) 2500 bp
d) 4000 bp
e) 6000 bp

back 62

D

front 63

Which factor binds to the TATA box in eukaryotic Pol II promoters
A. TFIA
B. TFIID
C. TFIIID
D. TFIB
E. TFIIIB

back 63

B

front 64

ddNTP is missing the hydroxyl at the
a) 5’ and 3’ position
b) 1’ and 2’ position
c) 2’ and 3’ position
d) 2’ and 5’ position
e) 4’ and 5’ position

back 64

C

front 65

40) Insertion sequences (IS) inserted in the genome are flanked by:
a) Inverted genomic repeats and Inverted sequence elements
b) Direct genomic repeats and Direct sequence elements
c) Inverted genomic repeats and Direct sequence elements
d) Direct genomic repeats and inverted sequence elements

back 65

D

front 66

You perform interrupted-mating experiments on three Hfr strains (A, B, and C). Genes are transferred (from last to first) in the following order from each strain: strain A, thi-his-gal-lac-pro; strain B, lac-gal-his-thi-thr; strain C, azi-leu-thr-thi-his. How are the F factors in these strains oriented?
a. A and B are oriented in the same direction.
b. B and C are oriented in the same direction.
c. A and C are oriented in the same direction.
d. All of them are oriented in the same direction.

back 66

C

front 67

A bacterium of genotype a+b+c+d+ is the donor in a cotransformation mapping. The recipient is a–b–c–d–. Data from the transformed cells are shown below. What is the order of the genes?
a+ and d+ 2
d+ and c+ 0
b+ and d+ 5
a+ and c+ 5
b+ and a+ 0
c+ and b+ 0
a. a c b d
b. a d c b
c. c b a d
d. c a d b

back 67

D

front 68

A co-transduction experiment is carried out to map genes A, B and C in E. coli. Out of 10 million phage lambda tested, 250 cotransduced A and C, 25 cotransduced B and C and none cotransduced A and B. This indicates that:
A. All three are on different chromosomes
B. A and B are on different chromosomes
C. B and C are the closest markers
D. A and B are the closest markers
E. C is the middle marker

back 68

E

front 69

The response of the yeast Gal4 (galactose) gene to galactose is an example of
A. an inducible system with negative regulation
B. a repressible sytem with negative regulation
C. an inducible system with positive regulation
D. a repressible sytem with positive regulation

back 69

C

front 70

A wingless fruit fly is isolated from a population after exposure of the parental generation to EMS. Eventually the mutation is shown to have occurred within the coding sequence of a gene that changes a 5’-GGC-3’ codon (encoding glycine) to a 5’-GGG-3’ codon (encoding glycine). Which term would not correctly describe this mutation?
a. Transversion
b. Induced
c. Substitution
d. Missense
e. Loss-of-function

back 70

D

front 71

The signal for high glucose levels in a bacterial cell is
A. high cAMP
B. low cAMP
C. high ATP
D. CAP binds to operator
E. Repressor binding

back 71

B

front 72

The genes which act as the brakes for cell growth are the
A. proto-oncogenes
B. slow-down genes
C. oncogenes
D. growth-halting genes
E. tumor-suppressor genes

back 72

E

front 73

The histone core consists of
A. Four polypeptides
B. Six polypeptides
C. Eight polypeptides
D. Nine polypeptides

back 73

C

front 74

47) ras

A. Gap gene
B. cyclin
C. proto-oncogene
D. tumor suppressor gene
E. Coordinate gene

back 74

C

front 75

49) retinablasoma gene
A. Gap gene
B. cyclin
C. proto-oncogene
D. tumor suppressor gene
E. Coordinate gene

back 75

D

front 76

62) Determines the proper position of neuron outgrowth in mice and humans
A. Antennaepedia
B. Hox
C. Ultrabithorax
D. Homeotic genes

back 76

B

front 77

Operons allow coordinate regulation of genes involved in the same processes

A. Always True
B. Always False
C. Usually True
D. Usually False

back 77

C

front 78

Multigene families
A. Are always involved in immune functions
B. Use the same promoter
C. Have the same sequence
D. Encode protein subunits
E. Probably arose through gene duplication

back 78

E

front 79

The majority of genes identified by genomics:
A. Are involved in translation
B. Are involved in transcription
C. Have no clearly identified function
D. Only make non-coding RNA
E. Are uniformly distributed on the chromosomes

back 79

C

front 80

59) Antibody diversity is increased by
A. Break-chew-add
B. Somatic hypermutation
C. Somatic hypomutation
D. Somatic-Chew-Break
E. Break-chew-hypermutation

back 80

B

front 81

Two-dimension gels separate proteins based on
A. size and size
B. hydrophobicity and size
C. hydrophobicity and charge
D. size and color
E. charge and size

back 81

E

front 82

Relative fitness is:
A. The percentage of a given genotype found in the next generation
B. The percentage of a given phenotype found in the next generation
C. The number of animals that survive in a population
D. The number of offspring an individual with a certain genotype will produce
E. The chances of an individual with a certain phenotype surviving for a year

back 82

A

front 83

23) Needs visible light to work
A mismatch repair
B photoreactivation
C Tautomerization
D Acridine Dyes
E excision repair

back 83

B

front 84

24) Causes frameshifts
A mismatch repair
B photoreactivation
C Tautomerization
D Acridine Dyes
E excision repair

back 84

D

front 85

25) Needs Pol I and ligase to complete the repair
A mismatch repair
B photoreactivation
C Tautomerization
D Acridine Dyes
E excision repair

back 85

E

front 86

26) Caused by the many double bonds in the nitrogenous bases

A mismatch repair
B photoreactivation
C Tautomerization
D Acridine Dyes
E excision repair

back 86

C

front 87

A phage with a genome of 10,000 base pairs has a Cot 1/2 value of 5. What is the expected Cot 1/2 of a phage with a 20,000 base pair genome?
a) 5
b) 10
c) 2.5
d) 20
e) cannot be determined with the information provided

back 87

B

front 88

2) Used to add restriction site to the ends of cDNAs
a) Steroid hormone
b) linker
c) Short tandem repeats
d) Haematopoesis
e) DAM methylase

back 88

B

front 89

3) Different numbers of these are detected in DNA fingerprinting
a) Steroid hormone
b) linker
c) Short tandem repeats
d) Haematopoesis
e) DAM methylase

back 89

C

front 90

4) Derived from cholesterol
a) Steroid hormone
b) linker
c) Short tandem repeats
d) Haematopoesis
e) DAM methylase

back 90

A

front 91

5) Study of the formation of blood vessels
a) Steroid hormone
b) linker
c) Short tandem repeats
d) Haematopoesis
e) DAM methylase

back 91

D

front 92

6) Helps mark the old strand during DNA replication

a) Steroid hormone
b) linker
c) Short tandem repeats
d) Haematopoesis
e) DAM methylase

back 92

E

front 93

A bacteria mutant for lacY (galactoside permease) will be:
A. always repressed for lac operon transcription
B. constitutively on for lac operon transcription
C. normally inducible for lac operon transcription
D. have a lower induced response for lac operon transcription

back 93

A

front 94

Which of the Following is true?
A. Inversions and reciprocal translocations both interfere with recombination
B. Inversions and reciprocal translocations both interfere with forming gametes with the correct chromosome balance
C. Inversions interfere with forming gametes with the correct chromosome balance, reciprocal translocations with recombination
D. Inversions interfere with recombination, reciprocal translocations with forming gametes with the correct chromosome balance

back 94

D

front 95

The response of the lac operon to glucose is an example of
A. an inducible system with negative regulation
B. a repressible sytem with negative regulation
C. an inducible system with positive regulation
D. a repressible sytem with positive regulation

back 95

D

front 96

26) adds a side group onto the rings of DNA bases
A xeroderma pigmentosa
B photoreactivation
C alkylating agents
D Acridine Dyes
E excision repair

back 96

C

front 97

27) cuts out a set number of bases of single stranded DNA
A xeroderma pigmentosa
B photoreactivation
C alkylating agents
D Acridine Dyes
E excision repair

back 97

E

front 98

28) increased sensitivity to UV light
A xeroderma pigmentosa
B photoreactivation
C alkylating agents
D Acridine Dyes
E excision repair

back 98

A

front 99

29) repairs DNA in bacteria, but not people
A xeroderma pigmentosa
B photoreactivation
C alkylating agents
D Acridine Dyes
E excision repair

back 99

B

front 100

30) intercalates into DNA A xeroderma pigmentosa
B photoreactivation
C alkylating agents
D Acridine Dyes
E excision repair

back 100

D

front 101

Which nucleotide is methylated in eukaryotic DNA to indicate a region which should be inactivated through compression?
a) ATP
b) CTP
c) GTP
d) TTP

back 101

B

front 102

What is a missense mutation?
a) A change that adds or deletes a base from a codon
b) A change causing the protein to start in the wrong place
c) A change from an amino acid codon to a stop codon
d) A change in a degenerate codon position that doesn't change the meaning of the codon
e) A change from a codon for one amino acid to a codon for another amino acid

back 102

E

front 103

Pick from the following:
a. Pericentric inversions cause dicentric and acentric chromosomes, paracentric does not
b. Paracentric inversions cause dicentric and acentric chromosomes, pericentric does not
c. Both Pericentric and paracentric inversions cause dicentric and acentric chromosomes
d. Neither Pericentric nor paracentric inversions cause dicentric and acentric chromosomes

back 103

B

front 104

Phage lambda’s decision to go lytic or lysogenic is a model for
A. A binary developmental decision
B. Randomness of protein binding to DNA
C. Multiple choice selection
D. Enhancer activation of developmental pathways
E. Repressors binding to operator sites

back 104

A

front 105

The response of the trp operon to tryptophan is an example of
a) an inducible system with negative regulation
b) a repressible sytem with negative regulation
c) an inducible system with positive regulation
d) a repressible sytem with positive regulation

back 105

B

front 106

A bacterium of genotype a+b+c+d+ is the donor in a cotransformation mapping. The recipient is a–b–c–d–. Data from the transformed cells are shown below. What is the order of the genes?
a+ and b+ 2
a+ and c+ 0
a+ and d+ 5
b+ and c+ 5
b+ and d+ 0
c+ and d+ 0
a. a c b d
b. a d c b
c. c b a d
d. c a d b

back 106

C

front 107

By measuring the UV-melting curves for the DNA of two different organisms (A and B) in the same solution and concentration, we have found the following melting temperatures (Tm): Tm(A)= 70.2 C and Tm(B)=75.6 C. Which of the following is correct?
a. Both DNA molecules are equally thermally stable.
b. Both DNA molecules have equimolar A,C,G,T
c. A has more guanine than B
d. B has more guanine than A

back 107

D

front 108

An immunization confers future resistance because of
A. Immunogens
B.antigens
C. junctional diversity
D. memory cells
E. somatic hypermutation

back 108

D

front 109

B Cells get their name from
A.Bone Marrow
B. Bursa
C. They are the second cells in the order A, B, C, etc.
D. Best
E. Botulin

back 109

B

front 110

What is the difference between a structural gene and a regulator gene?

a. Structural genes are transcribed into mrNa, but regulator genes are not. b. Structural genes have complex structures; regulator genes have simple structures. c. Structural genes encode proteins that function in the structure of the cell; regulator genes carry out metabolic reactions. d. Structural genes encode proteins; regulator genes control the transcription of structural genes.

back 110

D

front 111

In a negative repressible operon, the regulator protein is synthesized as

a. an active activator. b. an inactive activator. c. an active repressor. d. an inactive repressor.

back 111

D

front 112

In the presence of allolactose, the lac operon repressor

a. binds to the operator. b. binds to the promoter. c. cannot bind to the operator. d. binds to the regulator gene.

back 112

C

front 113

In the trp operon, what happens to the trp repressor in the absence of tryptophan?

a. It binds to the operator and represses transcription. b. It cannot bind to the operator and transcription takes place. c. It binds to the regulator gene and represses transcription. d. It cannot bind to the regulator gene and transcription takes place.

back 113

B

front 114

Most transcriptional activator proteins affect transcription by interacting with

a. introns. b. the basal transcription apparatus. c. DNa polymerase. d. nucleosomes.

back 114

B

front 115

In rNa silencing, sirNas and mirNas usually bind to which part of the mrNa molecules that they control?

a. 5' Utr b. 5'cap c. 3' poly(a) tail d. 3'Utr

back 115

D

front 116

Which of the following changes is a transition base substitution?

A.Adenine is replaced by thymine. B.Cytosine is replaced by adenine. C.Guanine is replaced by adenine. D.three nucleotide pairs are inserted into DNA.

back 116

C

front 117

Base analogs are mutagenic because of which characteristic?

a. They produce changes in DNA polymerase that cause it to malfunction. b. They distort the structure of DNA. c. They are similar in structure to the normal bases. d. They chemically modify the normal bases.

back 117

C

front 118

Which type of mutation in telomerase can be associated with cancer cells?

A. Mutations that produce an inactive form of telomerase B.Mutations that decrease the expression of telomerase. C.Mutations that increase the expression of telomerase D. All of the above

back 118

C

front 119

Chronic myelogenous leukemia is usually associated with which type of chromosome rearrangement?

a. Duplication b. Deletion c. Inversion d. Translocation

back 119

D

front 120

Which of the following is an example of postzygotic reproductive isolation? a. Sperm of species a dies in the oviduct of species B before fertilization can take place. b. Zygotes that are hybrids between species a and B are spontaneously aborted early in development. c. the mating seasons of species a and B do not overlap. d. Males of species a are not attracted to the pheromones produced by the females of species B.

back 120

B

front 121

In general, changes in which types of sequences are expected to exhibit the slowest rates?

a. Synonymous changes in amino acid–coding regions of exons b. Nonsynonymous changes in amino acid–coding regions of
exons c. Changes in introns d. Changes in pseudogen

back 121

B

front 122

A gene contains a frameshift mutations. Which kind of mutagen would be capable of reversing this mutation ?

A. alkylating agent

B. base analog

C. intercalating agent

D. deaminating chemical

back 122

C

front 123

Which is NOT true of transposable elements ?

A.Many will possess short terminal inverted repeats

B.They often generate short flanking direct repeats

C.They are mobile DNA

D.Their movement will not cause mutations

back 123

D

front 124

What kind of transposition causes an increase in the copy number of transposable elements ?

A.mutagenic transposition

B.All transpositions increase copy number

C.nonreplicative transposition

D.replicative transposition

back 124

D

front 125

What kind of mutation repair does NOT involve the removing and repairing of nucleotides ?

A.nucleotide-excision repair

B.mismatch repair

C. direct repair

D.base-excision repair

back 125

C

front 126

How can spontaneous mutations arise?

A.They can occur during DNA tautomeric shifts

B. They can arise during DNA replication

C.They can arise from depurination and deamination

D.All of these can cause spontaneous mutations

back 126

D

front 127

The class of proteins known as cyclins

A.phosphorylate other cellular proteins

B.act as inhibitors of kinases

C.oscillate in concentration during the cell cycle

D.Express at a steady level throughout the cell cycle

back 127

C

front 128

In normal somatic cells, chromosomes shorten each generation. In cancer cells you notice that the chromosomes are not shortening, even after many cell divisions. A mutation in the expression of which gene might lead to this observation ?

A.DNA polymerase

B.telomerase

C. DNA-repair genes

D.retinoblastoma

back 128

B

front 129

What is the unique property of metastatic cancers?

A.They lose contact inhibition

B.They spread to other tissues

C.They usually arise from mutations

D.They grow out of control

back 129

B

front 130

Helix-turn-helix and zinc finger are structural motifs of
A. Enhancer/promoter interaction
B. DNA binding proteins
C. Methylation enzymes
D. Catabolic enzyme complexes
E. Spliceosomes for primary and alternative splice sites

back 130

B

front 131

27) Which feature of gene regulation is present only in eukaryotes?
A. Alternative splicing
B. mRNA half-life
C. Operons
D. DNA methylation
E. Helix-turn-helix transcriptional activators

back 131

A

front 132

15) Most tumor suppressor genes are
A. mutant
B. DNA binding proteins
C. recessive
D. neutral in effect
E. dominant

back 132

C