53 notecards = 14 pages (4 cards per page)
1) Which of the following is the correct order of floral organs from
the outside to the inside of a complete flower?
D) sepals → petals → stamens → carpels
2) Arrange the following structures from largest to smallest,
assuming that they belong to two generations of the same
D) 4, 1, 2, 5, 3
3) A summer occupation in the Corn Belt states is de-tasseling the
corn: removing unwanted male flowers so that female flowers on the
same plant are pollinated by the desired pollen for the hybrid corn.
What does this tell you about corn? The flowers are _____.
D) imperfect and the plant is monoecious
4) During the alternation of generations in plants, _____.
B) mitosis produces gametes
5) Which of these is a major trend in land plant evolution?
C) the trend toward a sporophyte-dominated life cycle
6) Retaining the zygote on the living gametophyte of land plants
D) allows it to be nourished by the parent plant
7) Sperm cells are formed in plants by _____.
C) mitosis in male gametophyte
8) A researcher has developed two stains for use with seed plants.
One stains sporophyte tissue blue; the other stains gametophyte tissue
red. If the researcher exposes pollen grains to both stains, and then
rinses away the excess stain, what should occur?
C) The pollen grains will have red interiors and blue exteriors.
9) In which of the following pairs are the two terms
B) embryo sac — female gametophyte
10) The generative cell of male angiosperm gametophytes is haploid.
This cell divides to produce two haploid sperm cells. What type of
cell division does the generative cell undergo to produce these sperm
11) Which of the following statements regarding flowering plants is
C) Pollination is the delivery of pollen to the stigma of a carpel
12) In a typical angiosperm, what is the sequence of structures
encountered by the tip of a growing pollen tube on its way to the
A) 4 →? 2 → 3 → 1
13) If an ovary contains 50 ovules, what is the minimum number of
pollen grains that must land to form 50 mature seeds?
14) Double fertilization means that _____.
B) one sperm is needed to fertilize the egg, and a second sperm is needed to fertilize the polar nuclei
15) What is typically the result of double fertilization in
C) Both a diploid embryo and triploid endosperm are formed
16) Suppose that 100 pollen grains land on a stigma, and 50 mature
seeds are formed in the fruit. What does this indicate about the
pollination process and success?
D) 50% success: 50 sperm fertilized 50 eggs, and 50 sperm fused with 100 polar nuclei.
17) Which of the following flower parts develops into a seed?
18) The vast number and variety of flower species is probably related
to various kinds of _____.
19) It is estimated that animal-pollinated or insect-pollinated
plants produce 1000 pollen grains for each ovule; wind-pollinated
plants produce 1,000,000 pollen grains for each ovule. What does that
indicate about pollination systems?
C) Wind pollination is less efficient than animal-assisted pollination.
20) Cottonwood, aspen, and willow trees have beige flowers, with no
petals, that appear before the tree's leaves are out in the spring;
and they are dioecious. What does this indicate about these
C) Their pollen is dispersed by wind.
21) Which of the following occur during the formation of an embryo
from a zygote in angiosperms?
B) II, IV, and V
22) The egg of a plant has a haploid chromosome number of 12 (n =
12). What is true about the number of chromosomes in the cells of
other tissues of this plant?
D) The endosperm has 36 chromosomes.
23) What adaptations should one expect of the seed coats of
angiosperm species whose seeds are dispersed by frugivorous
(fruit-eating) animals, as opposed to angiosperm species whose seeds
are dispersed by other means?
C) 3 and 5
24) Which of these events occurs first in seed germination?
C) Water is taken up.
25) Before plowing a field, a farmer thought the bare field looked
weed-free. Three days after plowing and turning over the soil, he was
amazed to see thousands of tiny seedlings. What is the most likely
reason for the mass germination of seeds?
B) small seeds that need light to germinate
26) Angiosperms are the most successful terrestrial plants. Which of
the following features is unique to them and helps account for their
C) fruits enclosing seeds
27) Which of the following flower parts develops into the pulp of a
28) The black dots that cover strawberries are actually individual
fruits. The fleshy and tasty portion of a strawberry derives from the
receptacle of a flower with many separate carpels. Therefore, a
strawberry is _____.
C) both an aggregate fruit and an accessory fruit
29) Among plants known as legumes (beans, peas, alfalfa, clover, for
example) the seeds are contained in a fruit that is itself called a
legume, better known as a pod. Upon opening such pods, it is commonly
observed that some ovules have become mature seeds, whereas other
ovules have not. Thus, which of the following statements is (are)
C) 2 and 5
30) Unripe fruits protect seeds from predation and early germination.
What is the major function of ripe fruits?
B) dispersing seed
Use the following information to answer the question(s)
A) 4, 2, 3, 1
Use the following information to answer the question(s)
32) Orchid bees are to Brazil nut trees as ________ are to pine
33) Entrepreneurs attempted, but failed, to harvest nuts from
plantations grown in Southeast Asia. Attempts to grow Brazil nut trees
in South American plantations also failed. In both cases, the trees
grew vigorously, produced healthy flowers in profusion, but set no
fruit. Consequently, what is the likely source of the problem?
D) pollination failure
34) The same bees that pollinate the flowers of the Brazil nut trees
also pollinate orchids, which are epiphytes (in other words, plants
that grow on other plants); however, orchids cannot grow on Brazil nut
trees. These observations explain _____.
B) why Brazil nut trees do not set fruit in monoculture plantations
35) The agouti is most directly involved with the Brazil nut tree's
dispersal of _____.
C) sporophyte embryos
36) Animals that consume Brazil nuts derive nutrition mostly from
tissue whose nuclei have how many chromosomes?
37) Which of the following could be considered an evolutionary
advantage of asexual reproduction in plants?
A) increased success of progeny in a stable environment.
38) Plants produce more seeds when they reproduce asexually than
sexually. Yet most plants reproduce sexually in nature. What is the
probable explanation for the prevalence of sexual reproduction? Sexual
C) mixes up alleles contributing to variation in a species
39) Which of the following is a true statement about asexual
reproduction in plants?
C) Making cuttings of ornamental plants is a form of fragmentation.
40) While looking at a flower in your garden, you notice that it has
carpels with very long styles, and stamens with very short filaments.
This plant is most likely to reproduce by _____.
41) Which of the following types of plants are incapable of
42) Which of the following is a potential advantage of introducing
apomixis into hybrid crop species?
C) All of the desirable traits of the cultivar would be passed on to offspring.
43) Pollen from a plant with the S1S2 genotype is recognized and
allowed to germinate on the stigma of the same plant with the S1S2
genotype. According to the S-system hypothesis, this indicates that
the plant is _____.
A) self-compatible and can self-pollinate.
44) Over human history, which process has been most important in
improving the features of plants that have long been used by humans as
B) artificial selection
45) Which of these activities is part of the development of crop
plants from wild relatives?
D) I, II, and IV
46) Regardless of where in the world a vineyard is located, for the
winery to produce a Burgundy, it must use varietal grapes that
originated in Burgundy, France. The most effective way for a new
California grower to plant a vineyard to produce Burgundy is to
D) graft varietal Burgundy grape scions onto native (Californian) root stocks
47) The most immediate potential benefits of introducing genetically
modified crops include _____.
B) only I, II, III, and IV
48) "Golden Rice" _____.
D) contains daffodil genes that increase vitamin A content
49) Which of the following is a scientific concern related to
creating genetically modified crops?
A) Herbicide resistance may spread to weedy species.
50) Which of the following would be the most problematic for the
natural environment in the development of genetically engineered
D) the creation of transgenic crops that hybridize more easily
51) Fruit ripening represents an example of positive feedback. Which
one of the following statements accurately justifies why the process
of fruit ripening involves positive feedback?
C) Chemical signals initiate a process that triggers enzymatic activity, which involves converting starches into sugars, softening of pulp, and color change of fruit.
52) In order for an ovule (egg cell) in a flower to be fertilized and
form a viable seed, pollination must occur. In this process, a sperm
cell is delivered to the ovule when the pollen grain lands on the
stigma and grows a tube, which enters the ovary and discharges the
sperm cell to form a diploid zygote when it fuses with the egg cell.
Although it only takes one pollen grain to successfully deliver sperm
to the egg, numerous pollen grains are generally transferred to the
stigma during insect pollination of flowering plants. Which phenotypic
traits of pollen would you predict to be selected upon to promote
survival and fitness within an insect-pollinated flowering
A) High pollen tube growth rate and ability to detect chemicals from cells surrounding the egg
53) Many flowering plants coevolve with specific pollinators. The
Madagascar orchid has a 12-inch floral tube and is a reliable nectar
source for the hawkmoth, which has a correspondingly long proboscis
(tongue). Which statement most accurately describes how coevolution
might have occurred for the hawkmoth and Madagascar orchid shown
B) Natural selection would favor orchids with nectar tubes just long enough to for an insect with pollen to make contact. Hawkmoths whose tongue could reach the deep tubes would be more fit.