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Lab exam 2

front 1

What is chemically defined and give an example.

back 1

media is composed of exact amounts of chemically pure, specifically identified organic or inorganic components.

-glucose salt broth

-inorganic synthetic broth

front 2

What is complex media and give an example.

back 2

composed of organic materials that are not chemically pure and not specifically identified chemical components

-nutrient broth/agar

-tryptic soy broth/agar

-blood agar

front 3

What is enriched media and give an example.

Why is it necessary for growing fastidious bacteria?

back 3

-composed of general purpose media that has something added to help fastidious bacteria (those that require specific nutrients in order to grow, "picky eaters") to grow better

-blood agar, nutrient broth with yeast extract

front 4

What is the relationship between the amount of bacteria in a culture and the absorbance?

back 4

-directly related

-as the amount of bacteria increases, the amount of turbidity increases, therefore the absorbance is increased.

front 5

What is the relationship between the amount of bacteria in a culture and the transmittance?

back 5

-indirectly related

-100% transmittance would be your reading with zero cells

front 6

Would heterotrophic organisms grow well in inorganic salt media? Why or why not?

back 6

-heterotrophic organisms require organic compound for their energy and carbon source.

-without any organic molecules in the media, the bacteria will have nothing for energy or carbon.

-the bacteria will not grow in this media

front 7

Why is complex media generally used to cultivate microorganisms?

back 7

-it has lots of nutrients which would be required for the growth of most microorganisms.

-for most microbes, this is enough for growth

front 8

Describe the minimum, optimal and maximum growth temperatures.

back 8

minimal-the lowest temperature at which a bacterial population can survive

optimal-the temperature at which bacteria thrive (greatest rate of metabolism and reproduction)

maximum-the highest temperature at which a bacterial population can survive

front 9

list the temperature range for Psychrophiles

back 9

0oC - 15oC (with a range of -15o C - 20oC)

front 10

List the temperature range for Mesophiles

back 10

20oC - 40oC (with a range of 10oC - 50oC)

front 11

List the temperature range for thermophiles

back 11

45oC - 80oC (with a range of 45oC - 80oC)

front 12

List the temperature range for hyperthermophiles

back 12

80oC and up

front 13

Differentiate between aerobes, anaerobes, facultatives and microaerophiles

back 13

obligate aerobes-have the ability to live in oxygen and require oxygen for metabolism

obligate anaerobes-are not able to live in oxygen and do not require oxygen for metabolism

facultative-have to preference, growth is seen in both aerobic and anaerobic environments

microaerophiles-can grow in oxygen, but only require a small amount for metabolism

front 14

Describe how the anaerobic chamber achieves an anaerobic environment.

back 14

anaerobic chambers take oxygen out of the air, combine it with hydrogen, and produce water

front 15

Describe the indicator that an anaerobic environment is present

back 15

condensation on the inside of the container

front 16

What is fermentation?

back 16

anaerobic metabolism in which organic molecules are the end electron receptor

front 17

What is being distinguished in the carbohydrate fermentation test?

back 17

Whether the bacteria ferment this sugar to an acid, or an acid and a gas

front 18

What is the indicator used in the carbohydrate fermentation test?

back 18

phenol red indicator

-yellow when acidic and hot pink when basic

front 19

What is the appearance of a positive result for a carbohydrate fermentation to an acid? To a gas?

back 19

-yellow

-a bubble is present in the durham tube

front 20

What is the appearance of a negative result for carbohydrate fermentation to an acid? To a gas?

back 20

-red

-no bubble in the durham tube

front 21

What sugar is in the MR-VP broth?

back 21

glucose

front 22

What is being distinguished in the MR and VP test?

back 22

MR-fermentation results in mixed acids

VP-glucose fermentation results in acetoin production

front 23

What reagents are used in the MR and VP test?

back 23

MR-Methyl Red Indicator

VP-alpha naphthol, 40% potassium hydroxide

front 24

What is the appearance of a positive result for the MR and VP tests:

back 24

both are red

front 25

What is the appearance of a negative result for the MR and VP tests

back 25

both are coppery or have no color change

front 26

Explain why you would expect no growth on the LB/amp/-DNA plate

back 26

the bacteria is sensitive to ampicillin and ampicillin is present in the media

front 27

Explain why you would expect isolated colonies to grow on the LB/amp/+DNA plate.

back 27

-not all bacteria obtained the plasmid containing the ampicillin resistant gene, therefore you get isolated colonies instead of a lawn of growth

front 28

Explain the purpose of the arabinose on the LB/amp/ara/+DNA plate

back 28

Arabinose is a sugar that acts as an inducer to the gfp gene. When arabinose is present it removes the inhibitor from the section of the plasmid containing the gfp gene and allows transcription and translation to take place. The gfp gene produces the green fluorescent protein and causes colonies of bacteria to have a green fluorescent glow when exposed to UV light

front 29

Explain why you would expect a lawn of growth on the LB/-DNA plate

back 29

There is no ampicillin present in the media to inhibit the growth of the bacteria on the plate

front 30

What is selective media?

back 30

media that prevent the growth of one type of bacteria so that only one kind of bacteria grows on the plate

front 31

What is differential media?

back 31

media that differentiates one kind of bacteria from another by a color change

front 32

Can a media be both selective and differential?

back 32

yes

front 33

BAP plate

back 33

-enriched with 5% sheep's blood

-differential for type of hemolysis

front 34

MSA plate

back 34

-selective with 7.5% salt for salt tolerant bacteria (gram +)

-differential for mannitol fermentation

-indicator is Phenol Red

-pH <7 is yellow

front 35

EMB plate

back 35

-selective with Eosin and Methylene Blue for Gram- bacteria

-differential for lactose fermentation

-indicator is Eosin and Methylene Blue

-lots of acid accumulated=green metallic sheen

front 36

MAC plate

back 36

-selective with bile salts and crystal violet for Gram- bacteria

-differential for lactose fermentation

-indicator is neutral red

-pH <7 is pink precipitate

front 37

PEA plate

back 37

-selective with phenylethanol tolerance for gram+ bacteria

front 38

Starch hydrolysis (amylase)

back 38

-if starch is hydrolyzed by amylase (produced by bacteria), then no starch will be present around the bacteria

-reagent: iodine will detect starch in the media by producing a blue/black precipitate

-positive for starch hydrolysis: clear zone around the bacteria

front 39

Catalase

back 39

-catalase (enzyme) breaks down hydrogen peroxide (substrate) into water and oxygen

-oxygen bubbles: effervescence is a positive result for catalase production

front 40

Phenylalanine Deaminase

back 40

Phenylalanine deaminase (enzyme) will work on phenylalanine by removing the amine group to produce phenylpyruvic acid and ammonia

-Reagent: ferric chloride combined with phenylpyruvic acid to produce a green color = a positive for phenylalanine deaminase enzyme

front 41

SIM: Hydrogen Sulfide (Sulfur)

back 41

-amino acids that are metabolized, theosulfates, sulfates and sulfites are reduced by the bacteria to produce hydrogen sulfide

-presence is a black precipitate in medium = positive result for H2S production

front 42

SIM: Indole

back 42

- Tryptophanase is the enzyme that hydrolyzes Tryptophan. Indole is a product of Tryptophan hydrolysis.

-Reagent: Kovac’s reagent - Dark pink color = positive for Indole production

front 43

SIM: Motility

back 43

-medium is semi-solid and allows the bacteria to move throughout the medium if it is motile.

-Motile bacteria will make the entire medium look cloudy or opaque.

front 44

Urease

back 44

-Urease (enzyme) breaks down urea (substrate) producing ammonia.

-Indicator: phenol red;

-Positive for urease production = hot pink

front 45

Simmon's Citrate

back 45

-Tests for the ability of the bacteria to utilize the citrate in the media as the sole source of carbon with the citrase enzyme.

-Bacteria that do this then use the ammonium hydroxide and ammonium phosphate as a sole source of nitrogen. When they break down the ammonium phosphate and ammonium hydroxide, they release ammonia. This raises the pH to produce a basic environment.

-Bromthymol blue in the medium is the indicator which will turn Prussian blue (KU blue) when it is basic and yellow when it is acidic. So a positive result for Citrate Utilization = Prussian blue (KU blue) color. A Negative result for Citrate Utilization = forest green color (no change in the color)

front 46

Define transient microbiota

back 46

This is the bacteria that have been picked up throughout the day as we are exposed to them. They have not (yet) colonized the body and if pathogens, have not breached the
physical barriers

front 47

Define normal microbiota

back 47

Normal microbiota are bacteria that have colonized the body (not just the skin). They are normally commensals which do not harm us, or mutualists which help us while they help themselves

front 48

Name 4 locations where normal microbiota is present on the host

back 48

-Skin

-Upper Respiratory Tract

-Lower Respiratory Tract

-Digestive Tract (Oral Cavity, Large Intestine and Rectum)

-Urinary Tract (External Urethra)

-Genital Tract (Vagina).

front 49

Describe the ecological relationship between most normal microbiota and the host

back 49

Most are commensals (win/null (no affect) or have a mutualism (win/win) relationship. Some can be pathogenic, if given the opportunity (opportunistic pathogens).

front 50

Explain how normal microbiota can sometimes be an opportunistic pathogen

back 50

If microbiota crosses physical barriers into normally sterile compartments of the body, or if the host is immuncompromised, the microbe can cause disease

front 51

Use "texture" to describe a colony on a plate.

back 51

can be smooth, rough, shiny and/or dull

front 52

Use "shapes" to describe a colony on a plate:

back 52

-punctiform: a pin point small colony

-circular

-filamentous: fuzzy or thin extensions coming from the center

-irregular

-rhizoid: root-like extensions come from the center

-spindle: football shaped

front 53

Use "elevation" to describe a colony on a plate

back 53

-flat

-raised

-convex

-pulvinate: like a water droplet on a surface

-umbonate: raised area in the center

front 54

Use "margin" to describe a colony on a plate

back 54

-even: entire, smooth regular edge

-undulate: wavy

-filamentous: thin filaments from the center

-lobulate: lobular extensions from center

-erose: serrated, like a blade

-curled: similar to a bullseye target

front 55

antiseptic

back 55

a chemical used to control microbes on an animate surface

front 56

disinfectant

back 56

chemicals used to control microbes on an inanimate surface

front 57

Give examples of antiseptics

back 57

-hydrogen peroxide

-alcohol

-iodine

front 58

Give examples of disinfectants

back 58

-lysol

front 59

What are the factors that affect the efficiency of the disinfectants and antiseptics?

back 59

  1. concentration of the chemical
  2. length of exposure
  3. type of microbial population to be destroyed
  4. environmental conditions (temp & pH)

front 60

What does the zone of inhibition indicate about the bacteria's relationship to the chemical?

back 60

-the zone of inhibition is related to the sensitivity or resistance of the bacteria to an antibiotic

-the larger the zone, the more effective the antibiotic

front 61

Define antibiotic

back 61

a chemical produced by certain species of bacteria and fungi for the purpose of competing better with their competition. The term traditionally refers to the naturally acquired chemotherapeutic agents. However, so many of the naturally occurring antibiotics have been chemically changed in the laboratory that most of the antibiotics are truly “semi-synthetic” and not true antibiotics

front 62

Define chemotherapeutic

back 62

a general term that describes any chemical that can be used in the treatment or prevention of disease (it thus includes cancer chemotherapeutic agents as well as infectious disease chemotherapeutic agents).

front 63

What is the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) and how is it determined?

back 63

-the most dilute concentration of antibiotics that are still able to kill microbes.

-Two methods are used – the MIC test uses several tubes of serially diluted antibiotics (1:2, 1:4, 1:8, etc…), the same concentration/amount of bacteria is added to each tube and incubated. The MIC is then determined by looking at the most dilute solution that is still effective against the bacteria (no growth in the tube).

-The second method is the E-Test in which strips with increasing dilutions of the antibiotic on the back side of the strip are placed on an inoculated plate. Wherever the zone of inhibition crosses the strip, that indicates the MIC.

front 64

What conditions must be controlled to make the MIC test repeatable and accurate?

back 64

  1. Temperature and Time of Inoculation: 37˚C for 24-48 hours
  2. Concentration of Bacteria: 0.5 McFarland Turbidity
  3. Standard Concentration of Antibiotics: Standardized discs with antibiotics
  4. Type of media: Mueller Hinton Agar

front 65

What are the modes of action for the antibiotics used in our lab.

back 65

-azithromycin: 50S protein synthesis

-PCN: cell wall

-ciprofloxacin: nucleic acid-DNA

-sulfamethoxazole X trimethroprim: folic acid metabolism

-tetracycline: 30S protein synthesis

front 66

Name the 5 genera of Enterobacteriaciae bacteria tested for in this unknown lab.

Why are biochemical tests required to identify bacteria?

back 66

  1. Escherichia
  2. Pseudomonas
  3. Klebsiella
  4. Proteus
  5. Salmonella

The bacteria all are gram negative rods and without biochemical tests, they are difficult to distinguish.

front 67

Why are biochemical tests required to identify the genus of these bacteria?

back 67

The biochemical tests indicate a set of unique characteristics

front 68

How are fermentation tests used to identify bacteria?

back 68

The results of fermentation are unique to each genus and can help identify the microbe

front 69

What are the five I’s of the microbiology lab and how were they used in this lab?

back 69

  1. Inoculation – when the media was inoculated
  2. Isolation – when the streak plate was performed
  3. Incubation – when the bacteria was incubated after inoculation
  4. Inspection – when the gram stain was observed
  5. Identification – when the bacteria was identified using biochemical tests

front 70

What does ELISA mean?

back 70

Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay

front 71

Why is it better to have and Enzyme-linked antibody rather than Substrate-linked antibodies in this test?

back 71

Enzymes are recycled and only one enzyme linked antibody would be enough to create a visible change in the well to indicate an antigen/antibody reaction had occurred. If only one Substrate-linked antibody was present, that would not be adequate to be able to create a visible change

front 72

Where did the primary antibody come from in an indirect ELISA test?

back 72

patient's serum (if present)

front 73

Why should the secondary antibody stick to the primary antibody in an indirect ELISA test?

back 73

It is an anti-IgG antibody and will attach to any antibodies still in the well.

front 74

Why is it necessary to switch tips or pipettes when removing serum from the wells of different rows (between patients’ serum or between different dilutions).

back 74

To prevent any false positives from mixing of patients’ serum.

front 75

Why is it necessary to wash between each step?

back 75

This is to wash away any antibodies or antigens that did not stick to the wells or to the known antibodies/antigens.

front 76

What type of diagnostic test is the Bactistaph Test?

back 76

Passive Agglutinations

front 77

What is the Bactistaph test testing for to identify Staph bacteria?

back 77

Protein A is a part of the Coagulase enzyme that helps determine if the bacteria is Staphylococcus aureus or not.

front 78

What type of diagnostic test is the Group A Strep Test?

back 78

It is a type of Direct ELISA test (Sandwich Capture).

front 79

How are Streptococcus bacteria classified?

back 79

The two main ways that they can be classified are their Lancefield group of Carbohydrate Chain (Group A, B, C, etc….), or by Hemolysis (Beta hemolytic, Alpha hemolytic).