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Chapter 21 - Orthopedic Surgery

front 1

Which mineral is stored in the bones and constantly being removed to maintain necessary blood levels?

back 1

Calcium

front 2

Which of the following is a long bone that is the largest in the human body?

back 2

Femur

front 3

Which bone is the largest found in the foot and is commonly called the heel?

back 3

Calcaneus

front 4

What is a serious bone infection that may result from a compound fracture and become chronic later?

back 4

Osteomyelitis

front 5

Where is the area of active bone growth?

back 5

epiphyseal plate

front 6

What is the name of a nonpathological small sac that contains synovial fluid?

back 6

Bursa

front 7

What type of bone is the patella?

back 7

Sesamoid

front 8

What is the medical term for spongy bone?

back 8

Cancellous

front 9

What is the outside covering of bones that provides some nourishment and protection from infection?

back 9

Periosteum

front 10

In adults, red bone marrow that produces red blood cells is mainly found in which type(s) of bone?

back 10

flat and irregular

front 11

The elbow is categorized as which type of joint?

back 11

Diarthrosis

front 12

The connections between the large bones of the skull are categorized as which type of joint?

back 12

Synarthrosis

front 13

Which joint is an example of a condyloid joint?

back 13

Temporomandibular

front 14

The proximal end of the radius and C1 on C2 vertebrae are examples of which type of diarthrosis?

back 14

Pivot

front 15

Which joint is an example of a ball-and-socket joint?

back 15

Femoroacetabular

front 16

What is the term for small, loose bodies in the knee that are constant irritants and may cause excess synovial production, pain, and locking up?

back 16

joint mice

front 17

In which joint would a bucket handle tear be found?

back 17

Knee

front 18

Hallus valgus is a condition in which there is a turning outward from the midline found in the:

back 18

great toe

front 19

Which condition is commonly known as "bowlegged"?

back 19

genu varum

front 20

Which of the following means a partial separation or dislocation of a joint without any break in the skin?

back 20

Subluxation

front 21

Which type of fracture is characterized as partial and may result from activities such as jumping or jogging?

back 21

Greenstick

front 22

Which of the following describes the appearance of a stellate bone fracture?

back 22

asterisk ( * )

front 23

Which medical term means moving a body part away from the midline?

back 23

Abduction

front 24

The action of pointing and putting a toe in the water to check the temperature would be an example of which movement?

back 24

plantar flexion

front 25

Which of the following factors related to bone growth and maintenance is responsible for mineral storage and utilization?

back 25

Hormonal

front 26

Which of the following pathologies is related to a specific autoimmune process that attacks the joints in the body?

back 26

rheumatoid arthritis

front 27

What is the medical term for a bony prominence projecting from a bone, as in a bunion?

back 27

Exostosis

front 28

What is the term for the softening of bone in children that is commonly called rickets?

back 28

Osteomalacia

front 29

How many stages are involved in normal osteogenesis?

back 29

Five

front 30

In which stage of normal bone healing is there bridging of the fracture site, and cartilage and immature bone provide support?

back 30

callus formation

front 31

Which of the following is an acute, emergent condition of compression of neural and vascular structures, usually occurring in the upper and lower extremities following traumatic fractures?

back 31

compartmental syndrome

front 32

The term C-arm refers to a(n):

back 32

fluoroscopic machine

front 33

Which of the following would be increased on a serum analysis and indicative of a malignant neoplasm of bone marrow?

back 33

Bence Jones protein

front 34

Which orthopedic instrument has the appearance of a turkey foot or eagle's talon?

back 34

Lowman bone holder

front 35

Surgeons may call both Bennett and Hohmann retractors by which other name because of their shapes?

back 35

Cobra

front 36

Which device is sometimes used for achieving and maintaining the lateral position?

back 36

vacuum beanbag

front 37

Which positioning device is frequently used for femoral nailing with leg traction and allows for placement of the C-arm?

back 37

fracture table

front 38

What is achieved by wrapping an extremity with an Esmarch bandage prior to inflation of pneumatic tourniquet?

back 38

Exsanguinations

front 39

Which of the following statements regarding generally safe continuous tourniquet inflation time is CORRECT?

back 39

lower extremity = 1 1/2 hours; upper extremity = 1 hour

front 40

Whose instructions for cleaning, lubricating, and sterilizing powered orthopedic instrumentation must be followed?

back 40

Manufacturer

front 41

Which component of an arthroscopy system is specific to orthopedics and differs from most laparoscopy/MIS systems?

back 41

powered shaving system

front 42

Which agency requires the documentation and tracking of implantable orthopedic devices?

back 42

FDA

front 43

Which type of suture would be contraindicated for attaching tendon to bone?

back 43

polyglactin 910 (Vicryl)

front 44

What is polymethyl methycrylate used for in orthopedic procedures?

back 44

bone cement

front 45

Which bone is commonly referred to as the collarbone?

back 45

Clavicle

front 46

The acromion process involved in the acromioclavicular joint is part of which of the following bones?

back 46

Scapula

front 47

The infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis, and supraspinatus muscles collectively comprise the:

back 47

rotator cuff

front 48

Which of the following joints has the greatest range of motion?

back 48

Glenohumeral

front 49

Which of the following is the longest bone in the upper extremity?

back 49

Humerus

front 50

What is the name of a small protuberance of a bone that is an attachment point for muscles or tendons?

back 50

Tubercle

front 51

Which medium is frequently used in arthroscopies where the ESU may be used for hemostasis?

back 51

lactated Ringer's

front 52

Which instrument is used frequently in arthroscopies to examine and manipulate internal structures?

back 52

blunt probe

front 53

A Bankart avulsion lesion involves which anatomical structure(s)?

back 53

labrum (cartilage)

front 54

Surgical repair for recurrent anterior shoulder dislocation include all of the following EXCEPT:

back 54

Colles'

front 55

Patients diagnosed with shoulder impingement syndrome would likely undergo:

back 55

acromioplasty

front 56

What should the surgical technologist do while the surgeon is using the oscillating saw during open acromioplasty?

back 56

Drip small amounts of irrigation onto blade to prevent overheating.

front 57

Axillary nerve injury or detachment of the deltoid from the acromion are:

back 57

serious post-op complications of open acromioplasty

front 58

All of the following are indications for total shoulder arthroplasty EXCEPT:

back 58

moderate impingement syndrome

front 59

Which instrument is used to remove marrow from the canal of long bones for placement of prostheses?

back 59

intramedullary reamer

front 60

Which bone is involved in a Colles' fracture?

back 60

Radius

front 61

What is a common surgical approach for Colles' fracture?

back 61

external fixation

front 62

Which method of reducing a fracture carries the highest potential for surgical site infection?

back 62

open reduction, internal fixation for compound comminuted fracture

front 63

Which of the following is NOT a bone of the pelvis?

back 63

Femur

front 64

What is the name of the deep, round fossa of the hip joint?

back 64

Acetabulum

front 65

Which portion of the femur articulates with the acetabulum?

back 65

Head

front 66

A common system of instrumentation for open reduction of hip fractures is DHS, which stands for:

back 66

dynamic hip screw

front 67

Which positioning device will be used for ORIF of intertrochanteric femoral fracture?

back 67

fracture table

front 68

Patients in which age group are MOST commonly candidates for total hip arthroplasty?

back 68

over 65 years

front 69

Which additional PPE is frequently worn by sterile team members during total joint procedures to prevent possible SSI?

back 69

space suit or body exhaust suits

front 70

Which of the following is a commonly used self-retaining retractor used in total hip arthroplasty procedures?

back 70

Charnley

front 71

What tissue does the acetabular reamer remove?

back 71

Cartilage

front 72

What should the surgical technologist have ready to clean bone or tissue from a rongeur?

back 72

lap sponges

front 73

Which of the following demonstrates the correct order of steps for femoral canal preparation during total hip arthroplasty?

back 73

reamer, rasp, pulse lavage, implant trial

front 74

Rush, Ender, Russell-Taylor, Trigen, and Kuntscher are examples of flexible, standard, or titanium femoral:

back 74

nails

front 75

Cannulated screws and nails are designed to follow the path created by a:

back 75

guide pin

front 76

In which anatomical structure is the patella contained?

back 76

quadriceps tendon

front 77

Which ligament of the knee keeps the femur from sliding posteriorly on the tibia and prevents hyperextension of the knee?

back 77

anterior cruciate

front 78

What is the purpose of the medial and lateral menisci of the knee?

back 78

Cushioning

front 79

Which bone of the lower extremity is commonly known as the shin bone?

back 79

Tibia

front 80

Patellar tendon, iliotibial band, and semitendinosus tendon are examples of:

back 80

autografts for ACL repair

front 81

All of the following are examples of devices used to anchor both ends of the ACL graft EXCEPT:

back 81

Steinman pins

front 82

Liston knife, Gigli saw, and Satterlee saw are examples of instruments used for which type of procedure?

back 82

amputation

front 83

Amputated limbs may be placed in which of the following for transport to pathology?

back 83

Mayo stand cover

front 84

Total knee arthroplasty implant are categorized in all of the following EXCEPT:

back 84

quadricompartmental

front 85

Aken, Chevron, McKeever, Keller, and McBride are techniques for which lower extremity procedure?

back 85

bunionectomy

front 86

Which tendon is the thickest and strongest in the body?

back 86

Achilles

front 87

Implantable devices made of different alloys can cause breakdown of the device and may cause wound infection.

back 87

T

front 88

Arthroscopic procedures require only one small incision through which all the instruments are passed.

back 88

F

front 89

There are limited choices of total joint systems available, making standardization routine and uncomplicated.

back 89

F

front 90

Care must be taken during skin prepping for gangrenous lower extremities prior to amputation to prevent inadvertent dislodging of toes.

back 90

T