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A&P 2 Semester study guide for Final

front 1

A person with no antibodies in the blood plasma would have which type blood?

back 1

Type AB

front 2

A person with only antibody B in his or her plasma would have which blood type?

back 2

Type A

front 3

Which of the following is not true of hemoglobin?

back 3

It is composed of four heme molecules joined to one globin molecule.

front 4

This substance dissolves blood clots.

back 4

Plasmin

front 5

Which of the following cell types has the main function of carrying oxygen?

back 5

Erythrocyte

front 6

What substance does not assist in the formation of a blood clot?

back 6

Plasmin

front 7

A normal adult red blood cell count ranges from?

back 7

4.8 to 5.5 million/cubic mm.

front 8

What substance involved in the process of blood clot formation is not made by the liver?

back 8

Vitamin K

front 9

Which of the following Rh-factor combinations could cause agglutination of an infant’s red blood cells?

back 9

Mother–, father+, infant+

front 10

A person with no antigens on the red blood cell would have which blood type?

back 10

Type O

front 11

Which characteristic of blood makes it especially effective in temperature regulation?

back 11

High specific heat capacity

front 12

Blood volume per kilogram of body weight varies inversely with

back 12

body fat.

front 13

A hematocrit value of 42% would be?

back 13

The average for a woman.

front 14

Under the microscope, erythrocytes appear as?

back 14

biconcave disks without nuclei.

front 15

Which is not an end product of the breakdown of hemoglobin?

back 15

Free oxygen

front 16

Which of the following is an anticoagulant?

back 16

Heparin

front 17

What part of the hemoglobin molecule combines with carbon dioxide?

back 17

Globin

front 18

Which mature cell has no nucleus, mitochondria, or ribosomes?

back 18

Erythrocyte

front 19

If you give a “unit” of blood in a blood drive and you are an average-sized adult, you have given about what percent of your blood?

back 19

10%

front 20

Calcium is used in the clotting process during?

back 20

The formation of thrombin.

front 21

Thrombocytes are used for?

back 21

Blood Clotting

front 22

In each red blood cell, there are about this many molecules of hemoglobin.

back 22

200 to 300 million

front 23

Christopher, a 2-month-old infant, has a bluish tinge to his skin. Upon listening to the infant’s chest, the physician became concerned about a leakage of blood between the right and left atria. What might have caused this problem and what is the treatment?

back 23

The foramen ovale may not be closed, causing backflow of blood into the lungs. The physician will reexamine the infant frequently because the foramen ovale may take as long as 9 months to heal.

front 24

Which of the following is not true of the atria?

back 24

They are the same structure as the auricle.

front 25

If the AV node were forced to assume pacemaker activity, what would be the resulting pulse rate?

back 25

40 to 60 beats per minute

front 26

Which of the following is true of the conduction system of the heart?

back 26

It is made of cardiac muscle.

front 27

A blood clot in the first vessel branching from the aortic arch would affect the?

back 27

right side of the head and neck and the right arm.

front 28

The Fick formula is used for determining:

back 28

cardiac output.

front 29

If the chordae tendineae in the right side of the heart were damaged, it might cause blood to leak into the:

back 29

right atrium during heart contraction.

front 30

How would relocating a vein for the purpose of bypassing a partial blockage in the coronary arteries support a better functioning heart?

back 30

It would construct detours around blocked coronary arteries and return oxygen-rich blood flow to the coronary arteries.

front 31

The greatest drop in blood pressure occurs across the?

back 31

arterioles.

front 32

The thickest layer of tissue in the heart wall is the?

back 32

myocardium.

front 33

The order of blood flow through the vessels is?

back 33

arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins.

front 34

In fetal circulation, the ductus venosus?

back 34

bypasses the liver.

front 35

Respectively, the right and left atrioventricular valves are also known as:

back 35

tricuspid, mitral.

front 36

Which of the following factors would cause fluid to leave the blood vessel at the arterial end of the capillary?

back 36

High hydrostatic pressure of the blood

front 37

All arteries of the systemic circulation branch from the?

back 37

aorta.

front 38

Which of the following vessels carries blood from the lungs to the heart?

back 38

Pulmonary vein

front 39

All of the following will increase heart rate except:

back 39

stimulation of cold receptors in the skin.

front 40

The palmar arches are branches of the:

back 40

radial and ulnar arteries.

front 41

The pulmonary arteries carry blood to the?

back 41

lungs.

front 42

Which of the following act as blood reservoirs?

back 42

Veins

front 43

Why is the anatomy of the circle of Willis an advantageous anatomical configuration?

back 43

It serves an important protective function by providing detour routes for blood to travel in the event of obstruction of a main artery.

front 44

The QRS complex represents?

back 44

repolarization of the atria and depolarization of the ventricles.

front 45

Minute volume is equal to the?

back 45

pressure gradient divided by the resistance.

front 46

In the cardiac cycle, the R wave is recorded on an ECG during:

back 46

isovolumetric contraction.

front 47

Which describes the role of surfactant in the respiratory system?

back 47

Surfactant helps reduce surface tension within the alveoli, thus preventing each alveolus from collapsing as air moves in and out during respiration.

front 48

The upper respiratory tract includes all of the following structures except the?

back 48

trachea.

front 49

Normal, quiet breathing is known as?

back 49

eupnea.

front 50

Which pair of tonsils is located in the nasopharynx?

back 50

Pharyngeal tonsils

front 51

The smallest branches of the bronchial tree are?

back 51

bronchioles.

front 52

Which of the following is not a true statement?

back 52

Raising the ribs decreases the depth and width of the thorax.

front 53

The apneustic center is located in what part of the nervous system?

back 53

Pons

front 54

By the time the blood leaves the lung capillaries to return to the heart, what percentage of the blood’s hemoglobin has united with oxygen?

back 54

97%

front 55

For purposes of study, the respiratory system can be divided into two parts?

back 55

Upper respiratory tract and lower respiratory tract

front 56

The respiratory portion of the nasal passage is lined with a mucous membrane made up of?

back 56

pseudostratified columnar epithelium.

front 57

If anything decreases alveolar PO2, how does that affect the alveolar-blood oxygen pressure gradient?

back 57

Anything that decreases alveolar PO2 tends to decrease the alveolar-blood oxygen pressure gradient and, therefore, tends to decrease the amount of oxygen entering the blood.

front 58

The small, leaf-shaped cartilage behind the tongue and hyoid bone is the?

back 58

epiglottis.

front 59

Which of the following is true of the cribriform plate?

back 59

It separates the nasal and cranial cavities.

front 60

Which pressure is greatest?

back 60

Intraalveolar pressure after expiration

front 61

Which of the following is not a means of transporting oxygen in the blood?

back 61

Combined with the bicarbonate ion (HCO3–)

front 62

Which of these is not an opening in the pharynx?

back 62

Trachea

front 63

Which of the following is not lined with a ciliated mucous membrane?

back 63

Vestibule

front 64

Each hemoglobin molecule can carry how many oxygen molecules?

back 64

Four

front 65

Internal respiration can be defined as?

back 65

he exchange of gases between the blood capillaries and the tissues cells.

front 66

The function of the vibrissae in the vestibule is to?

back 66

provide an initial “filter” to screen particulate matter from air that is entering the system.

front 67

Vital capacity is defined as the?

back 67

maximum volume of air that can be moved into and out of the lungs during forced respiration.

front 68

What aspects of the structure of lung tissue make efficient gas exchange possible?

back 68

The enormous surface area and the respiratory membrane, where the very thin-walled alveoli and equally thin-walled pulmonary capillaries make possible extremely rapid diffusion of gases between alveolar air and pulmonary capillary blood

front 69

Which of the following combinations in arterial blood could cause an increase in the respiratory rate?

back 69

Increased PCO2, decreased arterial pressure, decreased pH, decreased PO2

front 70

Which statement explains what happens to toxic substances after detoxification by liver cells?

back 70

They are changed into nontoxic compounds by a series of chemical reactions.

front 71

Polysaccharides are hydrolyzed into disaccharides by enzymes known as?

back 71

amylase.

front 72

Bile salts aid in the absorption of?

back 72

Fats

front 73

The disaccharide maltose is made up of which two saccharide units?

back 73

Glucose and glucose

front 74

The lamina propria is found in which level of the GI wall?

back 74

Mucosa

front 75

The greatest proportion of the tooth shell consists of?

back 75

dentin.

front 76

Which monosaccharide is found in all three of the most common disaccharides?

back 76

Glucose

front 77

Gastric juice contains all the following substances except?

back 77

enterokinase.

front 78

Surgical removal of the gallbladder is referred to as?

back 78

cholecystectomy.

front 79

Why can it be said that absorption is the reason for digestion?

back 79

Even though digestion includes the processes of mechanical and chemical breakdown of ingested food, the optimum goal of digestion is to absorb nutrients.

front 80

Which of the following structures is not used to block an opening during swallowing?

back 80

Glottis

front 81

The end product of amylase digestion is?

back 81

Maltose

front 82

Pancreatic juice contains all the following substances except?

back 82

pepsinogen.

front 83

Saliva contains all of the following substances except?

back 83

intrinsic factor.

front 84

In the stomach, hydrochloric acid is secreted by the?

back 84

parietal cells.

front 85

Which of the following is not a function of the stomach?

back 85

It begins the absorption of proteins.

front 86

Which of the following is not a function of the liver?

back 86

Answer: Stores bile

The liver makes bile the gallbladder stores bile.

front 87

Which of the following organs is classified as a dual gland (both exocrine and endocrine)?

back 87

Pancreas

front 88

The purpose of peristalsis is to?

back 88

propel food forward along the GI tract.

front 89

Which of the following is not a division of the stomach?

back 89

Rugae

front 90

Which of the following is not true of enzymes?

back 90

They change chemically and are in the end products of the reaction.

front 91

The movement of molecules out of the tubules and into the peritubular blood defines?

back 91

reabsorption.

front 92

Which blood vessel drains the vasa recta?

back 92

Interlobular vein

front 93

The substance most often measured to determine normal kidney function is:

back 93

creatinine.

front 94

If the glomerular hydrostatic pressure = 67 mm Hg, the glomerular osmotic pressure = 28 mm Hg, the capsular hydrostatic pressure = 17 mm Hg, and the capsular osmotic pressure = 0 mm Hg, the effective filtration pressure (EFP) would be?

back 94

22 mm Hg.

front 95

Within the male urethra, how is urine prevented from mixing with semen during ejaculation?

back 95

Urine is prevented from mixing with semen during ejaculation by a reflex closure of sphincter muscles guarding the bladder opening.

front 96

Filtrate in which part of the nephron tubule has the highest osmolality?

back 96

Descending loop of Henle

front 97

Which of the following substances is released by the juxtaglomerular cells?

back 97

Renin

front 98

Which of the following is not true of sodium chloride (NaCl)?

back 98

It has the same type of bonds as glucose.

front 99

The subfornical organ is located in what part of the central nervous system?

back 99

Roof of the third ventricle of the brain

front 100

Which large molecules are retained by the selectively permeable cell membrane?

back 100

Proteins

front 101

The portion of the nephron tubule that is essentially always impermeable to water is the?

back 101

ascending loop of Henle.

front 102

When the effective filtration pressure equals zero?

back 102

no net transfer of water occurs between blood and interstitial fluid.

front 103

If two electrodes charged with a weak current were placed in a solution of NaCl, the negative electrode would attract the

back 103

Sodium ion.

front 104

Which of the following is not a method used for parenteral administration?

back 104

By mouth

front 105

In which parts of the nephron do all of the following functions occur: passive reabsorption, active reabsorption, passive secretion, and active secretion?

back 105

Collecting duct and the distal tubule

front 106

he percentage of water in urine is approximately?

back 106

95%

front 107

In the average bladder, what amount of urine would cause a moderately distended sensation and the desire to void?

back 107

250 ml

front 108

If two electrodes charged with a weak current were placed in a solution of NaCl, the positive electrode would attract?

back 108

chloride ions.

front 109

Which best explains why a person who has uncontrolled diabetes mellitus voids a large amount of urine?

back 109

Excess glucose “spills over” into urine, thereby increasing the solute concentration of urine (and decreasing the solute concentration of plasma), which in turn leads to diuresis.

front 110

Which of the following is not a cause of hypervolemia?

back 110

Ascites

front 111

If a solution of sodium (Na+, atomic weight = 23) and a solution of calcium (Ca2+, atomic weight = 40) had equal mg%, what would be the mEq/L of each?

back 111

The mEq/L of calcium would be about twice that of sodium.

front 112

If the Tmax for glucose in the nephron was 300 mg/100 ml and a person had a blood glucose level of 380 mg/100 ml, there would be?

back 112

80 mg/100 ml of glucose in the urine.

front 113

Which is the best explanation of how a white blood cell ingests and destroys a microorganism?

back 113

The white blood cell engulfs the microorganism and then lysosomal enzymes destroy it.

front 114

The high concentration of protein in the thoracic duct results from the protein-rich lymph that drains from the:

back 114

Liver

front 115

The type of immune mechanism that provides a general defense by acting against anything recognized as “not self” is called:

back 115

nonspecific immunity.

front 116

A type of blood cell produced by lymph nodes is called an?

back 116

monocyte.

front 117

Which of the following is not a lymph organ?

back 117

Pancreas

front 118

How do the reticuloendothelial cells compare to white blood cells as a defense against infection?

back 118

Reticuloendothelial cells (macrophages) lining the spleen remove microorganisms from the blood and destroy them by phagocytosis in a fashion similar to that of white blood cells.

front 119

Which substance can destroy pathogens by lowering the pH to a level at which they cannot function?

back 119

Hydrochloric acid

front 120

Why is having an understanding of the lymphatic drainage of the breast important in formulating the diagnosis and treatment of breast cancer?

back 120

A single cell of a primary cancer tumor can spread to other areas of the body through the lymphatic system and cause metastasis.

front 121

The antibody associated with allergic reaction is?

back 121

IgE

front 122

Which is a logical conclusion that could be made regarding a decrease in blood protein in the bloodstream and viscosity of blood?

back 122

A decrease in blood protein concentration tends to decrease blood viscosity.

front 123

The antibody normally constituting the highest percentage of antibodies in the blood is:

back 123

IgG

front 124

Which would you predict would occur if a disease blocked the flow of lymph?

back 124

The liver might become enlarged or lymphedema may occur.

front 125

____ of the lymph from the breast enters the lymph nodes of the axillary region.

back 125

More than 85%

front 126

Which is the most accurate outline of the primary principle of circulation as related to Newton’s first and second laws of motion?

back 126

The first law states that a fluid does not flow when the pressure is the same in all parts of it. The second law states that a fluid flows only when the pressure is higher in one area than in another and it flows always from the higher pressure area toward the lower pressure area.

front 127

When a patient starts to have rejection problems with a transplanted organ, the problems are usually caused by:

back 127

human leukocyte antigens (HALs).

front 128

Relative to the rest of the body, the thymus is largest at:

back 128

20 years of age.

front 129

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) invades and kills ____ first.

back 129

helper T cells

front 130

An immunoglobulin, or antibody molecule, consists of?

back 130

Two heavy and two light polypeptide chains.

front 131

The size of lymph nodes varies from?

back 131

1 mm to more than 20 mm in diameter

front 132

The part of the antibody that combines with the antigen is the?

back 132

variable region.

front 133

Which of the following is not part of the lymphatic system?

back 133

Thyroid

front 134

Which of the following is not true of lymph nodes?

back 134

They have one afferent vessel.

front 135

Which of the following does not describe phagocytosis?

back 135

A major component of the body’s third line of defense

front 136

The medulla of the ovary contains?

back 136

blood vessels and lymphatics

front 137

The follicular phase of the menstrual cycle is the same as the?

back 137

postmenstrual phase.

front 138

Some home pregnancy tests measure the amount of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in a woman’s urine. What structure produces hCG and why?

back 138

hCG is produced by placental tissue early in pregnancy to maintain estrogen and progesterone secretion by the corpus luteum, preventing menstruation and promoting maintenance of the uterine lining

front 139

As part of the maturation process, sperm will stay in the epididymis for?

back 139

1 to 3 weeks

front 140

The main factor determining male fertility is the:

back 140

number of sperm ejaculated.

front 141

Which of the following do not develop from granulosa cells?

back 141

Tunica albuginea

front 142

The temperature required for sperm production is about?

back 142

3 degrees below normal body temperature.

front 143

Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases is caused by a virus?

back 143

Hepatitis

front 144

What reproductive duct is divided into the head, body, and tail?

back 144

Epididymis

front 145

The function of Reinke crystalloids in the Leydig cells is?

back 145

uncertain at this time.

front 146

Each of the following is a duct in the male reproductive system except:

back 146

inguinal canal.

front 147

Fertilization of an ovum most often occurs in the:

back 147

fallopian tube.

front 148

The layer that is incomplete because it covers none of the cervix and only part of the body is called the?

back 148

parietal peritoneum.

front 149

Which of the following statements is not true about the mechanism controlling lactation?

back 149

Prolactin stimulates the ejection of milk into the ducts of the mammary glands.

front 150

The opening of the urethra at the tip of the glans is called the?

back 150

external urinary meatus.

front 151

At puberty, the reproductive hormones stimulate the organs of the reproductive tract. Which statement best describe what happens to the ovaries at this time?

back 151

The ovaries become functional and produce mature ova one at a time.

front 152

Functional sterility results when the sperm count per milliliter falls below which number?

back 152

25 Million

front 153

Which of the following ligaments does not assist in holding the ovaries in place?

back 153

Round ligament

front 154

The number of spermatids formed by one primary spermatocyte is?

back 154

4

front 155

Normally, capacitation occurs in sperm?

back 155

after they have been introduced into the female’s vagina.

front 156

Sertoli cells is another name for?

back 156

sustentacular cells.

front 157

Testosterone:

back 157

helps regulate metabolism and stimulates protein anabolism.

front 158

Which of the following is not a function of the Sertoli cells?

back 158

They produce testosterone.

front 159

What reproductive duct is a short tube about 1 cm long that passes through the prostate gland to terminate in the urethra?

back 159

Ejaculatory duct

front 160

Birth weight generally doubles during the first?

back 160

4 months and then triples by 1 year.

front 161

A condition in which the placenta separates from the uterine wall is called?

back 161

abruptio placentae.

front 162

The normal phenomenon of “crossing over” occurs?

back 162

during meiosis I.

front 163

Which of the following conditions associated with the eye does not directly involve the lens?

back 163

Glaucoma

front 164

The structure known as the “bag of waters” is the?

back 164

amniotic cavity.

front 165

Fraternal twins have?

back 165

have two placentas.

front 166

In the female reproductive system, which of the following does not assist the sperm in reaching the egg?

back 166

Polar bodies produced by the egg

front 167

The condition caused by buildup of fatty deposits in blood vessel walls is?

back 167

atherosclerosis.

front 168

Which of the following is not a function of the placenta?

back 168

Barrier to alcohol

front 169

The sequence of early development of the fetus is?

back 169

zygote, morula, and blastocyst.

front 170

Fertilization takes place in the?

back 170

uterine tube.

front 171

In the human, the diploid number of chromosomes is?

back 171

46

front 172

The solid mass of cells formed when the zygote begins to divide is called the?

back 172

morula.

front 173

If the process of oogenesis goes to completion, how many polar bodies will be produced?

back 173

3

front 174

The early embryo has stem cells referred to as?

back 174

totipotent.

front 175

The second stage of labor is the?

back 175

period from the time of maximal cervical dilation until the baby exits through the vagina.

front 176

Only about what percent of the sperm deposited in the female reproductive tract actually reach the ovum?

back 176

Less than 0.1%

front 177

After puberty, about how many primary oocytes resume meioses each month?

back 177

1,000

front 178

The term used for the fertilized ovum is?

back 178

zygote.

front 179

Which of the following hormones is not produced by the placenta?

back 179

FSH

front 180

Which of the following structures is not formed by the ectoderm?

back 180

Dermis of the skin

front 181

A nonfunctioning yolk sac could hinder the fetus in

back 181

producing blood cells.

front 182

In a tube of centrifuged blood, the order of substances from top to bottom would be?

back 182

plasma, buffy coat, red blood cells.

front 183

If you give a “unit” of blood in a blood drive and you are an average-sized adult, you have given about what percent of your blood?

back 183

10%

front 184

A person with no antibodies in the blood plasma would have which blood type?

back 184

Type AB

front 185

In the formation of blood cells, the megakaryocyte ultimately forms?

back 185

platelets.

front 186

If the tidal volume were 600 ml, the alveolar ventilation would be about?

back 186

400 ml

front 187

Air inhaled through the mouth would be?

back 187

dirtier than air inhaled through the nose.

front 188

Each hemoglobin molecule can carry how many carbon dioxide molecules?

back 188

Four

front 189

n the right lung, the superior and middle lobes are separated by the?

back 189

horizontal fissure.

front 190

Which gas law deals with the solubility of gases in solution?

back 190

Henry

front 191

Which of the following is not a subdivision of the thoracic cavity?

back 191

Medial pleural division

front 192

Which of the following is not a true statement?

back 192

Raising the ribs decreases the depth and width of the thorax.

front 193

A drop in the body’s production of carbonic anhydrase would?

back 193

hinder the formation of carbonic acid.

front 194

The eustachian tube connects the middle ear with the?

back 194

nasopharynx.

front 195

Which statement differentiates between the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the larynx, and explains which one moves the larynx?

back 195

Intrinsic muscles have both their origin and insertion on the larynx, whereas extrinsic muscles insert on the larynx but have their origin on some other structure; contraction of the extrinsic muscles actually moves or displaces the larynx as a whole.

front 196

Normal, quiet breathing is known as?

back 196

eupnea.

front 197

Which of the following combinations in arterial blood could cause an increase in the respiratory rate?

back 197

Increased PCO2, decreased arterial pressure, decreased pH, decreased PO2

front 198

Which of the following is not part of the vasomotor control mechanism?

back 198

Sympathetic stimulation of the heart to increase cardiac output

front 199

The period of time during which blood is moved out of the atria and into the ventricles is called?

back 199

atrial systole.

front 200

The pulse in the wrist is felt over which artery?

back 200

Radial

front 201

Which part of the heart conduction system is referred to as the pacemaker?

back 201

Sinoatrial node

front 202

What is the functional significance of large areas of cardiac muscle being electrically coupled to form a single functional syncytium?

back 202

Because they form a syncytium, muscle cells can pass an action potential along a large area or the heart wall, stimulating contraction in each muscle fiber of the syncytium.

front 203

When you take a blood pressure reading, the first sound that you hear (top reading) is the?

back 203

systolic sound, indicating the contraction of the ventricles.

front 204

Which of the following is a stretching of the artery walls?

back 204

Aneurysm

front 205

Which of the following is not true of the myocardium?

back 205

The muscle cells can quickly summate contractions to produce tetanus.

front 206

he pulse in the neck is felt over which artery?

back 206

Common carotid

front 207

On an ECG, the T wave represents?

back 207

repolarization of the ventricles.

front 208

Which of the following events will tend to cause a decrease in blood viscosity?

back 208

Marked anemia

front 209

Which of the following is not true of the baroreceptors?

back 209

They are sensitive to changes in the oxygen content of the blood.

front 210

The greatest drop in blood pressure occurs across the?

back 210

arterioles.

front 211

The internal layer of tissue in the heart is the?

back 211

endocardium.

front 212

Which of the following vessels carries blood from the lungs to the heart?

back 212

Pulmonary vein

front 213

An end product of the action of the enzyme phospholipase is?

back 213

A free fatty acid.

front 214

Which of the following salivary glands produces only a mucus type of saliva?

back 214

Sublinguals

front 215

The major final product that results from the digestion of carbohydrates is?

back 215

Glucose

front 216

Phagocytic cells lining liver sinusoids are called?

back 216

Kupffer cells

front 217

The hormone that stimulates the gallbladder to release bile is?

back 217

cholecystokinin-pancreozymin.

front 218

Which of the following structures is not used to block an opening during swallowing?

back 218

Glottis

front 219

The hormone glucagon is produced by?

back 219

alpha cells.

front 220

In the stomach, hydrochloric acid is secreted by the?

back 220

parietal cells.

front 221

Rotavirus can cause what life-threatening condition in infants?

back 221

Diarrhea

front 222

Which structure helps anchor the tongue to the floor of the mouth?

back 222

The frenulum

front 223

Bile salts aid in the absorption of?

back 223

Fats

front 224

The right angle formed by the transverse colon and the descending colon is called the?

back 224

splenic flexure.

front 225

Pancreatic juice contains all the following substances except?

back 225

pepsinogen.

front 226

Hydrochloric acid is released from cells in the?

back 226

stomach.