front 1 List the levels of the muscle (broad to microscope). In () put the CT that surrounds each level. | back 1 entire muscle (epimysium) --> muscle fasciculus ( perimysium) --> muscle fiber (endomysium) (sarcolemma) --> myofibril --> myofilaments --> contractile proteins actin (thin) and myosin (thick) |
front 2 Give a detailed explanation of the excitation-contraction coupling process. | back 2 Excitation: 1. AP in motor neuron causes release of acetylcholine (Ach) into synaptic cleft @ NMJ (neuromuscular junction). 2. Ach binds to receptors on motor end plate, leads to depolarization that is conducted down transverse tubules, which causes release of Ca+2 from sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) Contraction: 1. At rest, myosin cross-bridge is in weak binding state. 2. Ca+2 binds to troponin * Causes shift in tropomyosin to uncover active sites * Allows cross-bridge to form strong binding state (actin +myosin) 3. Pi released from myosin. cross-bridge movement occurs 4. ADP released from myosin. cross-bridge movement complete. POWER STROKE OCCURS 5. ATP attaches to myosin * Cross-bridge detaches and forms "weak binding state" * ATP breaks down into ADP+Pi which energizes myosin and recocks the head and prepares it for the next cross-bridge cycle -Continues as longs as Ca+2 and ATP are present. |
front 3 ____________ is the contractile unit of the muscle. | back 3 sarcomere |
front 4 What is the NaK pump doing? | back 4 Resetting the action potential |
front 5 ___________ blocks the actin site. | back 5 tropomyosin |
front 6 ____________ occurs when myosin pull actin. | back 6 power stroke power stroke=contraction |
front 7 Where is the calcium stored in the muscle? a. sarcomere b. sarcolemma c. sarcoplasmic reticulum d. golgi tendon organs | back 7 c. sarcoplasmic reticulum |
front 8 Fully explain each step of the cross-bridge cycle. Start where myosin is bound to actin. | back 8 1. Cross Bridge Formation: Activated myosin head binds to actin. ADP and Pi remain bound to myosin. 2. Power stroke: Myosin head swivels, which causes the displacement of actin filament. ADP and Pi are released from myosin. 3. Dissociation: ATP binds to myosin. Actin and myosin dissociates (cross-bridge detaches) 4. Activation: Energy from the hydrolysis of ATP used to activate the myosin head. ADP and Pi remain bound to myosin. |
front 9 An example of an acute response to exercise might be: a.) a change in resting heart rate from 72 bpm to 60 bpma b.) change in aerobic capacity c.) a change in resting respiratory rate from 14 to 8 breaths per minute d.) a change in heart rate from 62 bpm at rest to 155 bpm during a 220 yd. run | back 9 d. a change in heart rate from 62 bpm at rest to 155 bpm during a 220 yd. run |
front 10 The horizontal axis of every graph is reserved for: a) the dependent variable b)the independent variable c)the variable that changes as a result of the research treatment d) It does not matter what variable is placed on the horizontal axis. | back 10 b. the independent variable |
front 11 The first director of the Harvard Fatigue Laboratory was D.B. Dill. a. true b. false | back 11 a. true |
front 12 A research design examining the effect of a single treatment on groups of participants aged 21 to 30 years, 31 to 40 years, and 41 to 50 years is an example of: a.) a cross-sectional design b.) a longitudinal design c.) a placebo design d.) a crossover design | back 12 a. cross-sectional design |
front 13 The study of how our bodies' structures and functions are altered when we are exposed to acute and chronic exercise is an appropriate definition of: a. sport physiology b.exercise nutrition c. exercise physiology d. overtraining | back 13 c. exercise physiology |
front 14 Physical educators in the public school setting may use which of the following to estimate aerobic capacity? a.) a maximal oxygen consumption treadmill test b.) a one-mile run test c.) a maximal oxygen consumption cycle ergometer test d.) an arm ergometer test | back 14 b. a one-mile run |
front 15 In a cross-sectional research study, participants are tested one or more times after initial testing to determine changes in a particular variable or variables over time. a. true b. false | back 15 b. false |
front 16 Homeostasis is best defined as: a.) a low metabolic rate b.) a change within the internal environment c.)organ systems, tissues, cells, and molecules working to regulate our internal environment d.) a normal external environment | back 16 c.) organ systems, tissues, cells, and molecules working to regulate our internal environment |
front 17 Diurnal variation refers to: a.) fluctuations in physiological responses that occur during a 24-hour day b.) variations in physiological responses that occur within a 2-hour time frame c.) day-to-day variation in the amount of urine expelled over a 24-hour day d.) seasonal variations in physiological responses | back 17 a.) fluctuations in physiological responses that occur during a 24-hour day |
front 18 Which of the following can alter the body's acute response to exercise? a.) environmental temperature b.) the participant's last meal c.) the menstrual cycle d.) All of these are correct. | back 18 d. all of these are correct |
front 19 Electrical stimulation provides the most benefit for muscle strength when: a.) employed during immobilization after an injury b.) alternated with isokinetic resistance training c.) used concurrently with eccentric resistance training d.) substituted for variable-resistance training | back 19 a. employed during immobilization after an injury |
front 20 An increase in the demands on the body beyond that at which it is normally stressed to make further improvement is the principle of: a. progressive underload b. overload c. overtraining d. specificity | back 20 b. overload |
front 21 Which two factors are most commonly manipulated in training for increased performance? a. intensity and frequency b. frequency and rest intervals c. rest intervals and volume d. volume and intensity | back 21 d. volume and intensity |
front 22 Who would be most likely to have similar responses to a given training program? a. identical twins b. two 150 lb, 5' 10" athletes c. two female swimmers d. two elite 10 k runners | back 22 a. identical twins |
front 23 Which of these is not a priority when designing a program to increase strength in action-specific movements? a. engage large muscle groups b. utilize multiple-joint exercises c. program high number of reps and sets d. emphasize higher-intensity efforts | back 23 c. program high number of reps and sets |
front 24 Training adaptations highly specific to type of activity, training volume, and intensity is the principle of: a. progressive overload b. recuperation c. specificity d. reversibility | back 24 c. specificity |
front 25 Plyometric training takes advantage of the: a. withdrawal reflex b. Bainbridge reflex c. stretch reflex d. Babinski reflex | back 25 c. stretch reflex |
front 26 As muscles become stronger, what is required to continue gaining strength? a. higher resistance b. lower intensity c. decreased overload d. continuation of the same training program | back 26 a. higher resistance |
front 27 Which elbow joint angle is associated with the weakest force generated by the biceps? a. 100° b. 120° c. 140° d. 180° | back 27 d. 180° |
front 28 The loss of exercise capacity, strength, and performance after cessation of training is the principle of: a. progressive underload b. periodization c. microcycling d. reversibility | back 28 d. reversibility |
front 29 Compared to someone who can squat 75 kg, someone else who can squat 150 kg has: a. twice the power b. twice the strength c. twice the muscular endurance d. twice the 5-repetition maximum | back 29 b. twice the strength |
front 30 If the rate of oxidative production of ATP is low, then: a. aerobic power is low b. aerobic power is high c. anaerobic power is low d. anaerobic power is high | back 30 a. aerobic power is low |
front 31 Strength is synonymous with power. a. true b. false | back 31 b. false |
front 32 Advanced weight lifters should particularly emphasize: a. isokinetic resistance training b. isometric resistance training c. free-weight resistance training d. machine resistance training | back 32 c. free-weight resistance training |
front 33 The explosive aspect of strength is: a. muscle endurance b. aerobic power c. maximal anaerobic power d. power | back 33 d. power |
front 34 Isokinetic training ensures that: a. resistance remains constant b. speed remains constant c. joint angle remains constant d. number of reps and sets remains constant | back 34 b. speed remains constant |
front 35 Which contractile result of rate coding will produce the most force? a. twitch b. summation c. tetanus d, all produce the same degree of force | back 35 c. tetanus |
front 36 Type I muscle fibers: a. have a high oxidative capacity b. store large quantities of glycogen c. generate force quickly d. fatigue quickly | back 36 a. have a high oxidative capacity |
front 37 Why does a sarcomere that is too short or too stretched produce less force? a. Thick filaments get damaged. b. Thin filaments become unraveled. c. Not as many cross-bridges can form. d. The reduction in force is negligible and can be ignored. | back 37 c. Not as many cross-bridges can form |
front 38 Which protein shields the myosin-binding site, preventing contraction from happening at rest? a. actin b. myosin c. troponin d. tropomyosin | back 38 d. tropomyosin |
front 39 Muscle found in the walls of the bladder is an example of: a. cardiac muscle b. skeletal muscle c. smooth muscle | back 39 c. smooth muscle |
front 40 Which of these is the correct order of skeletal muscle hierarchical organization, from largest structure to smallest structure? a. muscle fasciculus, entire muscle, myofibril, muscle fiber b. entire muscle, muscle fasciculus, muscle fiber, myofibril c. muscle fiber, myofibril, entire muscle, muscle fasciculus d. myofibril, muscle fiber, muscle fasciculus, entire muscle | back 40 b. entire muscle, muscle fasciculus, muscle fiber, myofibril |
front 41 Which is the correct order of events in a contraction? a. T-tubule action potential, Ca2+ gathered in, cross-bridging, Ca2+ released b. Ca2+ released, cross-bridging, Ca2+ gathered in, T-tubule action potential c. cross-bridging, Ca2+ released, Ca2+ gathered in, T-tubule action potential d. T-tubule action potential, Ca2+ released, cross-bridging, Ca2+ gathered in | back 41 d. T-tubule action potential, Ca2+ released, cross-bridging, Ca2+ gathered in |
front 42 According to the size principle, which motor unit will be recruited first for a task? a. the motor unit with the smallest motor neuron b. the motor unit with the skinniest muscle fibers c. the motor unit with the most muscle fibers d. the motor unit with the largest motor neuron | back 42 a. the motor unit wit the smalles motor neuron |
front 43 For a very heavy lifting task, type IIx fibers are recruited first because they are most appropriate for the job. a. true b. false | back 43 b. false |
front 44 Glycogen is stored in which region of a muscle fiber? a. sarcoplasm b. sarcolemma c. sarcoplasmic reticulum d. T-tubules | back 44 a. sarcoplasm |
front 45 If I need to lift a heavy box of books, I will be most successful if I try to lift it quickly and use momentum to help me. a. true b. false | back 45 b. false |
front 46 During concentric contractions, increasing the speed of contraction will: a. increase the force produced b. have no effect on the force produced c. decrease the force produced | back 46 c. decrease the force produced |
front 47 Ca2+ ions (essential for contraction) are stored in the: a. sarcoplasm b. sarcolemma c. sarcoplasmic reticulum d. T-tubules | back 47 c. sarcoplasmic reticulum |
front 48 Type II fibers: a. are very fatigue resistant b. contain high levels of myoglobin c. are also called slow twitch d. have more fibers per motor unit | back 48 d. have more fibers per motor unit |
front 49 The process of muscle contraction involves which ion? a. Na+ b. K+ c. Ca2+ d. Cl- | back 49 c. Ca2+ |
front 50 Genetic factors appear to be most influential in determining the percentage of type I versus type II fibers. a. true b. false | back 50 a. true |
front 51 According to the length-tension relationship, a muscle will be functionally weaker if it is too stretched or too short. a. true b. false | back 51 a. true |
front 52 Thick filaments are primarily made of which protein? a. actin b. myosin c. troponin d. tropomyosin | back 52 b. myosin |
front 53 Both type II fibers and type II motor units tend to be larger compared to type I fibers and motor units. a. true b. false | back 53 a. true |
front 54 As intensity increases, in which order are fibers recruited? a. type IIx, type IIa, type I b. type IIa, type I, type IIx c. type I, type IIx, type IIa d. type I, type IIa, type IIx | back 54 d. type I, type IIa, type IIx |
front 55 During _____________, a neuron can only be stimulated by a stronger-than-normal stimulus. a. the absolute refractory period b. depolarization c. the relative refractory period d. rest | back 55 c. the relative refractory period |
front 56 In a resting neuron, the intracellular environment is more negative compared to the extracellular environment. a. true b. false | back 56 a. true |
front 57 If membrane potential changes from -40 mV to 30 mV, this is an example of: a. depolarization b. repolarization c. hyperpolarization d. threshold polarization | back 57 a. depolarization |
front 58 Which receptors would tell the brain that the elbow was fully extended but is now bending quickly? a. muscle spindles b. Golgi tendon organs c. chemoreceptors d. joint kinesthetic receptors | back 58 d. joint kinesthetic receptors |
front 59 The cerebellum consciously controls movement. a. true b. false | back 59 b. false ( it unconsciously controls fine movement) |
front 60 The sympathetic nervous system would contribute to: a. increased heart rate b. skeletal muscle contraction c. skeletal muscle inhibition d. increased energy conservation | back 60 a. increased heart rate *Remember sympathetic is "flight or fight" and parasympathetic is "rest and digest" |
front 61 If someone is having trouble passing a roadside sobriety test (walk the line, touch the nose, etc.), which region of the brain is affected? a. diencephalon b. cerebellum c. midbrain d. medulla oblongata | back 61 b. cerebellum |
front 62 A reflex is a fast, involuntary response to a stimulus. a. true b. false | back 62 a. true |
front 63 The membrane potential at which an action potential will definitely occur is the: a. allowance potential b. permissive voltage c. threshold d. fulfilled potential | back 63 c. threshold |
front 64 _____ is most important for depolarization; _____ is most important for repolarization. a. Na+ , K+ b. K+ , Na+ c. Cl- , K+ d. Na+, Cl- | back 64 a. Na+, K+ |
front 65 A motor unit with a neuron:fiber ratio of 1:20 might be found innervating the: a. tensor tympani muscle of the eardrum b. biceps brachii muscle of the upper arm c. quadriceps muscles of the thigh d. abdominal muscles | back 65 a. tensor tympani muscle of the eardrum |
front 66 Which neurotransmitter binds to receptors on the motor end plate of a neuromuscular junction? a. norepinephrine b. acetylcholine c. serotonin d. dopamine | back 66 b. acetylcholine |
front 67 The job of an afferent neuron is to: a. send impulses from the body to the brain b. send impulses from the brain to the body c. send impulses to skeletal muscle d. send impulses to the viscera (heart, lungs, etc.) | back 67 a. send impulses from the body to the brain |
front 68 If membrane potential changes from -70 mV to -55 mV, what will happen? a. An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) will be generated. b. An excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) will be generated. c. An action potential will be generated. d. Nothing will happen. This change in millivolts is negligible. | back 68 c. An action potential will be generated |
front 69 Motor units can contain multiple types of muscle fibers. a. true b. false | back 69 b. false |
front 70 The fastest impulses travel on axons that are: a. myelinated and large b. unmyelinated and large c. myelinated and small d. unmyelinated and small | back 70 a. myelinated and large |
front 71 _____________ training is critical in developing fiber hypertrophy. a. Concentric b. Anaerobic c. Variable-resistance d. Eccentric | back 71 d. Eccentric |
front 72 In untrained individuals, motor units are recruited asynchronously. a. true b. false | back 72 a. true |
front 73 Acute muscle soreness is caused by edema formation and muscle swelling. a. true b. false | back 73 a. true |
front 74 What role do white blood cells play in the development of DOMS? a. They phagocytose cell membranes, causing muscle enzymes to leak into the bloodstream. b. They destroy sarcomere structural proteins, leading to excitation-contraction problems. c. They fight muscle infections that cause DOMS. d. They secrete inflammatory substances that activate pain nerves in muscle. | back 74 d. They secrete inflammatory substances that activate pain nerves in muscle |
front 75 It is unsafe for children and adolescents to engage in a resistance training program. a. true b. false | back 75 b. false |
front 76 Resistance training can decrease inhibitory impulses to agonist muscles by reducing: a. frequency of stimulation b. coactivation c. asynchronization d. autogenic inhibition | back 76 d. autogenic inhibition |
front 77 DOMS is associated with inflammatory mediators but not actual structural damage to the muscle. a. true b. false | back 77 b. false |
front 78 Immobilization primarily affects: a. type I fibers b. type IIa fibers c. type IIx fibers d. all fiber types equally | back 78 a. type I fibers |
front 79 Removal of autogenic inhibition most likely plays a key role in "superhuman" feats of strength. a. true b. false | back 79 a. true |
front 80 Which of these is NOT a cause of strength loss with DOMS? a. physical disruption of muscle structure b. failure of excitation-contraction coupling process c. loss of contractile proteins d. long-term accumulation of lactic acid in muscle tissue | back 80 d. long-term accumulation of lactic acid in muscle tissue |
front 81 DOMS is ______________ the development of fiber hypertrophy. a. essential for b. counteractive to c. independent of d. optional for | back 81 a. essential for |
front 82 Transient hypertrophy is primarily stimulated by: a. edema b. lactic acid accumulation c. glycogen depletion d. fluid and electrolyte losses | back 82 a. edema |
front 83 Protein synthesis ___________ during exercise and ____________ after exercise. a. increases, decreases b. decreases, decreases c. increases, increases d. decreases, increases | back 83 d. decreases, increases |
front 84 Absolute strength gains are typically greatest in: a. women b. men c. children d. the elderly | back 84 b. men |
front 85 The neuromuscular system is: a. one of the most responsive systems to training b. very difficult to train c. fully developed by puberty d. more responsive as humans age | back 85 a. one of the most responsive systems to training |
front 86 Strength losses after immobilization are greatest during the ___________. a. first day b. first week c. first 2 weeks d. first month | back 86 b. first week |
front 87 When motor units contract more synchronously, a. muscles cannot sustain steady forces anymore b. muscles increase the rate of force development c. the ability to generate force is impeded d. a single motor neuron now innervates several motor units | back 87 b. muscles increase the rate of force development |
front 88 Strength gains cannot occur unless there is an increase in muscle size. a. true b. false | back 88 b. false |
front 89 The acronym EAMC is short for: a. exercise-ameliorated muscle cramps b. exercise-associated myogenic contractions c. exercise-aggravated muscle coupling d. exercise-associated muscle cramps | back 89 d. exercise-associated muscle cramps |
front 90 Resistance training is only beneficial for competitive athletes. a. true b. false | back 90 b. false |
front 91 Which of the following will likely result in the most severe DOMS? a. aerobic training around town or in the park b. sprint interval training on the track c. downhill-running interval training d. uphill-running Fartleks | back 91 c. downhill-running interval training |
front 92 Which intracellular change likely contributes the most to increases in fiber size, cross-sectional area, and strength? a. more sarcoplasm b. more mitochondria c. more actin and myosin filaments d. more connective tissue | back 92 c. more actin and myosin filaments |
front 93 The risk of DOMS after a given training session can be reduced by which training strategy? a. train at high intensity with both resistance and anaerobic training components b. train with primarily intense eccentric exercise c. reduce eccentric component of muscle action d. employ more downhill exercise in the training program | back 93 c. reduce eccentric component of muscle action |
front 94 ________________ is often caused by accumulation of fluid or H+. a. DOMS b. Acute muscle soreness c. Chronic hypertrophy d. Fiber hyperplasia | back 94 b. acute muscle soreness |