241 notecards = 61 pages (4 cards per page)
The functional and structural unit of the kidneys is the ________.
List and describe three pressures operating at the filtration membrane, and explain how each influences net filtration pressure.
Glomerlar hydrostatic is the main force pushing water across the filtration membrane.Glmelar Osmotic pressure of the plama in the blood drive fluids back into thecappilaries. The third would be the Glumealar capsule also is with osmotic pushing substances into the capillaries.
The urinary bladder is composed of ________ epithelium.
Which of the following is the correct sequence of kidney development from embryo to fetus?
pronephros, mesonephros, metanephros
The single most important blood buffer system is the bicarbonate buffer system.
Molecules that can act reversibly as acids or bases depending upon the pH of their environment are called ________.
Which of the following is not a chemical buffer system?
What hormone reduces blood pressure and blood volume by inhibiting nearly all events that promote vasoconstriction and sodium ion and water retention?
atrial natriuretic peptide
Respiratory acidosis results when lungs are obstructed and gas exchange is inefficient.
When does a person experience greater thirst, during periods when ADH release is elicited or during periods when aldosterone release is elicited?
ADH is released to tell the body there is not enough water and to conserve and hold onto it. It tell you are thirsty because you are dehydrated and need to drink water to replenish your body
Aldosterone is secreted in response to low extracellular potassium.
Whereas sodium is found mainly in the extracellular fluid, most ________ is found in the intracellular fluid.
Thirst is always a reliable indicator of body water need.
Atrial natriuretic peptide reduces blood pressure and blood volume by inhibiting nearly all events that promote vasodilation and potassium and water retention.
Problems with fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base balance are particularly common in infants because of their ________.
Which of the following does not depend on the presence of electrolytes?
amount of body fat
The electrolyte deficiency condition where the individual may crave substances like clay, chalk, starch or burnt match tips is called ________.
When aldosterone release is inhibited, sodium reabsorption cannot occur beyond the distal convoluted tubule.
Which cells of the kidney are chemoreceptors that respond to changes in solute content of the filtrate?
macula densa cells
In the kidneys, the countercurrent mechanism involves the interaction between the flow of filtrate through the nephron loop of the juxtamedullary nephrons (the countercurrent multiplier) and the flow of blood through the limbs of adjacent blood vessels (the countercurrent exchanger). This relationship establishes and maintains an osmotic gradient extending from the cortex through the depths of the medulla that allows the kidneys to vary urine concentration dramatically.
The fatty tissue surrounding the kidneys is important because it ________.
stabilizes the position of the kidneys by holding them in their normal position
An important characteristic of urine is its specific gravity or density, which is ________.
slightly higher than water
Angiotensin II is a substance made by the body to lower blood pressure during stress.
Cells that are most affected by ADH.
Blood pressure in the renal glomerulus is lower than in most parts of the body in order to conserve body water.
Atrial natriuretic peptide inhibits sodium reabsorption.
Having a kinked ureter is called renal ptosis.
Which of the following is not associated with the renal corpuscle?
a vasa recta
Select the correct statement about urinary system development.
Kidneys develop from urogenital ridges.
In the ascending limb of the nephron loop the ________.
thick segment moves ions out into interstitial spaces for reabsorption
The collecting duct is impermeable to water in the presence of ADH.
The descending limb of the nephron loop ________.
contains fluid that becomes more concentrated as it moves down into the medulla
Incontinence is the inability to control voluntary micturition.
A disease caused by inadequate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) by the pituitary gland with symptoms of polyuria is ________.
Humans can survive for a period of time without water thanks to the ability of the kidneys to produce concentrated urine. Briefly explain the factors that allow this to happen.
Reabsorption depends on the presence of the antidiuretic hormone, with it the porins of the collecting tubule filter water with osmosis and increases as it goes down. So water is conserved and becomes concentrated…….it continues and is why it gets dehydrated trying to save water.
The function of angiotensin II is to ________.
constrict arterioles and increase blood pressure
The fluid in the glomerular (Bowman's) capsule is similar to plasma except that it does not contain a significant amount of ________.
Which of the following does not describe the justaglomerular complex?
Its macula densa cells produce aldosterone.
The proximal convoluted tubule is the portion of the nephron that attaches to the collecting duct.
Which of the choices below is the least important role of tubular secretion?
ridding the body of bicarbonate ions
If the GFR is too low, needed substances may pass so quickly through the renal tubules that they are not absorbed and instead are lost in the urine.
Cells that are the most active in reabsorbing the filtrate.
The act of emptying the bladder is called voiding.
Sodium-linked water flow across a membrane not under hormonal control is called ________ water reabsorption.
Medulla of the kidney.
Which of the following is not a part of the juxtaglomerular complex?
Both the male and female urethras serve the urinary and the reproductive systems.
ADH activated water channels called ________ are essential for water reabsorption in the collecting duct.
Reabsorption of high levels of glucose and amino acids in the filtrate is accomplished by ________.
secondary active transport
Which of the choices below are the most important hormone regulators of electrolyte reabsorption and secretion?
angiotensin II and aldosterone
The ________ artery lies on the boundary between the cortex and medulla of the kidney.
Glomerular filtration is an ATP-driven process.
Which of the choices below is not a method by which the cells of the renal tubules can raise blood pH?
by secreting sodium ions
Which of the following is the least important influence on reabsorption of a substance in the nephron?
Which of the choices below is not a glomerular filtration rate control method?
Explain what is meant by the terms cotransport process and transport maximum.
Cotransport means the active transport process of one solute, meaning against the concentration gradient. Transport maximum means the number of carriers in the renel tubes to a certain substance.
The presence of pus in the urine is a condition called ________.
The ________ mechanism is the general tendency of vascular smooth muscle to contract when stretched.
Most electrolyte reabsorption by the renal tubules is ________.
hormonally controlled in distal tubule segments
The mechanism that establishes the medullary osmotic gradient depends most on the permeability properties of the ________.
Which of the hormones below is responsible for facultative water reabsorption?
Urea is reabsorbed in the nephron loop.
What would happen if the capsular hydrostatic pressure were increased above normal?
Net filtration would decrease.
The chief force pushing water and solutes out of the blood across the filtration membrane is ________.
glomerular hydrostatic pressure (glomerular blood pressure)
Is composed of simple squamous epithelium.
Proximal convoluted tubule.
Site at which most of the tubular reabsorption occurs
Site of filtrate formation.
Blood supply that directly receives substances from the tubular cells.
Site that drains distal convoluted tubule
Identify three ways the small intestine is modified to increase the surface area for digestion and absorption.
Villi and microvilli are modifications of the small intestine for digestion and absorption.
Which of the following is an essential role played by large intestine bacteria?
synthesize vitamin K and B-complex vitamins
Ionic iron is actively transported into the mucosal cells, where it binds to the protein ferritin, a phenomenon called the mucosal iron barrier.
How is digestive activity provoked after eating? What activates the secretion of digestive juices into the lumen or hormones into the blood?
Mecanoreceptors and chemorecptors that are in the walls of the gastrointsonal tract. Mecanoreptors and (barorecptors) respond to stretching from the food being added. The pH change and new concentrations are detected by chemoreceptors and aid in digestion.
What stomach secretion is necessary for normal hemoglobin production in RBCs?
Pepsinogen is the precursor to the gastric enzyme for protein digestion and is secreted by the parietal cells.
If an incision has to be made in the small intestine to remove an obstruction, the first layer of tissue to be cut is the ________.
Short-chain triglycerides found in foods such as butterfat molecules in milk are split by a specific enzyme in preparation for absorption. Which of the following enzymes is responsible?
Cell type specialized to secrete mucus into the lumen of the intestinal tract.
The intrinsic ability of visceral smooth muscle to exhibit the stress-relaxation response is termed plasticity.
The ducts that deliver bile and pancreatic juice from the liver and pancreas, respectively, unite to form the ________.
There are three phases of gastric secretion. The cephalic phase occurs ________.
before food enters the stomach and is triggered by aroma, sight, or thought
Smooth muscle layer.
Bacteria process undigested chyme from the small intestine.
The solutes contained in saliva include ________.
electrolytes, digestive enzyme, mucin, lysozyme, wastes, and IgA
The circular folds of the small intestine enhance absorption by causing the chyme to spiral, rather than to move in a straight line, as it passes through the small intestine.
Compare and contrast the structure and function of a premolar and a molar.
Pre-molars- have a broader crown and only one root.
The layer of the digestive tube that contains blood vessels, lymphatic nodes, and a rich supply of elastic fibers is the ________.
Select the correct statement about the regulation of gastric secretion.
Gastric secretion can be stimulated before food has entered the mouth.
The protective outermost layer of the esophagus is the ________.
In addition to storage and mechanical breakdown of food, the stomach ________.
initiates protein digestion and denatures proteins
The pancreas has both an endocrine and an exocrine function.
What are chylomicrons?
They are little fat drops, and have fatty acids and cholesterol.
Structures that increase the absorptive area of the small intestine.
The major role of absorption in the ileum is to reclaim bile salts to be recycled back to the liver.
The law that applies to the amount of CO2 you could dissolve in a Pepsi is called ________ law.
The parietal pleura lines the thoracic wall.
The respiratory membrane is a combination of ________.
alveolar and capillary walls and their fused basement membranes
The partial pressure gradient for oxygen (in the body) is much steeper than that for carbon dioxide. Explain how equal amounts of these two gases can be exchanged (in a given time interval) in the lungs and at the tissues.
Having equal amounts of O2 and CO2 are exchanged in the lungs because CO2 is greater in the fluids like the plasma and alveolar fluid.
Which of the following incorrectly describes mechanisms of CO2 transport?
attached to the heme part of hemoglobin
Main (primary) bronchus.
Strong emotions and pain acting through the limbic system activate sympathetic centers in the hypothalamus, thus modulating respiratory rate and depth by sending signals to the respiratory centers.
The relationship between gas pressure and gas volume is described by ________.
Labored breathing is termed dyspnea.
Terminal bronchioles are lined with ________ epithelium.
The main site of gas exchange is the ________.
The alveolar ventilation rate is the best index of effective ventilation
If a baby is born at 28 weeks' gestation, what major problem will the doctors look for?
Aveolar cells are not developed, so there is a possibility that their lungs will collapse because they are not fully developed. They will have severe breathing problems.
What is the chloride shift and why does it occur?
Ionic exchange, Cl move from plasma to RBCs to balance the charges.
Air that does not participate in the exchange of gases.
Dalton's law states that the total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases is the sum of the pressures exerted independently by each gas in the mixture.
Increased temperature results in decreased O2 unloading from hemoglobin.
Which of the following is not a form of lung cancer?
Unlike inspiration, expiration is a passive act because no muscular contractions are involved. Expiration, however, depends on two factors. Which of the choices below lists those two factors?
the recoil of elastic fibers that were stretched during inspiration and the inward pull of surface tension due to the film of alveolar fluid
Which center is located in the pons?
pontine respirator group (PRG)
Surfactant helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing by ________.
interfering with the cohesiveness of water molecules, thereby reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid
Smoking diminishes ciliary action and eventually destroys the cilia.
Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs and through all cell membranes by ________.
The dartos and cremaster muscles are important to the integrity of the male reproductive system. Which of the following is true about the role they play?
B) They regulate the temperature of the testes.
2) The ability of sperm cells to move along the ductus deferens is due to ________.
B) peristaltic contractions
3) The ability of a male to ejaculate is due to the action of ________.
D) the bulbospongiosus muscles
4) The most important risk for testicular cancer in young males is ________.
C) nondescent of the testes
5) Which of the following glands are responsible for 60% of the synthesis of semen?
A) the seminal vesicles
6) Which of the following hormones controls the release of anterior pituitary gonadotropins?
7) Development of male reproductive structures depends on which of the following events?
C) secretion of male hormones prenatally and lasting into the first few months after birth
8) The primary function of the uterus is to ________.
D) receive, retain, and nourish a fertilized ovum
9) Why is the blood-testis barrier important?
A) because spermatozoa and developing cells produce surface antigens that are recognized as foreign by the immune system
10) The structures that receive the ovulated oocyte, providing a site for fertilization, are called the ________.
B) fallopian tubes
11) If gametes were diploid like somatic cells, how many chromosomes would the zygote contain?
A) twice the diploid number, and with every succeeding generation, the chromosome number would continue to double and normal development could not occur
12) Human egg and sperm are similar in that ________.
C) they have the same number of chromosomes
13) The constancy of the chromosome number from one cell generation to the next is maintained through ________.
14) Fertilization generally occurs in the ________.
D) fallopian tubes
15) Spermiogenesis involves the ________.
C) formation of a functional sperm by the stripping away of superfluous cytoplasm
16) All of the following can be considered male secondary sex characteristics except the ________.
C) development of testes as opposed to ovaries
17) In humans, separation of the cells at the two-cell state following fertilization may lead to the production of twins, which in this case would be ________.
18) Characteristics of the mature sperm include the ________.
B) presence of Y chromosomes in approximately half the sperm
19) How do the testes respond to exposure to excessive body warmth?
B) They move away from the pelvic cavity.
20) Effects of estrogen include ________.
C) growth of the breasts at puberty
21) Secretion of progesterone stimulates ________.
B) preparation of the mammary glands for lactation
22) Which of the following statements about sperm is not true?
B) They are sluggish in an alkaline environment.
23) The cells that produce testosterone in the testis are called ________.
D) interstitial cells
24) The testicular cells that construct the blood-testis barrier are the ________.
C) sustentacular cells
25) Which of the following occurs as a result of undescended testes?
C) Inadequate or nonviable sperm will be produced.
26) Erection of the penis results from ________.
D) a parasympathetic reflex
27) Which is not a part of the proliferative phase of the female menstrual cycle?
C) corpus luteum
28) Which of the choices below is not a function of the vagina?
A) serves as a passageway for the primary oocyte
Select the correct statement about male sexual response.
B) Erection is the result of vascular spaces in the erectile tissues filling with blood.
Which of the choices below is not a function of testosterone?
D) stimulates mammary gland development
Which male hormone inhibits the secretion of FSH?
During the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle ________.
B) progesterone levels are at their highest
Select the correct statement about the uterine cycle.
D) If fertilization occurs, the corpus luteum is maintained by a hormone secreted by the developing embryo.
Which of the following statements is true concerning the mammary glands of both males and females?
D) The mammary glands are modified sweat glands that are actually part of the integumentary system.
Which of the choices below is not a part of the brain-testicular axis?
Normally menstruation occurs when ________.
B) blood levels of estrogen and progesterone decrease
The basic difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis is that ________.
C) in oogenesis, one mature ovum is produced, and in spermatogenesis four mature sperm are produced from the parent cell
Occasionally three polar bodies are found clinging to the mature ovum. One came from an unequal division of the ovum, but from where did the other two arise?
C) The first polar body has also divided to produce two polar bodies.
Which of the following will occur after ovulation?
B) The endometrium enters its secretory phase.
Why doesn’t semen enter the urinary bladder during ejaculation?
C) The smooth muscle sphincter at the base of the urinary bladder closes
B) involves a kind of cell division limited to the gametes
Which hormone is absolutely necessary for ovulation to occur?
The brain-testicular axis ________.
B) involves FSH and LH release
Select the correct statement about testosterone control.
A) GnRH from the hypothalamus causes FSH and LH release from the anterior pituitary.
Which of the following is a correct statement about uterine tubes?
B) The infundibulum is the funnel-shaped region near the ovary.
Select the correct statement about the hormonal events of the ovarian cycle.
B) High estrogen levels result in a surge of LH release.
Which of these statements about sexually transmitted infections is false?
C) Syphilis is caused by a virus that may lead to death if untreated.
Which of the following statements about spermatogenesis is not true?
D) Each spermatid forms two sperm
A boy who has not passed through puberty sustains an injury to his anterior pituitary such that FSH is no longer released, but LH is normal. After he grows to maturity, one would expect that he would ________.
A) be sterile
Which of the following statements about the female reproductive process is not true?
C) Rebuilding the endometrium is under the control of prolactin.
A low secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) in the normal male adult would cause ________.
A) decreased testosterone secretion
All of the following statements referring to the uterine cycle are true except ________.
A) FSH and LH directly promote development of the uterine endometrium
Which of the following phases or processes in the monthly reproductive cycle of the female occur simultaneously?
D) regression of the corpus luteum and a decrease in ovarian progesterone secretion
The duct system of the male reproductive system does not include the ________.
D) corpus spongiosum
An ovulating oocyte is actually activated by hormones about ________ days before ovulation.
Prostate cancer is _______.
B) sometimes a slow-growing cancer that may never represent a threat to the patient
First cells with n number of chromosomes.
Type B spermatogonia.
Location of mitochondria.
Location of nucleus.
Area of compacted DNA.
The stage called ovulation.
Vesicular (Graafian) follicle.
It is necessary for the testes to be kept below body temperature.
The prostate atrophies as a man ages, and it usually causes no health problems.
The hormone oxytocin combines with enzymes in semen to enhance sperm motility.
When a couple is having difficulty conceiving a child, it is necessary to investigate the sperm
The amount of testosterone and sperm produced by the testes is dependent on the influence of
Ovarian follicles contain mature eggs.
Sexually transmitted infections are the most important cause of reproductive disorders.
Reproduction is not possible in males or females until one year after puberty has begun.
he smaller cell produced by oogenesis meiosis I, called the first polar body, is essentially a
Pain during ovulation is called dysmenorrhea.
A human egg or sperm contains 23 pairs of chromosomes.
The Pap smear is a test to detect cancerous changes in cells of the cervix.
The adenohypophyseal hormone that triggers ovulation is estrogen.
The male urethra serves the urinary system only.
Both tetrads and crossovers are seen during meiosis.
Failure to attain erection is called impotence.
Ovulation occurs near the end of the ovarian cycle.
The corpus luteum secretes progesterone only.
Female orgasm is required for conception.
The first sign of puberty in females is budding breasts.
The primary function of the testes is to produce testosterone.
The stage in meiosis where chromosomal exchange takes place is telophase.
The diamond-shaped area between the coccyx, pubic arch, and ischial tuberosities in the
The soft mucosal lining of the uterus is the endometrium.
A scrotal muscle that contracts in response to cold environmental temperature is the
The secretions of the bulbourethral glands neutralize traces of acidic urine in the urethra and
The zona pellucida is formed as the follicle becomes a secondary follicle.
The molecule that enhances the ability of testosterone to promote spermatogenesis is inhibin.
The ________ plexus of testicular veins assists in cooling the testis.
Surgical cutting of the ductus deferens as a form of birth control is called a(n) ________.
The erectile tissue around the urethra is the corpus ________.
The midpiece of the sperm tail contains mostly ________.
The ________ cells of the testis nourish the newly formed sperm cells.
The suspensory ligament and mesovarium are part of the ________ ligament.
A follicle with only a small antrum in it would be classified as a(n) ________ follicle.
The small opening of the uterus that sperm would first enter is called the ________.
The portion of the uterine endometrium that is not sloughed off every month is called the ________.
________ is caused by Treponema pallidum.
What are some risk factors for developing breast cancer?
Some of the risk factors for developing breast cancer are: (1) early onset of menses and late menopause; (2) first pregnancy late in life or no pregnancies at all; (3) familial history of breast cancer; (4) postmenopausal hormone replacement.
What is the name given to the female homologue to the penis?
The female clitoris is homologous to the glans penis of the male. It is homologous in that it contains dorsal erectile columns and can become swollen with blood during tactile stimulation.
Describe the composition and functional roles of semen.
Semen is a fluid mixture of sperm and accessory gland secretions (prostate, seminal vesicles, and bulbourethral glands). The liquid provides a transport medium for nutrients and contains chemicals that protect the sperm and facilitate their movements.
Explain the function of the myometrium and endometrium.
he myometrium plays an active role during childbirth when it contracts rhythmically to force the baby out of the mother's body. The endometrium is the innermost lining of the uterus where the embryo implants and stays for the rest of its development.
What is the purpose of the male bulbourethral gland?
Because it releases its contents prior to ejaculation, its function is probably to neutralize the acids in the urethra.
What is the physiological importance of the fact that the male testes descend to reside in the scrotal sac?
The male testes descend into the scrotal sac so that a fairly constant intrascrotal temperature is maintained. Failure of the testes to descend results in sterility, because production of viable spermatozoa requires a temperature several degrees lower than normal body temperature.
Ovulation occurs when the oocyte is released into the peritoneal cavity. By what means does it usually enter the uterine tube?
Fimbriae, which drape over the ovary, become very active close to the time of ovulation and undulate to create currents in the peritoneal fluid. These currents usually carry the oocyte to the uterine tube, where it begins its journey toward the uterus.
At what point is the sex of the embryo determined, and what determines it?
Genetic sex is determined at the instant the genes of a sperm combine with those of an ovum. The determining factor is the sex chromosomes each gamete contains.
What are the three layers of the Uterine Wall?
Perimetrium, Myometrium, and Endometrium.