front 1 1. The three bones of the ankle form a deep socket into which the talus fits. The socket is called the? | back 1 ankle mortise |
front 2 2. The distal tibial joint surface forming the roof of the distal ankle joint is called the? | back 2 Tibial plafond |
front 3 3. The medial malleolus is approximately 1/2 inch posterior to the lateral malleolus. | back 3 False |
front 4 4. The ankle joint is classifies as a synovial joint with _________ type of movement. | back 4 sellar |
front 5 5. The ___ is the weight-bearing bone of the lower leg. | back 5 Tibia |
front 6 6. What is the name of the small prominence located on the posterolateral aspect of the medial condyle of the femur that is an identifying landmark of to determine possible rotation of a lateral knee? | back 6 Adductor tubercle |
front 7 7. What is the name of the large prominence located on the midanterior surface of the proximal tibia that serves as an attachment for the patellar tendon? | back 7 Tibial tuberosity |
front 8 8. A small, triangular depression located on the tibia that helps form the distal tibiofibular joint is called the? | back 8 Fibular notch |
front 9 9. The articular facets of the proximal tibia are also referred to as the? | back 9 tibial plateau |
front 10 10. The articular facets slope is ____ posteriorly | back 10 10 to 15 |
front 11 11. The most proximal aspect of the fibula is the | back 11 Apex of styloid process |
front 12 12. The extreme distal end of the fibula forms the | back 12 lateral malleolus |
front 13 13. Largest sesamoid bone in the body? | back 13 Patella |
front 14 14. What are two other names for the patellar surface of the femur? | back 14 Intercondylar sulcus and trochlear groove. |
front 15 15. What is the name of the depression located on the posterior aspect of the distal femur? | back 15 Intercondylar notch |
front 16 16. Why must the central ray be angled 5 degrees to 7 degrees cephalad for a lateral knee projection. | back 16 Because the medial condyle extends lower than the lateral condyle of the femur. |
front 17 17. The slightly raised area located on the posterolateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle is called | back 17 Adductor tubercle |
front 18 18. What are the palpable bony landmarks found on the distal femur? | back 18 Medial epicondyle and lateral epicondyle |
front 19 19. The general region of the posterior knee is called? | back 19 Popliteal region |
front 20 20.True or false. Flexion of 20 degrees of the knee forces the patella firmly against the patellar surface of the femur | back 20 false |
front 21 21. True or False: The patella acts like a pivot to increase the leverage of a large muscle found in the anterior thigh. | back 21 True |
front 22 22. True or False: The posterior surface of the patella is normally rough | back 22 false |
front 23 23. For which large muscle does the patella serve as a pivot to increase the leverage | back 23 Quadriceps femoris muscle |
front 24 24. Between the patella and distal femur is what joint | back 24 patella femoral |
front 25 25. Between the two condyles of the femur and tibia is what joint | back 25 femorotibial |
front 26 26. Four major ligaments of the knee | back 26 Fibular collateral, Tibial collateral, Anterior cruciate, posterior cruciate. |
front 27 27. The crescent-shaped fibrocartilage disks that act as shock absorbers in the knee joint are called | back 27 medial and lateral menisci |
front 28 28. Two bursa that are found in the knee joint | back 28 Suprapatellar and infrapatellar bursa |
front 29 29. Match the following to the correct bone: tibial plafond | back 29 Tibia |
front 30 30. Match the following to the correct bone: medial malleolus | back 30 Tibia |
front 31 31. Match the following to the correct bone: lateral epicondyle | back 31 Distal femur |
front 32 32. Match the following to the correct bone: Patellar surface | back 32 Distal femur |
front 33 33. Match the following to the correct bone: articular facets | back 33 Tibia |
front 34 34. Match the following to the correct bone: fibular notch | back 34 Tibia |
front 35 35. Match the following to the correct bone: styloid process | back 35 Fibula |
front 36 36. Match the following to the correct bone: base | back 36 Patella |
front 37 37. Match the following to the correct bone: Intercondyloid eminence | back 37 Tibia |
front 38 38. Match the following to the correct bone: Neck | back 38 Fibula |
front 39 39. Match the following articulations to the correct joint classification or movement type: Ankle Joint | back 39 Sellar (saddle) |
front 40 40. Match the following articulations to the correct joint classification or movement type: Patellofemoral | back 40 Sellar (saddle) |
front 41 41. Match the following articulations to the correct joint classification or movement type: Proximal tibiofibular | back 41 Plane (gliding) |
front 42 42. Match the following articulations to the correct joint classification or movement type: Knee joint | back 42 Bicondylar |
front 43 43. Match the following articulations to the correct joint classification or movement type: Distal tibiofibular | back 43 Amphiarthrodial (syndesmosis type) |
front 44 44. True or false: The recommendation SID for lower limb radiography is 40 ich | back 44 True |
front 45 45. True or false: Multiple images can be placed on the same IR when using analog imaging systems. | back 45 True |
front 46 46. T or F: with careful and close collimation, gonadal shielding does not have to be used during lower limb radiography. | back 46 False |
front 47 47. T or F: A kV range between 50 and 70 should be used for analog lower limb radiography. | back 47 True |
front 48 48. T or F: A kV range for digital imaging is typically lower as compared with film-screen ranges. | back 48 False |
front 49 49. Osgood-schlatter disease | back 49 An inflammatory condition involving the anterior, proximal tibia |
front 50 50. Also known as osteitis deformans | back 50 Paget's disease |
front 51 51. Malignant tumor of the cartilage | back 51 chondroscarcoma |
front 52 52. Inherited type of arthritis that commonly affects males | back 52 Gout |
front 53 53. Benign, neoplastic bone lesion caused by overproduction of bone at a joint | back 53 Exostosis |
front 54 54. Benign bone lesion usually developing in teens or young adults | back 54 Osteoid osteoma |
front 55 55. Most prevalent primary bone malignancy in pediatric patients | back 55 Ewing's sarcoma |
front 56 56. Benign, neoplastic bone lesion located between the base of the first and second metatarsal | back 56 Lisfranc joint injury |
front 57 57. condition affecting the sacroiliac joints and lower limbs of young men, especially the posterosuperior margin of the calcaneus | back 57 Reiter's syndrome |
front 58 58. Former name for runners knee | back 58 Chondromalacia patella |
front 59 59. Another term for osteomalacia | back 59 Ricketts |
front 60 60. Asymmetric erosion of joint spaces with a calcaneal erosion | back 60 Reiter's syndrome |
front 61 61. Uric acid deposits in joint spaces | back 61 Gout |
front 62 62. Well-circumscribed lucency | back 62 Bone cyst |
front 63 63. Small, round/oval density with lucent center | back 63 osteoid osteoma |
front 64 64. Narrowed, irregular joint surfaces with sclerotic articular surfaces | back 64 Osteoarthritis |
front 65 65. Fragmentation or detachment of the tibial tuberosity | back 65 Osgood-Schlatter disease |
front 66 66. Ill-defined area of bone destruction with surronding "onion peel" | back 66 Ewing's sarcoma |
front 67 67. Decreased bone density and bowing deformities of weight-bearing limbs | back 67 Osteomalacia |
front 68 68. Which calcaneal structure should appear medially on a well-positioned plantodorsal axial projection? | back 68 Sustentaculum tali |
front 69 69. Where is the central ray placed for a mediolateral projection of the calcaneus? | back 69 1 inch inferior to medial malleolus |
front 70 70. Which joint surface of the ankle is not typically visualized with a correctly positioned AP projection of the ankle | back 70 lateral surface of the joint |
front 71 71. Why should AP, 45 oblique, and lateral ankle radiographs include the proximal metatarsals | back 71 To demonstrate a possible fracture of the fifth metatarsal tuberosity (a common fracture site) |
front 72 72. How much if any should the foot and ankle be rotated for an AP mortise projection of the ankle? | back 72 15 - 20 medially |
front 73 73. Which projection of the ankle best demonstrates a possible fracture of the lateral malleolus | back 73 AP oblique with 45 medial rotation |
front 74 74. With a true lateral projection of the ankle, the lateral malleolus is | back 74 projected over the posterior aspect of the distal tibia |
front 75 75. Which projections of the ankle require forced inversion and eversion movements | back 75 AP stress projections |
front 76 76. What is the basic positioning routine for a study of the tibia and fibula | back 76 AP and lateral |
front 77 77. Why is it important to include the knee joint for an initial study of tibia trauma, even if the patient's symptoms involve the middle and distal aspect | back 77 A fracture may also be present at the proximal fibula in addition to distal |
front 78 78. To include both joints for a lateral projection of the tibia and fibula for an adult, the technologist may place the cassette _____ in relation to the part. | back 78 Diagonal |
front 79 79. What is the recommended central ray angulation for an AP projection of the knee for a patient with thick thighs and buttocks ( greater than 24 cm) | back 79 3 to 5 degrees caudad |
front 80 80. Where is the central ray centered for an AP projection of the knee? | back 80 1/2 inch distal to apex of patella |
front 81 81. Which basic projection of a knee best demonstrates the proximal fibula free of superimposition | back 81 AP oblique, 45 degrees medial rotation |
front 82 82. For the AP oblique projection of the knee, the ____ rotation best visualizes the lateral condyle of the tibia and the head and neck of the fibula | back 82 medial |
front 83 83. What is the recommended central ray placement for a lateral knee position on a tall, slender male patient with a narrow pelvis (without support of the lower leg) | back 83 5 degree cephalad |
front 84 84. How much flexion is recommended for a lateral projection of the knee | back 84 20 - 30 degrees |
front 85 85. Which positioning error is present if the posterior portions of the femoral condyles are not superimposed on a radiograph of a lateral knee on a average patient | back 85 Improper angle of CR |
front 86 86. Which positioning error is present if the posterior portion of the femoral condyles are not superimposed on a lateral knee radiograph | back 86 Over rotation (towards IR) or under rotation of knee (away from IR) |
front 87 87. Which anatomic structures of the femur can be used to determine which rotation error (over rotated or under rotated) is present on a slightly rotated lateral knee radiograph? | back 87 Adductor tubercle on posterior lateral aspect of medial femoral condyle |
front 88 88. Which special projection of the knee best evaluates the knee joint for cartilage degeneration or deformities? | back 88 AP or PA weight bearing knee |
front 89 89. What is the best modality to examine ligament injuries to the knee | back 89 MRI |
front 90 90. Which special projections of the knee best demonstrates the intercondylar fossa? | back 90 Holmblad |
front 91 91. How much flexion of the lower leg is required for the PA axial projection (camp-Coventry method) when the central ray is angled 40 degrees caudad | back 91 40 degree flexion |
front 92 92. Why is the PA axial projection for the intercondylar fossa recommended instead of an AP axial projection? | back 92 Distortion caused by central ray angle and increased OID for AP axial projection. |
front 93 93. What type of CR angulation is required for the PA axial weight-bearing projection (Rosenberg method) | back 93 10 degrees caudad |
front 94 94. How much flexion of the knees is required for the PA axial weight-bearing projection (Rosenberg method) | back 94 45 degrees |
front 95 95. How much knee flexion is required for the PA axial projection (Holmblad method) | back 95 60-70 degrees |
front 96 96. What type of CR angle is required for the PA axial (Holmblad method) | back 96 None. CR is perpendicular to IR |
front 97 97. T or F: To place the interepicondylar line parallel to the IR for a PA projection of the patella, the lower limb must be rotated approximately 5 degrees internally. | back 97 True |
front 98 98. How much part flexion is recommended for a lateral projection of the patella | back 98 5-10 degrees |
front 99 99. How much central ray angle from the long axis of the femora is required for a tangential (merchant method) bilateral projection | back 99 30 degrees from horizontal |
front 100 100. How much part flexion is required for the (Hughston method) | back 100 55 degrees |
front 101 101. How much part flexion is required for the (Settegast method) | back 101 90 degrees |
front 102 102. What type of CR angle is required for the superoinferior sitting tangential method for the patella? | back 102 None. CR is perpendicular to IR |
front 103 103. Knee projection that can be performed using a wheelchair or lowered radiographic table | back 103 Holmblad method |
front 104 104. Knee projection with the patient prone; requires 90 knee flexion | back 104 Settegast method |
front 105 105. Knee projection with patient prone with 40 to 50 degree knee flexion and with equal 40 to 50 degree caudad CR angle | back 105 Camp Coventry method |
front 106 106. Knee projection when the IR is placed on a footstool to minimize OID | back 106 Hobbs modification |
front 107 107. Knee projection with the patient prone with 55 degree knee flexion and 15 degree to 20 degree CR angle from long axis of lower leg. | back 107 Hughston method |
front 108 108. Knee projection with patient supine with cassette resting on midthighs | back 108 Inferosuperior for patellofemoral joint |
front 109 109. Knee projection with patient supine with 40 degree knee flexion and with 30 degree caudad CR angle from horizontal | back 109 Merchant method |
front 110 110. Which of the following special projections of the knee must be performed erect. Rosenberg method Settegast method Camp-Coventry method Hughston Method | back 110 Resenburg method |
front 111 111. How much knee flexion is required for the horizontal beam lateral patella projection | back 111 None |
front 112 112. A lateral knee radiograph that is overrotated toward the image receptor can be recognized by what? | back 112 The fibular head will appear less superimposed by the tibia than a true lateral. |
front 113 113.What CR angle should be used for a lateral projection of the knee on a short, wide-pelvis patient | back 113 7-10 degrees cephalad |
front 114 114. Which special position of the knee requires that the patient be placed supine with 40° flexion of knee with CR angled 30 degrees from long axis of femur? | back 114 bilateral merchant method |
front 115 115. The posterior visibility of the adductor tubercle on a lateral knee projection indicates: | back 115 underrotation of knee toward the IR. |
front 116 116. Situation: A radiograph of a lateral projection of the patella reveals that the femoropatellar joint space is not open. The patella is within the intercondylar sulcus. The most likely cause of this is: | back 116 excessive flexion of knee |
front 117 117. Situation: A radiograph of an AP knee reveals rotation with almost total superimposition of the fibular head and the proximal tibia. What must the technologist do to correct this positioning error on the repeat exposure? | back 117 rotate knee slightly medial |
front 118 118. Situation: A radiograph of a PA axial projection for the intercondylar fossa does not demonstrate the fossa well. It is foreshortened. The following positioning factors were used: patient prone, knee flexed 40 to 45, CR angled to be perpendicular to the femur, 40-inch SID, and no rotation of the lower limb. Based on the factors used, what changes need to be made to produce a more diagnostic image? | back 118 CR must be perpendicular to lower leg |
front 119 119. Situation: A radiograph of a AP mortise projection of the ankle reveals that the lateral malleolus is slightly superimposed over the talus and the lateral joint space is not open. What is most likely the cause for this radiographic outcome? | back 119 insufficient medial rotation of foot and ankle |
front 120 120. Situation: A patient comes to radiology with a clinical history of osteoarthritis of both knees. The referring physician wants a projection to evaluate the damage to the articular facets. Which of the following projections will provide the best image of this region of the knee? | back 120 PA axial weight-bearing bilateral knee projection (Rosenberg method) |
front 121 121. Situation: A geriatric patient comes to the radiology department for a study of the knee. The patient is unsteady and unsure of himself. Which intercondylar fossa projection would provide the best results without risk of injury to the patient? | back 121 camp-coventry method |
front 122 122. Situation: A patient comes to radiology with a history of chondromalacia of the patella. Her physician orders a projection of the patellofemoral joint space. Due to advanced emphysema, the patient cannot lie recumbent for this projection. Which of the following projections would be best for this patient? | back 122 Superoinferior sitting tangential method |
front 123 123. For the AP weight-bearing knee projection on an average patient, the CR should be: | back 123 perpendicular to image receptor |
front 124 124. Which of the following projections of the patella requires the patient to be placed in a prone position, a 45° flexion of the knee, and a 15° to 20° angle of the CR? | back 124 hughston method |
front 125 125. Which of the following knee projection requires the use of a special IR holding device? | back 125 bilateral merchant method |