Which of the following is NOT considered an organ of the immune system?

Pancreas

The left subclavian vain receives lymph from?

Thoracic duct

The lymph from the right foot empties into the

Thoracic duct

The skeletal muscle and respiratory pumps are used in?

Lymphatic, Immune, and Cardiovascular systems

Which of the below produces the hormone that promotes maturation of T cells?

Thymus

In the thymus, where is it speculates that T cells die?

Hasall's Corpuscles

This portion of the lymph node does NOT contain any lymphatic nodules.

Inner cortex

Which of the following is a function of the spleen?

Removes worm out blood cells

Which of these does NOT provide a physical or chemical barrier?

Macrophages

Which of these provides a non-specific cellular disease resistance mechanism?

Macrophages

These anti-microbial substances will diffuse to uninfected cells and reduce production of viral proteins

Complement proteins

These are mainly used to kill infectious microbes and tumor cells

Natural Killer cells

Which of the following is NOT a sign of inflammation?

Mucus production

Which of the following intensifies the effect of interferons and promotes the rate of repair?

Fever

Which of the below do NOT induce vasodilation and permeability (increased fluid flow) to an infection site?

Perforin

When B and T cells are fully developed and mature, they are known to be?

Immunocompetent

This induces production of a specific antibody?

Antigen

This can only stimulate an immune response if attached to a larger carrier molecule?

Hapten

Which of the following is responsible for diversity in the immune system?

MHC and Antigen receptors

This class of cells includes macrophages, B cells and dendritic cells?

Antigen presenting cells

This can only become activated when bound to a foreign antigen and simultaneously receiving a costimulate?

T cell

These display CD4 in their membrane and are associated with MHC class II molecules?

Helper T cells

T cells secrete this toxin that is used to fragment DNA?

Lymphotoxin

This class of antibodies is mainly found in sweat, tears, breast milk, and GI secretions?

IgA

This will lead to inflammation, enhancement of phagocytosis and bursting of microbes?

Classical and Alternative complement systems

This action makes microbes more susceptible to phagocytosis?

Opsonization

This is a self-responsive cell that is inactive?

Anergy cell

This is characterized by the inability of the immune system to protect the body from a pathogen?

Immunodeficiency diseases

An acute allergic response can lead to?

Anaphylactic shock

A natural exposure to an infectious agent leads to?

Active immunity

This class of antibodies is produced after an initial exposure to antigens?

IgM

Of the following, which is considered the body's second major defense?

Lymphocytes

Lymphocytes can recognize?

Foreign cells

In B cell receptors, the light/heavy variables regions are located?

Tips of the molecules

What is the most polymorphic molecule in the immune system?

MHC

The primary response will peak how many days after an exposure?

10-17 days

Which type of immunity defends against any type of invader?

Nonspecific

This is the ability of an antigen to react specifically with the antibodies or cells it has provoked?

Reactivity

This is a small hormone that can stimulate or inhibit many normal cell functions?

Cytokine

Which of the following is NOT part of the upper respiratory system?

Trachea

The conducting zone does NOT act to?

Clean air of debris, Conduct air into the lungs, Add water to air, and Warm air

The nose connects with the pharynx through the

Choanae

Which of the following is a passage way for air, food, and water?

Pharynx

The opening to the pharynx from the mouth is called?

Fauces

This structure prevents food or water from entering the trachea?

Epiglottis

During swallowing, which structure rises?

Pharynx

These are triangular pieces of mostly hyaline cartilage located at the posterior and superior border of the cricoid cartilage?

Arytenoids cartilage

Pitch is controlled by

Tension of the vocal chords

This is located anterior to the esophagus and carriers air to the bronchi?

Trachea

This is the primary gas exchange site?

Alveolus

Which of the below tissues maintains open airways in the lower respiratory system?

Hyaline cartilage

Which of the below tissues provides the functions of the inner layer of the conducting organs?

Ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium with goblet cells

The point where the trachea divides into right and left primary bronchi is a ridge called?

Carina

Which of the below tissues forms the exchange surfaces of the alveolus?

Simple squamous epithelium

These are cells of the alveoli that produce surfactant?

Type II alveolar cells

This is direction of diffusion of gases at capillaries near systemic cells?

Oxygen out of blood, Carbon dioxide into blood

This is the direction of diffusion of gases at the alveoli of the lungs?

Oxygen into the blood, Carbon dioxide out of the blood

Exhalation begins when

Inspiratory muscles relax

This means the lungs and the chest wall expand easily?

High compliance

The conducting airways with the air that does NOT undergo respiratory exchange are known as the?

Respiratory dead space

This is the sum of the residual and the expiratory reserve volume?

Functional residual capacity

Which of the following is NOT a factor that the rate of pulmonary and systemic gas exchange depends on?

Force of contraction of diaphragm

Which is the dominant method of carbon dioxide transport?

Dissolved in plasma as bicarbonate ions

When blood pH drops then the amount of oxyhemoglobin _______ and oxygen delivery to the tissue cells ________?

Decreases; Increases

Which is a factor that does NOT affect hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen?

Respiratory rate

The lymphoid system is composed of all of the following, except?

The vena cava

The primary function of the lymphoid system is?

Defending the body against both environmental hazards and internal threats

The lymphocytes are most important in?

Fighting infection

Compared to blood capillaries, lymph capillaries exhibit all of the following, except that they?

Are smaller in diameter

Lymphocytes are produced and stored in all of the following, except

The brain

Lymphatic vessels are located in almost all portions of the body, except the?

CNS

Most of the lymph returns to the venous circulation by way of the?

Thoracic duct

The thoracic duct drains lymph from all of the following regions, except the?

Right breast

Lymphatic vessels commonly occur in association with

Blood vessels

The merging of ______forms the right lymphatic duct?

The right jugular, right subclavian, and right bronchomediastinal trunks

In general, lymphocytes?

Spend most of their time in lymphoid tissue, Have relatively long life spans, and Have one nucleus

Lymphocytes

Respond to antigens

Lymphocyte production involves?

Bone marrow, Thymus tissue, and Peripheral lymphoid tissues

_______are large lymphoid nodules that are located in the walls of the pharynx?

Tonsils

________are clusters of lymphoid nodules deep to the epithelial lining of the small intestine?

Peyer's patches

Lymph nodes do all of the following, except that they?

Remove excess nutrients from the lymph

Lymphoid organs differ from lymphoid tissues in what way?

They are surrounded by a fibrous capsule and lymphoid tissues are not.

The medulla of a lymph node contains _______lymphocytes and plasma cells?

B

The cell that dominates the deep cortical region of a lymph node is the _______cell?

T

Lymph nodes range in diameter from?

1mm to 25mm

Dividing lymphocytes can be found in the ________ of the lymphoid nodule.

Germinal center

Leslie has a bad sore throat, and the lymph glands in her neck are swollen. This would indicate that?

The affected lymph glands contain an increased number of lymphocytes.

All of the following are true of the thymus gland, except that it?

Activates B cells

Stem cells that will form T cells develop in the?

Thymus

If the thymus shrank and stopped making thymosins, we would expect to see an immediate decrease in the number of?

T cells

Lymphocytes may be found in which of the following tissues or organs?

Tonsils, Spleen, Lymph nodes, and Thymus

Areas of the spleen that contain large aggregations of lymphocytes are known as?

White pulp

The largest single collection of lymphoid tissue in the adult body is located in the?

Spleen

Which class of leukocytes is particularly abundant in the red pulp of the spleen?

Free and Fixed macrophages

The body's nonspecific defenses include all of the following, except?

B and T cells

Each of the following is a physical barrier to infection, except?

Complement

The first line of cellular defense against pathogens are the?

Phagocytes

Various types of macrophages are derived from?

Monocytes

Nonspecific defenses include?

Phagocytic cells, Physical barriers, Inflammation, and Interferons

Examples of physical barriers against pathogens include?

Mucus, Sebaceous glands, Epithelia, and Epidermal layers

The cells that perform immunological surveillance are the ________ cells.

NK

The effects of activating the complement system include all of the following, except?

Inhibition of the immune response

The classic pathway of complement activation begins when the complement protein binds to?

An antibody attached to an antigen

Plasma contains ________ special complement proteins that form the complement system.

11

Inflammation produces localized?

Swelling, Heat, Pain, and Redness

Fever is the maintenance of body temperature greater than?

37.2°C or 99°F.

An inflammatory response is triggered when?

Mast cells release histamine and heparin

The release of endogenous pyrogen (or interleukin-1) by active macrophages would?

Produce a fever

Histamine increases blood flow and vascular permeability. This would account for all of the following changes that occur during inflammation, except?

Chemotaxis of phagocytes

A sample of John's blood shows a high level of pyrogens. This would indicate that John?

Is running a fever

Characteristics of specific defenses include?

Versatility, Tolerance, Memory, and Specificity

Defense of the body against a particular pathogen is provided by?

Specific immunity

Immunity that is genetically determined and present at birth is called ________ immunity.

Innate

Immunity that results from exposure to an antigen in the environment is called ________ immunity.

Naturally acquired active

Immunity that results from antibodies that pass the placenta from mother to fetus is called ________ immunity.

Naturally acquired passive

In passive immunity, the?

Body receives antibodies produced by other humans or the body receives antibodies produced by an animals.

The role of antigen-presenting cells in immunity is to?

Activate T cells, Display antigen fragments, and Process antigens

Which of the following statements about MHC proteins is NOT true?

Bind complement

When an antigen is bound to a Class I MHC molecule, it can stimulate a ________ cell.

Cytotoxic T

Class II MHC molecules are found only on which of the following?

Lymphocytes and antigen-presenting cells

Before specific defenses are activated, most antigens must?

Depolarize the lymphocyte

Newborns gain their immunity initially from?

Antibodies passed across the placenta from the mother

The cells responsible for antibody-mediated immunity are the ________ cells.

B

Specific defenses depend on the activities of?

Lymphocytes

The cells directly responsible for cell-mediated immunity are the ________ cells.

Cytotoxic T

Class II MHC proteins are present in the plasma membrane only?

In antigen-presenting cells and lymphocytes

In an experimental situation, a rabbit is exposed to a viral antigen to which it makes antibodies. These antibodies are then purified and injected into a human with the same viral disease. This is an example of?

Passive immunity

When an antigen is bound to a Class II MHC protein, it can activate a ________ cell.

Helper T

Lymphocytes that destroy foreign cells or virus-infected cells are ________ cells.

Cytotoxic T

Suppressor T cells act to

Inhibit T and B cell activities

Cytotoxic T cells can attack target cells with which of these chemical weapons?

Activates genes that trigger apoptosis

T cells and B cells can be activated only by

Exposure to a specific antigen at a specific site in a plasma membrane

The cells responsible for the production of circulating immunoglobulins are ________ cells.

Plasma

Cells that help regulate the antibody-mediated immune response are ________ cells

Helper T

B cells are primarily activated by the activities of?

Helper T cells

Helper T cells do all of the following, except?

Destroy target cells using perforins

The various classes of immunoglobulins are differentiated on the basis of their?

Heavy-chain constant segments

Immunoglobulins that are most abundant and are responsible for resistance against many viruses, bacteria, and bacterial toxins are?

IgG

Immunoglobulins that attach to and sensitize mast cells and basophils are?

IgE

Immunoglobulins that are found on the surface of B cells and may activate antibody production are?

IgD

Immunoglobulins, formed of five subunits, that are the first antibodies to be produced in response to infection, are?

IgM

Immunoglobulins that are primarily found in glandular secretions such as saliva and tears are?

IgA

During a primary humoral response to antigens, all of the following occur, except?

Neutrophils invade the surrounding areas, releasing chemotactic substances.

All of the following are true of the secondary response of humoral immunity, except that it?

Weakens quickly because memory B cells only survive for a year or two.

All of the following are true of the primary response of humoral immunity, except that?

It is delayed by the memory cell stage.

The most abundant type of antibody is?

IgG

In IgG, the antigen binding site is formed by?

The variable segment of the light chain + the variable segment of the heavy chain.

________ is the class of antibody first secreted in response to a new antigen.

IgM

If the disulfide bonds in IgG were broken, how many protein chains would be set free?

4

Each IgG has ________ binding site(s) for attachment to antigenic determinants.

2

During a primary immune response, the?

IgM titer is initially higher than the IgG titer.

In a routine examination, some blood is taken and analyzed. The results show a high IgM titer for the mumps virus but a low IgG anti-mumps titer. This would indicate the person?

Was recently infected with mumps.

The binding of an antigen to an antibody can result in?

Neutralization of the antigen, Agglutination or precipitation, Complement activation and opsonization

Inappropriate or excessive immune responses to antigens are?

Allergies

Destruction of antigens or cell lysis can be caused by all of the following except by?

Helper T cells

Autoantibodies

Are directed against the body's own antigens

The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) that causes the disease known as AIDS selectively infects ________ cells.

Helper T

Infection with the HIV virus occurs through?

Intimate contact with an infected person's body fluids.

Which of the following organs is not part of the lower respiratory system?

Oropharynx

Air entering the body is filtered, warmed, and humidified by the?

Upper respiratory tract

Large airborne particles are filtered by?

The respiratory defense system

Components of the upper respiratory system include all of the following, except the?

Lips

The respiratory epithelium of the conducting airways consists of?

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.

Which of the following systems is (are) responsible for gas exchange?

Respiratory

The trachea, bronchi, bronchioles and alveoli all make up the?

Lower respiratory tract

A mucosa consists of?

Both an epithelium and an underlying layer of areolar tissue

________ is the most common lethal inherited disease affecting individuals of Northern European descent.

Cystic fibrosis

The conchae?

Create turbulence in the air to trap particulate matter in mucus

Functions of the nasal cavity include which of the following?

Filtering the air, Warming the air, Humidifying the air, and Trapping airborne particles

The openings to the nostrils are the?

External nares

The portion of the nasal cavity contained within the flexible tissues of the external nose is the?

Vestibule

The common passageway shared by the respiratory and digestive systems is the?

Pharynx

The auditory tubes open into the?

Nasopharynx

The palatine tonsils lie in the walls of the?

Oropharynx

The ________ is lined by stratified squamous epithelium.

Oropharynx

The nasal cavity is separated from the oral cavity by the?

Hard palate

The nasopharynx is divided from the rest of the pharynx by the?

Soft palate

The nasal cavities are divided from one another by the?

Nasal septum

________ generally causes a rapid increase in the rate of mucus production in the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses.

Exposure to noxious stimuli, Exposure to unpleasant stimuli, Exposure to allergens, and Exposure to debris or pathogens

Inhaling through the nostrils is preferred over the mouth because?

it allows better conditioning of the inhaled air

Which of the following is NOT a function of the nasal mucosa?

Dehumidify the incoming air

The portion of the pharynx that receives both air and food is the?

Oropharynx

Which of the following is NOT true about the pharynx?

Shared by the integumentary and respiratory systems

The larynx contains ________ cartilages.

Three unpaired, Three paired, and A total of nine

The glottis is?

The opening to the larynx

The vocal folds are located within the?

Larynx

The elastic cartilage that covers the opening to the larynx during swallowing is the?

Epiglottis

The largest shield-shaped cartilage of the larynx is the _______cartilage.

Thyroid

The ring-shaped cartilage just inferior to the thyroid cartilage is the _______cartilage.

Cricoid

The paired cartilages that articulate with the superior border of the cricoid cartilage are the ________ cartilages.

Arytenoid

A pair of ligaments covered by laryngeal epithelium that function in sound production are the?

Vocal folds

Air passing through the glottis vibrates the vocal folds and produces?

Phonation

Tension on the vocal cords is regulated by the?

Movement of the arytenoid cartilages and contraction of laryngeal muscles

The laryngeal cartilage composed of elastic cartilage that prevents entry of solids or liquids into the laryngopharynx when swallowing is the?

Epiglottis

Contraction of the laryngeal muscles can?

Move the arytenoid cartilages, Close the glottis, and Stretch the vocal folds

During swallowing, the?

Solids and liquids are forces into the esophagus, Larynx is elevated, and Epiglottis folds back over the glottis

Which of the following statements about the trachea is false?

Is reinforced with D-shaped cartilages

The airway that connects the larynx to the bronchial tree is the?

Trachea

Secondary bronchi supply air to the?

Lobes of the lungs

What branches from the trachea?

Primary bronchi

Harry suffers from cystic fibrosis and has severe breathing difficulties. His problems result from?

Inability of the respiratory defense mechanism to transport mucus and production of thick secretions that are difficult to transport only.

The adult human trachea is about ________ in diameter and contains ________ tracheal cartilages.

2.5cm; 15-20

Which of these descriptions best matches the term bronchiolar smooth muscle?

Contraction increases airway resistance

The C shape of the tracheal cartilages is important because?

Large masses of food can pass through the esophagus during swallowing.

During a choking episode, most foreign objects are more likely to become lodged in the ________ bronchus due to its larger diameter and steeper angle.

Right Primary

Primary bronchi are to ________ as secondary bronchi are to ________.

Extrapulmonary bronchi; Intrapulmonary bronchi

The right lung is to ________ as the left lung is to ________.

Three lobes; Two lobes

Which respiratory organ has a cardiac notch?

Left lung

The following is a list of some airways.
1. secondary bronchus
2. bronchioles
3. alveolar ducts
4. primary bronchus
5. respiratory bronchiole
6. alveoli
7. terminal bronchiole
The order in which air passes through is

4)Primary bronchus, 1)Secondary bronchus, 2)Bronchioles, 7)Terminal bronchiole, 5)Respiratory bronchiole, 3)Alveolar ducts, and 6)Alveoli

The interlobular septa divide the lungs into?

Pulmonary Lobules

The actual sites of gas exchange within the lungs are?

Alveoli

The respiratory membrane of the gas exchange surfaces consists of?

Simple squamous epithelium.

Collectively, the layers through which the respiratory gases diffuse are known as the?

Alveolar-capillary membrane.

Boyle's law states that gas volume is?

Inversely proportional to pressure.

Pulmonary ventilation refers to the?

Movement of air into and out of the lungs.

The function of pulmonary ventilation is to?

Maintain adequate alveolar ventilation

The unit of measurement for pressure preferred by many respiratory therapists is?

torr

Boyle's Law of Gases states that?

If the volume goes up, the pressure goes down

When there is no air movement, the relationship between the intrapulmonary and atmospheric pressure is that?

They are equal

Which of the following muscles might be recruited to increase inspired volume?

Sternocleidomastoid, Pectoralis minor, Scalenes. and Serratus anterior

Expiratory movements are produced by contraction of the ________ muscle(s).

Internal intercostal

When the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract,

The volume of the thorax increases

Which of these descriptions best matches the term external intercostal?

Primary muscle of inspiration

________ is the amount of air that moves into the respiratory system during a single respiratory cycle under resting conditions.

Tidal volume

The partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood is approximately?

95 mm Hg

The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in venous blood is approximately?

45 mm Hg

________ is the amount of air that you can inhale above the resting tidal volume.

Inspiratory reserve volume

In quite breathing?

Inspiration involves muscular contractions and expiration is passive

If a patient being tested inhales as deeply as possible and then exhales as much as possible, the volume of air expelled would be the patient's?

Vital capacity

Alveolar ventilation refers to the?

Amount of air reaching the alveoli each minute

Increasing the alveolar ventilation rate will?

Decrease the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli.

Which of the following can be calculated if the tidal volume and respiratory rate are known?

Respiratory minute volume

Henry's law states that?

The volume of gas that will dissolve in a solvent is proportional to the partial pressure of that gas.

Dalton's law states that?

In a mixture of gases such as air, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressure of the gases in the mixture.

The partial pressure of oxygen in the interstitial space of peripheral tissues is approximately?

40mm Hg

The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the interstitial space of peripheral tissues is approximately?

45mm Hg

The process by which dissolved gases are exchanged between the blood and interstitial fluids is?

Internal respiration

Which of the following is greatest?

The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in venous blood

Each of the following factors affects the rate of external respiration, except the?

Diameter of an alveolus

External respiration involves the?

Diffusion of gases between the alveoli and the circulating blood

Carbon dioxide is more soluble in water than oxygen. To get the same amount of oxygen to dissolve in plasma as carbon dioxide, you would have to?

Either increase the partial pressure of oxygen or decrease the partial pressure of carbon dioxide

At a PO2 of 70 mm Hg and normal temperature and pH, hemoglobin is ________ percent saturated with oxygen.

More than 90

Most of the oxygen transported by the blood is?

Bound to hemoglobin

Each 100mL of blood leaving the alveolar capillaries carries away roughly ______mL of oxygen.

20

Under quite conditions, blood returning to the heart retains about ______of its oxygen content when it leaves the lungs.

75%

Low pH alters hemoglobin structure so that oxygen binds less strongly to hemoglobin at low PO2. This increases the effectiveness of?

Internal respiration

Which of the following factors would increase the amount of oxygen discharged by hemoglobin to peripheral tissues?

Decreased pH

For maximum loading of hemoglobin with oxygen at the lungs, the?

PCO2 should be low

Most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is transported as?

Bicarbonate ions

Carbonic anhydrase?

Is in RBCs, Is an enzyme, Can increase the amount of bicarbonate ion in plasma, and Can convert carbon dioxide into carbonic acid

The condition resulting from inadequate production of surfactant and the resultant collapse of alveoli is?

Respiratory distress syndrome

Asthma is?

An acute condition resulting from unusually sensitive, irritated conducting airways

The obstructive lung disease in which elastic fibers are lost, leading to collapse of alveoli and bronchioles, is called?

Emphysema

A patient with a connective tissue disease experiences increased pulmonary vascular resistance. Over a period of time you would expect to observe?

Increased thickness of the right ventricular wall

In emphysema, which of these occur?

Alveoli collapse, Compliance increases, and Elevated PCO2 in the blood

The normal rate and depth of breathing is established by the _______center?

Apneustic

Prolonged deep inspirations can result from stimulating the _______center?

Apneustic

The pneumotaxic center of the pons?

Modifies the rate and depth of breathing

Higher brain centers that alter the activity of the respiratory centers include all of the following, except?

The precentral motor gyrus

The apneustic centers of the pons?

Inhibits the pneumotaxic center

Stimulation of the apneustic center would result in?

More intense inhalation

If the dorsal respiratory group of neurons in the medulla oblongata were destroyed bilaterally?

A person would stop breathing

The pneumotaxic center?

Both is in the pons and inhibits the apneustic center

Pneumotaxic centers in the pons?

Inhibits the apneustic centers, Promote passive or active exhalation, Recieves input from the hypothalamus and cerebrum, and Modify respiratory rate and depth

The most important chemical regulator of respiration is?

Carbon dioxide

A 10% increase in the level of carbon dioxide in the blood will?

Increase the rate of breathing

Blocking afferent action potentials from the chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies would interfere with the brain's ability to regulate breathing in response to?

Changes in PCO2

The term hypercapnia refers to?

Elevated PCO2

The inflation reflex?

Protects the lungs from damage due to over-inflation.

All of the following provide chemoreceptor input to the respiratory centers of the medulla oblongata, except the?

Olfactory epithelium

Which of these age-based changes is false?

Vital capacity increases.