Print Options

Card layout: ?

← Back to notecard set|Easy Notecards home page

Instructions for Side by Side Printing
  1. Print the notecards
  2. Fold each page in half along the solid vertical line
  3. Cut out the notecards by cutting along each horizontal dotted line
  4. Optional: Glue, tape or staple the ends of each notecard together
  1. Verify Front of pages is selected for Viewing and print the front of the notecards
  2. Select Back of pages for Viewing and print the back of the notecards
    NOTE: Since the back of the pages are printed in reverse order (last page is printed first), keep the pages in the same order as they were after Step 1. Also, be sure to feed the pages in the same direction as you did in Step 1.
  3. Cut out the notecards by cutting along each horizontal and vertical dotted line
To print: Ctrl+PPrint as a list

175 notecards = 44 pages (4 cards per page)

Viewing:

AST Practice Exam #4

front 1

What is used to retract the spermatic cord during an inguinal herniorraphy?

back 1

Penrose drain

front 2

Why is an indwelling Foley catheter placed prior to a hysterectomy?

back 2

To avoid injury to the bladder

front 3

Which scissors is the best choice for extending an arterial incision?

back 3

Potts-Smith

front 4

What is used to stain the cervix for a Schiller's test?

back 4

Lugol's solution

front 5

What arises from the left ventricle of the heart?

back 5

Ascending aorta

front 6

What method is used to confirm that items have been exposed to the sterilization process, but sterility is not guaranteed?

back 6

Chemical

front 7

Why would the hair of a patient undergoing craniotomy be bagged, labeled and saved?

back 7

It is patient property

front 8

When preparing a double basin for sterilization, the: basins should be separated by

back 8

a porous, absorbent towel

front 9

Which structure, during a total hip arthroplasty, requires intramedullary reaming prior to placement of a prosthesis?

back 9

Femoral canal

front 10

What is the least restrictive form of credentialing?

back 10

Registration

front 11

What drug classification is Demerol?

back 11

Analgesic

front 12

What should be transported to the PACU with a patient who underwent a thyroidectomy?

back 12

Tracheotomy tray

front 13

What is the chemical abbreviation for sodium chloride?

back 13

NaCl

front 14

What organelle is responsible for packaging of proteins?

back 14

Golgi complex

front 15

Which procedure would utilize the instrument shown above?

back 15

Hemorrhoidectomy

front 16

What types of treatment does a patient authorize when signing a general consent form?

back 16

All routine treatments or procedures

front 17

Which medication can be used as a topical jelly during cystoscopy procedures?

back 17

Xylocaine

front 18

What is a primary postoperative complication of carotid endarterectomy?

back 18

Stroke

front 19

What procedure would you use Ferris Smith forceps for

back 19

TAH (Hysterectomy)

front 20

When is it acceptable to open surgical dressing sponges?

back 20

After the final count

front 21

What is the correct procedure to follow when a sterilized rigid instrument container is opened and condensation is observed?

back 21

Don't use, return to Sterile Processing Department

front 22

Which method of sterilization requires an aeration cycle?

back 22

EtO

front 23

Elevated IOP in a glaucoma patient is a result of excess what?

back 23

Aqueous humor

front 24

Where should the grounding pad be placed on a patient undergoing a laparoscopic cholecystectomy who has a right hip prosthesis?

back 24

Left anterior thigh

front 25

The instrument above is used during what procedure?

back 25

Vaginal hysterectomy

front 26

The Trendelenburg position is often used for surgery for?

back 26

Vaginal hysterectomy

front 27

The large artery that arises from the left side of the aortic arch and descends into the arm is the what?

back 27

Subclavian

front 28

Lesions in which part of the brain may affect balance and coordination?

back 28

Cerebellum

front 29

What utilizes the process of cavitation?

back 29

Ultrasonic cleaner

front 30

What is the name for a dorsally angulated fracture of the distal radius?

back 30

Colles'

front 31

What is this instrument

back 31

Ferguson Gallstone scoop

front 32

During which procedure would a Ferguson Gallstone scoop be used for

back 32

Cholecystectomy

front 33

Which ligament is transected during surgery for De Quervain's disease?

back 33

Dorsal carpal

front 34

In order to minimize mucosal irritation during urinary catheterization, the tip of the catheter is dipped in what?

back 34

K-Y jelly

front 35

How often is a medication prescribed as QID to be taken per day?

back 35

4 times

front 36

What type of external dressing would be used to eliminate dead space?

back 36

Pressure

front 37

In the prone position, patients are placed on chest rolls to prevent what?

back 37

Compromised ventilation

front 38

What positions would be used for an LAVH?

back 38

Lithotomy

front 39

A left subcostal incision would be used to expose which what?

back 39

Spleen

front 40

Intraoperatively, lidocaine with epinephrine may be contraindicated in patients who are:

back 40

Hypertensive

front 41

What approach is used for the removal of a small acoustic neuroma that is located in the internal auditory canal?

back 41

Middle fossa

front 42

What must be obtained from a patient undergoing surgical procedures, fertility treatments, chemotherapy or experimental treatment?

back 42

Special written consent

front 43

What drug is used to treat hypotension and shock?

back 43

Levophed

front 44

The agent used to expand blood plasma volume is what?

back 44

Dextran

front 45

What does the term chole/ refer to?

back 45

Bile

front 46

When preparing instruments for sterilization, what is not correct?

back 46

Lining the tray with a nonwoven disposable wrapper

front 47

What is an initial incision for abdominoplasty?

back 47

Low transverse

front 48

When performing a rhinoplasty, the exostosis in the nose is removed with what instrument?

back 48

Chisel

front 49

Which type of sterilization requires the use of the Bowie-Dick test?

back 49

Prevaccum steam

front 50

What is the first federal act to establish patient privacy standards?

back 50

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

front 51

What should the surgical technologist wear when transporting a patient with tuberculosis from PACU to the isolation patient room?

back 51

Respirator

front 52

How is the informed consent signed if a patient is illiterate?

back 52

Patient marks an 'x'

front 53

What agents should not be used to disinfect endoscopes?

back 53

Isopropyl alcohol

front 54

What is used to expose the meatus during urethral catheterization?

back 54

Non-dominant hand

front 55

What is the second phase of wound healing?

back 55

Proliferation

front 56

What muscle is commonly used for TRAM reconstruction in a mammoplasty?

back 56

Rectus abdominis

front 57

The patient is never positioned until who gives permission?

back 57

Anesthesia provider gives permission

front 58

What term refers to cell "drinking"?

back 58

Pinocytosis

front 59

What does hypertension mean?

back 59

High blood pressure

front 60

Which type of fire extinguisher should be available when using a laser?

back 60

Halon

front 61

What is the major side effect of thrombolytics?

back 61

Hemorrhage

front 62

If a sterile glove becomes contaminated during a procedure, what action should the surgical technologist take?

back 62

Circulator pulls off glove; surgical technologist is regloved by another sterile team member

front 63

What type of suture technique is used to invert the stump of the appendix during an appendectomy?

back 63

Purse-string

front 64

What is the proper procedure for removing a laparotomy drape?

back 64

ST holds dressing in place; rolls drape head to feet

front 65

Gerota's fascia is located where?

back 65

Around the kidney

front 66

What activity can aggravate the symptoms of trigeminal neuralgia?

back 66

Chewing

front 67

What is the purpose of maintaining 20% to 60% relative humidity in the OR?

back 67

Decrease static electricity

front 68

What surgical instrument is used to thread the drilled hole for the screw during an ORIF?

back 68

Tap

front 69

What pathology would be treated by transphenoidal hypophysectomy procedure

back 69

Pituitary neoplasm

front 70

The muscle that causes strabismus is the what?

back 70

medial rectus

front 71

What is the minimum required number of people to transfer a patient from the OR table to the stretcher?

back 71

4

front 72

When used as a skin prep, what should be allowed to thoroughly dry if electrocautery will be used?

back 72

Alcohol and tinctures

front 73

Healthcare-acquired infections (HAI) are most commonly associated with

back 73

Use of urinary catheters

front 74

What is the technical term for robotic arms?

back 74

Manipulator

front 75

Which procedures would the surgeon check for anastomatic leaks by injecting air into the rectum, looking for bubbles in the fluid-filled peritoneal cavity?

back 75

Low anterior resection

front 76

What are varicosities of the rectum and anus?

back 76

Hemorrhoids

front 77

Vitamins A, D, E and K are absorbed in the what?

back 77

Intestine

front 78

The preoperative exsanguination of an extremity prior to inflating a tourniquet is accomplished with what?

back 78

Esmarch

front 79

Which vessel is harvested for use during a CABG?

back 79

Internal mammary artery

front 80

What retractor would be used to retract the muscles during a hip pinning?

back 80

Bennett

front 81

The surgical reanastomosis of the vas deferens is called a what?

back 81

Vasovasostomy

front 82

Which type of laser is used to remove polymethyl methacrylate from a cemented joint implant during a revision arthroplasty?

back 82

Carbon dioxide

front 83

Sound waves travel through the external auditory canal and strike the what?

back 83

Tympanic membrane

front 84

In large abdominal wounds that require frequent dressing changes, which will minimize the skin break-down?

back 84

Montgomery straps

front 85

Which positioning devices would be used for an LAVH?

back 85

Allen stirrups

front 86

The term mentoplasty refers to surgery of the what?

back 86

Chin

front 87

What situation could cause a patient's signature on a surgical informed consent to be challenged in court?

back 87

Patient received preoperative medications

front 88

What is the importance of humidity when using EtO sterilization?

back 88

Hydrate spores and bacteria

front 89

What is the purpose of polymethyl methacrylate during a cranioplasty?

back 89

Filling cranial defects

front 90

The appropriate location when placing the grounding pad is over a what?

back 90

Fleshy area

front 91

Which catheter is used for an angioplasty?

back 91

Fogarty

front 92

A hernia that presents through Hesselbach's triangle is a/an what?

back 92

Direct

front 93

The medial malleleolus is part of which bone?

back 93

Tibia

front 94

What is performed prior to implantation of a Dacron knit polyester graft?

back 94

Preclotting

front 95

Which structure articulates with the head of the femur?

back 95

Acetabulum

front 96

An abnormal bending backward of the uterus is called what?

back 96

Retroflexion

front 97

What type of clip is a Raney?

back 97

Scalp

front 98

The ciliary body is part of which layer of the eye?

back 98

Vascular

front 99

Which of these drugs is a miotic?

back 99

Pilocarpine

front 100

What is a violation of Standard Precautions during postoperative case management?

back 100

Retrieve reusable trocar from sharps container

front 101

Which type of monitoring equipment is a noninvasive assessment of oxygen saturation of arterial blood?

back 101

Pulse oximetry

front 102

How are femoral shaft fractures in an adult repaired?

back 102

Intramedullary nailing

front 103

What instrument would be used to dilate the male urethra?

back 103

Van Buren

front 104

To determine the process for preparing surgical instruments for use on tissue and within a body cavity, they are classified as what?

back 104

Critical

front 105

The Harrington retractor allows for gentle elevation of which anatomical structure?

back 105

Liver

front 106

What is the term for the division of a reproductive cell into two cells with chromosome cells?

back 106

Meiosis

front 107

What does the term dys- mean?

back 107

Difficult

front 108

After the patient is extubated, which device is often used to maintain the airway around the relaxed tongue?

back 108

Oropharyngeal airway

front 109

What accelerates the coagulation cascade?

back 109

Topical thrombin

front 110

Which breast procedure describes a mastectomy?

back 110

Surgical removal

front 111

What is done to the common bile duct during a choledochojejunostomy?

back 111

Anastomosed

front 112

What procedures would a tourniquet be unnecessary?

back 112

Hip arthroplasty

front 113

What anatomical sites would be prepped last when performing a skin prep for a colostomy reversal procedure?

back 113

Stoma

front 114

What surgical procedure is performed to relieve pressure on the median nerve?

back 114

Endoscopic carpal tunnel release

front 115

What is the proper procedure for turning the sterile gown?

back 115

Hand tag to circulator; circulator moves around gown

front 116

What does the term 'os' mean?

back 116

Opening

front 117

What is not a function of the trachea

back 117

Amplify speech

front 118

Which condition is characterized by the sudden onset of floating spots before the eyes?

back 118

Retina detachment

front 119

One of the most effective germicidals for cold sterilization is what?

back 119

2% glutaraldehyde

front 120

From which laminectomy instrument would intervertebral disc fragments be cleaned?

back 120

Pituitary

front 121

What type of suture is used for vascular reanastomosis?

back 121

Nonabsorbable monofilament

front 122

What is the name of the suction tip shown above?

back 122

Frazier

front 123

What molecule is broken down when body cells require energy?

back 123

ATP

front 124

What represents a saddle joint?

back 124

Thumb and trapezium

front 125

During an EtO sterilization cycle, humidity is maintained at what?

back 125

20-80%

front 126

An emergency drug given to stabilize ventricular fibrillation is what?

back 126

Isoproterenol

front 127

Creating a positive-pressure air supply for ear OR will do what?

back 127

Minimize airborne bacteria entering the room

front 128

Which is an acceptable antiseptic solution for a skin prep?

back 128

Povidine-Iodine

front 129

During a total hip arthroplasty, which instrument is used after intramedullary reaming to reshape the proximal femoral canal?

back 129

Rasp

front 130

What assesses the electrical activity of the nervous system?

back 130

Electroencephalogram

front 131

The functional unit of the kidney responsible for removing waste and regulating fluid is the what?

back 131

Nephron

front 132

What is an intermediate-level disinfectant?

back 132

Isopropryl alcohol

front 133

Which vein of an infant patient is a central venous catheter inserted?

back 133

External jugular

front 134

After the patient leaves the OR, the reusable items should be taken to the decontamination room how?

back 134

Inside a closed case cart

front 135

A clamp used for occluding a peripheral vessel called a

back 135

DeBakey

front 136

During a total hip arthroplasty, which type of device prevents polymethyl methacrylate from filling the medullary canal distal to the prosthesis?

back 136

Restrictor

front 137

What is the proper technique when applying a grounding pad?

back 137

Avoid placing pad on buttocks

front 138

Which sutures are packaged in alcohol to maintain pliability

back 138

Natural absorbable

front 139

What procedure should be followed for securing consent for surgery for an unconscious patient requiring emergency surgery whose family members or guardian cannot be contacted?

back 139

Two consulting physicians agree

front 140

What gynecologic procedure includes removal of the reproductive organs, bladder and rectum?

back 140

Pelvic exenteration

front 141

Isopropyl alcohol is bactericidal, which means it:

back 141

Kills bacteria

front 142

Use of a one-step applicator with little or no pressure on skin would be indicated in which conditions?

back 142

Abdominal aortic aneurysm

front 143

A postoperative anesthesia complication when extubating a patient is what?

back 143

Laryngospasm

front 144

The process by which glucose is stored as glycogen is what?

back 144

Glycogenesis

front 145

The large, leaf-shaped laryngeal cartilage that acts as a "trap door" over the larynx is the what?

back 145

Epiglottis

front 146

Use of Van Buren sounds might be necessary for urethral catheterization in patients with

back 146

Urethral stricture

front 147

The four fluid-filled spaces of the brain are called what?

back 147

Ventricles

front 148

For which surgical procedure would bupivacaine with epinephrine be contraindicated?

back 148

Trigger finger release

front 149

What term describes an individual who harbors a pathogen but displays no signs or symptoms?

back 149

Carrier

front 150

Which procedures is performed before completing an ileal conduit?

back 150

Cystectomy

front 151

Which is the recommended postoperative handling of reusable instruments used on a patient with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?

back 151

Place in biohazard bag and destroy

front 152

What type of procedure is performed to treat tumors of the pituitary gland?

back 152

Transphenoidal hypophysectomy

front 153

What would be an inappropriate manner for the handling of surgical specimens?

back 153

Frozen sections are sent to pathology on a Raytec sponge

front 154

What instruments would be used during a suprapubic prostatectomy

back 154

Bladder retractor

front 155

A tumescent solution is used in what procedures

back 155

Suction lipectomy

front 156

What is a type of non-retaining catheter?

back 156

Whistle

front 157

The walls of the vagina are lined with what?

back 157

Mucosa

front 158

Which drug counteracts metabolic acidosis?

back 158

Sodium bicarbonate

front 159

What wound classification would be assigned to a compound fracture?

back 159

Contaminated

front 160

What type of dye is used intravenously to verify patency of the fallopian tubes during a pelvic procedure?

back 160

Methylene blue

front 161

Pneumoperitoneum is utilized during a laparoscopy to do what?

back 161

Create a safe working space

front 162

What is the required pressure for a steam sterilizer set at a temperature of 250degrees Fahrenheit?

back 162

15-17

front 163

What is the most commonly used thermal method of hemostasis in cranial neurosurgery?

back 163

Bipolar electrosurgery

front 164

A wrapped instrument set that will be run in the steam prevacuum sterilizer at 270 degrees must be sterilized for a minimum of how long?

back 164

4 minutes

front 165

A patient that has sudden onset of shortness of breath in the PACU may indicate what?

back 165

Pulmonary embolism

front 166

What sutures is a nonabsorbable monofilament frequently used in vascular procedures?

back 166

Polypropylene

front 167

What defines anaerobic?

back 167

Without oxygen

front 168

What nerve in the lower leg must be protected from pressure when placing the patient in the lithotomy position?

back 168

Peroneal

front 169

Exophthalmos due to Grave's disease is associated with which gland?

back 169

Thyroid

front 170

Where should the Foley indwelling catheter drainage bag be positioned after insertion of the catheter?

back 170

Lower than the level of the bladder

front 171

The sutures of the adult skull are examples of what?

back 171

Synarthrosis

front 172

A ventilation system that provides a unidirectional positive-pressure air flow at a high air exchange rate in the OR is what?

back 172

Laminar air flow

front 173

Catabolism of fats produces what?

back 173

Ketone bodies

front 174

What is the principle reason for performing a preoperative skin prep?

back 174

To remove transient flora and reduce resident flora

front 175

What is the part of the brain that is responsible for controlling the body temperature?

back 175

Hypothalamus