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Chapter 19- Blood

front 1 Which of the following is NOT one of the formed elements? erythrocytes platelets leukocytes plasma	back 1 Correct Answer: plasma The formed elements are erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets. Plasma is the fluid portion of blood.
front 2 Which of the following statements about blood is FALSE? It is slightly acidic, with a pH of 6.5. It helps stabilize body temperature. It is used in transportation of respiratory gases. It defends against toxins and pathogens	back 2 It is slightly acidic, with a pH of 6.5.
front 3 Where are most plasma proteins produced? spleen liver kidney lungs	back 3 Correct Answer: liver Ninety percent of plasma proteins are produced in the liver.
front 4 Which category of plasma proteins includes the antibodies? fibrinogen globulins albumin hormones	back 4 Correct Answer: globulins The globulins are the plasma proteins that include the antibodies.

front 5 Which of the plasma proteins functions in blood clotting? albumin globulins fibrinogen antibodies	back 5 Correct Answer: fibrinogen Fibrinogen is a plasma protein that functions in blood clotting.
front 6 Which part of hemoglobin binds oxygen? alpha chain heme beta chain transferrin	back 6 Correct Answer: heme Oxygen is carried in hemoglobin by binding to the iron in heme.
front 7 What is the specific term for the production of red blood cells? thrombopoiesis erythropoiesis hemopoiesis leukopoiesis	back 7 Correct Answer: erythropoiesis
front 8 Where are red blood cells produced in an adult?	back 8 red bone marrow

front 9 Which of the following is NOT a surface antigen that is used in determining blood type? Rh C B A	back 9 C
front 10 If a person has type A and Rh surface antigens on the blood cells and anti-B antibodies in the plasma, what is that person's blood type? A-positive B-negative A-negative B-positive	back 10 Correct Answer: A-positive A person with type A and Rh surface antigens on their blood cells and anti-B antibodies in their plasma would have A-positive blood.
front 11 What type of blood would cause a cross-reaction when given to a person with type A-positive blood? type A-positive type O-positive type B-positive type O-negative	back 11 type B-positive
front 12 What is the term for the characteristic of white blood cells whereby they are attracted to a specific chemical stimulus? polymorphism positive chemotaxis leukopenia phagocytosis	back 12 Correct Answer: positive chemotaxis The term for the characteristic of white blood cells whereby they are attracted to a specific chemical stimulus is positive chemotaxis.

front 13 Which type of white blood cell circulates in the blood for about 24 hours before entering the tissues and differentiating into a macrophage? lymphocyte monocyte neutrophil basophil	back 13 monocyte
front 14 Which type of white blood cell includes the B and T cells that are responsible for humoral and cell-mediated immunity?	back 14 Correct Answer: lymphocyte Review "The various types of white blood cells contribute to the body's defenses."
front 15 Which of the following types of white blood cells are involved in fighting parasitic infections, such as flukes and roundworms? neutrophils eosinophils basophils lymphocytes	back 15 Correct Answer: eosinophils Eosinophils are white blood cells involved in fighting parasitic infections.
front 16 Platelets for formed from large cells called __________. natural killer cells neutrophils macrophages megakaryocytes	back 16 megakaryocytes

front 17 An abnormally low platelet count is called __________. thrombocytosis thrombocytopenia leucopenia anemia	back 17 thrombocytopenia
front 18 In which phase of hemostasis does local contraction of the injured blood vessel occur? fibrinolysis coagulation phase vascular phase platelet phase	back 18 vascular phase
front 19 In which phase of hemostasis is fibrin deposited, creating a solid blood clot? vascular phase coagulation phase fibrinolysis platelet phase	back 19 coagulation phase
front 20 Which of the following affect almost every aspect of the clotting process? sodium ions and vitamin D calcium ions and vitamin C potassium ions and vitamin B12 calcium ions and vitamin K	back 20 calcium ions and vitamin K

front 21 Blood __________. carries hormones and antibodies in its circulation contains red cells, white cells, and platelets maintains the ability to stop its flow at a point of injury is more viscous than water because of its combination of formed and dissolved elements All of the listed responses are correct.	back 21 All of the listed responses are correct.
front 22 What are the major components of whole blood? hormones, enzymes, and organic wastes plasma and formed elements albumin and immunoglobulins red and white blood cells	back 22 plasma and formed elements
front 23 Which type of healthy human would typically have 4 to 5 liters of blood? adult female newborn child adult male male child, 5 years old	back 23 adult female
front 24 Which of the following is NOT a function of blood? regulation of the pH and electrolyte composition of interstitial fluids throughout the body coordination of body system responses defense against toxins and pathogens restriction of fluid losses through damaged vessels or at other injury sites transportation of dissolved gases, nutrients, hormones, and metabolic wastes	back 24 coordination of body system responses

front 25 Which of the following is NOT a reason why venipuncture is usually the preferred method for obtaining a blood sample? Walls of veins are thicker than arteries. Superficial veins are easy to locate. Blood pressure in the venous system is relatively low. The puncture wound produced by this method seals quickly.	back 25 Walls of veins are thicker than arteries.
front 26 What is the plasma protein that plays an important role in protection against foreign proteins and pathogens? pepsinogen immunoglobulin albumin fibrinogen	back 26 immunoglobulin
front 27 What is the plasma protein that functions in blood clotting? albumin fibrinogen transport globulin immunoglobulin	back 27 fibrinogen
front 28 Which of the following is NOT a function of albumin? transporting fatty acids transporting thyroid hormones transporting iron maintaining osmotic pressure	back 28 transporting iron

front 29 Which blood cells are the most abundant? monocytes platelets neutrophils erythrocytes	back 29 erythrocytes
front 30 A hemoglobin molecule consists of __________ chains of polypeptides, and ___________ heme units, which each contain the element ___________. two; four; iron four; four; iron one; two; sodium three; six; calcium	back 30 four; four; iron
front 31 The bond between oxygen and hemoglobin is __________ than that of fetal hemoglobin and oxygen. weaker than stronger than equal to much stronger than	back 31 weaker than
front 32 The binding of a heme unit's iron ion to an oxygen ion __________. is a reversible binding forms oxyhemoglobin will be broken when oxygen reaches systemic tissues, so that oxygen can enter body cells All of the listed responses are correct.	back 32 All of the listed responses are correct.

front 33 The lifespan of a typical RBC is about __________. one week one month four months one year	back 33 four months
front 34 Which of the following occurs during the recycling of a red blood cell? Most cells undergo hemolysis and are excreted in the kidneys as cell fragments. Iron and amino acids are recycled to be used in erythropoiesis, while unusable products are excreted into the small intestine in bile. Heme units are broken down, and iron and amino acids are sent to the liver for excretion. None of the listed responses is correct.	back 34 Iron and amino acids are recycled to be used in erythropoiesis, while unusable products are excreted into the small intestine in bile.
front 35 In adults, erythropoiesis occurs in __________. the liver red bone marrow yellow bone marrow None of the listed responses is correct.	back 35 red bone marrow
front 36 Reticulocytes account for about __________ percent of the erythrocyte population in the blood. 10 5 1 zero	back 36 1

front 37 A normal hematocrit is in the range of __________. 20–45 37–54 45–62 54–73	back 37 37–54
front 38 Normal hemoglobin concentrations are in the range of __________ g/dL. 12–18 1–9 20–34 7–25	back 38 12–18
front 39 It is an illegal practice for Olympic competitors to receive doses of which hormone, which stimulates the production of red blood cells? thyroxine erythropoietin calcitonin renin	back 39 erythropoietin
front 40 Which of the following statements concerning red blood cells is INCORRECT? Aged red blood cells are destroyed in the spleen. Red blood cells contain hemoglobin. Red blood cells are biconcave discs. There are approximately 10,000 red blood cells in a microliter (µL) of blood. Red blood cells form rouleaux structures as they flow through narrow vessels.	back 40 There are approximately 10,000 red blood cells in a microliter (µL) of blood.

front 41 Which of the following statements concerning hemoglobin is FALSE? Each hemoglobin molecule contains four heme groups. Hemoglobin consists of two alpha chains and two beta chains. Heme groups contain the mineral iron. Most of the hemoglobin in red blood cells is in the form of carbaminohemoglobin.	back 41 Most of the hemoglobin in red blood cells is in the form of carbaminohemoglobin.
front 42 What is the most common blood type among Americans? type B type AB type O type A	back 42 type O
front 43 Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when an Rh-__________ woman bears the second child of an Rh-__________ man. positive; negative negative; positive negative; negative positive; positive	back 43 negative; positive
front 44 If Misty is type A and needs to receive transfusions of blood during a surgery, which blood type(s) could she receive? A B AB O A and AB A and O	back 44 A and O

front 45 There are __________ major blood types and __________ different surface antigens. four; two two; three four; three three; three	back 45 four; three
front 46 An individual with type AB blood has __________ antigens and __________ antibodies. A and B; no no; A and B A; B B; A	back 46 A and B; no
front 47 Which blood type can be safely transfused into a person with Type O blood, without a cross-reaction? type AB blood given to a person with type A blood type A blood given to a person with type B blood type B blood given to a person with type A blood t type O blood given to a person with type O blood	back 47 type O blood given to a person with type O blood
front 48 Lymphocytes account for __________ percent of circulating white blood cells. 40–50 20–30 10–15 less than 1	back 48 20–30

front 49 Monocytes leave the circulation to become __________. microphages mast cells macrophages mast cells and microphages	back 49 macrophages
front 50 Which of the following statements concerning white blood cells is FALSE? Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils become band cells before becoming mature WBCs. Lymphocytes completing their maturation process in the thymus become T cells. Granulocytes complete their development in bone marrow. Monocytes begin their development in bone marrow and then migrate to the thymus, spleen, or liver to complete the maturation process.	back 50 Monocytes begin their development in bone marrow and then migrate to the thymus, spleen, or liver to complete the maturation process.
front 51 Which of the white blood cells is also known as a polymorph? basophil monocyte lymphocyte neutrophil	back 51 neutrophil
front 52 During an infection, the white blood cell count may rise, a condition known as __________. lymphopoiesis leukocytosis leukopenia leukemia	back 52 leukocytosis

front 53 Bleeding along the digestive tract and within the skin is symptomatic of __________. thrombocytopenia thrombocytopoiesis hemostasis thrombocytosis	back 53 thrombocytopenia
front 54 Which of the following is NOT a function of platelets? formation of a solid clot transport of chemicals important to the clotting process formation of a temporary patch in the walls of damaged blood vessels active contraction after clot formation has occurred	back 54 formation of a solid clot
front 55 Which disease state would be characterized by a concentration of up to 1,000,000 platelets/µL in the plasma? hematuria leukemia thrombocytosis thrombocytopenia	back 55 thrombocytosis
front 56 The process of hemostasis includes which of the following? vascular phase platelet phase coagulation phase All of the listed responses are correct.	back 56 All of the listed responses are correct.

front 57 The platelet phase includes which of the following? platelet adhesion platelet plug formation platelet aggregation All of the listed responses are correct.	back 57 All of the listed responses are correct.
front 58 Along with calcium ions, which vitamin is involved in almost every aspect of blood coagulation? B12 K E A	back 58 K
front 59 Which of the following factors does NOT restrict the coagulation process? thromboxane A2 alpha-2-macroglobulin heparin antithrombin III prostacyclin	back 59 thromboxane A2
front 60 Syneresis refers to the process of __________. clot formation clot retraction clot elimination clot dissolution	back 60 clot retraction

front 61 What are the major components of the cardiovascular system? lymph, plasma, and hemoglobin veins, arteries, and capillaries red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets blood, heart, and blood vessels	back 61 blood, heart, and blood vessels
front 62 Which of the following is NOT a function of the blood? regulation of pH and ion composition of interstitial fluids transportation of gases, nutrients, hormones, and wastes defense against pathogens All of the listed responses are functions of the blood.	back 62 All of the listed responses are functions of the blood.
front 63 The formed elements of the blood consist of __________. electrolytes, nutrients, and organic wastes albumins, globulins, and fibrinogen red and white blood cells and platelets antibodies, metalloproteins, and lipoproteins	back 63 red and white blood cells and platelets
front 64 Which of the following is NOT a component of plasma? dissolved proteins organic wastes antibodies elastic fibers	back 64 elastic fibers

front 65 What are the "patrol agents" in the blood that defend the body against toxins and pathogens? hormones and enzymes red blood cells and platelets white blood cells and antibodies albumins and globulins	back 65 white blood cells and antibodies
front 66 To check the efficiency of gas exchange at the lungs, blood may be required via __________. arterial puncture venipuncture puncturing the tip of a finger Any of the listed responses would be correct.	back 66 arterial puncture
front 67 Blood temperature is roughly _____°C, and the blood pH averages _____. 38°C; 7.4 0°C; 6.8 98°C; 7.8 32°C; 7.0	back 67 38°C; 7.4
front 68 Which type of plasma protein serves as a carrier for the hormones T3 and T4? fibrinogens albumins antibodies apolipoproteins	back 68 albumins

front 69 In addition to water and proteins, what else is part of plasma? erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets electrolytes, nutrients, and organic wastes albumins, globulins, and fibrinogen None of the listed responses is correct.	back 69 electrolytes, nutrients, and organic wastes
front 70 Circulating mature RBCs lack __________. mitochondria nuclei ribosomes All of the listed responses are correct.	back 70 All of the listed responses are correct.
front 71 The primary function of a mature red blood cell is which of the following? defense against toxins and pathogens delivery of enzymes to target tissues transport of respiratory gases All of the listed responses are correct.	back 71 The primary function of a mature red blood cell is which of the following?
front 72 Which part of the hemoglobin molecule directly interacts with oxygen? globin the porphyrin the iron ion the sodium ion	back 72 the iron ion

front 73 Coloration of urinary and digestive wastes is the result of the presence of which products from the breakdown of red blood cells? carbon dioxide urobilins and stercobilins iron All of the listed responses are correct.	back 73 urobilins and stercobilins
front 74 The iron extracted from heme molecules during hemoglobin recycling is stored in the protein–iron complexes __________. transferrin and porphyrin ferritin and hemosiderin biliverdin and bilirubin urobilin and stercobilin	back 74 ferritin and hemosiderin
front 75 During RBC recycling, each heme unit is stripped of its iron and converted to __________. urobilin biliverdin transferrin ferritin	back 75 biliverdin
front 76 What is the primary site of erythropoiesis in the adult? heart bone marrow kidney liver	back 76 bone marrow

front 77 Erythropoietin appears in the plasma when peripheral tissues, especially the kidneys, are exposed to __________. low oxygen concentrations excessive amounts of radiation high urine volumes extremes of temperature	back 77 low oxygen concentrations
front 78 Agglutinogens are contained (on, in) the __________, whereas the agglutinins are found (on, in) the __________. cell membrane of the RBC; plasma mitochondria; nucleus of the RBC plasma; cell membrane of the RBC nucleus of the RBC; mitochondria	back 78 cell membrane of the RBC; plasma
front 79 If you have type A blood, your plasma holds circulating __________ that will attack __________ erythrocytes. anti-A agglutinins; type A anti-B agglutinins; type B anti-A agglutinins; type B anti-A agglutinogens; type A	back 79 anti-B agglutinins; type B
front 80 Which of the following is an agranular leukocyte that becomes a tissue macrophage after approximately 24 hours in circulation? lymphocyte neutrophil monocyte basophil eosinophil	back 80 monocyte

front 81 Which type of granular leukocyte can engulf up to two dozen bacteria and also produces a respiratory burst that creates harsh chemical agents such as hydrogen peroxide? neutrophil basophil eosinophil lymphocyte	back 81 neutrophil
front 82 Megakaryocytes are specialized cells of the bone marrow responsible for __________. specific immune responses engulfing invading bacteria production of scar tissue in an injured area formation of platelets	back 82 formation of platelets
front 83 The rate of megakaryocyte activity and platelet formation is regulated by __________. multi-CSF interleukin-6 thrombopoietin All of the listed responses are correct.	back 83 All of the listed responses are correct.
front 84 Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning T cells and B cells? B cells differentiate into T cells and produce antibodies against foreign antigens. B and T cells are involved in the specific immune response. B cells and T cells are both types of lymphocytes. T cells complete their maturation process in the thymus.	back 84 B cells differentiate into T cells and produce antibodies against foreign antigens.

front 85 The process of hemostasis includes five phases. What is the correct order of the phases as they occur after injury? vascular, platelet, coagulation, clot retraction, clot destruction (fibrinolysis) coagulation, vascular, platelet, clot destruction (fibrinolysis), clot retraction vascular, coagulation, platelet, clot retraction, clot destruction (fibrinolysis) platelet, vascular, coagulation, clot retraction, clot destruction (fibrinolysis)	back 85 vascular, platelet, coagulation, clot retraction, clot destruction (fibrinolysis)
front 86 Because the concentration of dissolved gases is different between the plasma and the tissue fluid __________. both O2 and CO2 will tend to diffuse from the plasma to the interstitial fluid O2 will tend to diffuse from the plasma to the interstitial fluid, and CO2 will tend to diffuse in the opposite direction CO2 will tend to diffuse from the plasma to the interstitial fluid, and O2 will tend to diffuse in the opposite direction None of the listed responses is correct.	back 86 O2 will tend to diffuse from the plasma to the interstitial fluid, and CO2 will tend to diffuse in the opposite direction
front 87 If blood comprises 7 percent of the body weight in kilograms, how many liters of blood would there be in an individual who weighs 85 kg? 5.25 5.95 6.25 6.95	back 87 5.95
front 88 How is it that liver disorders can alter the composition and functional properties of the blood? The proteins synthesized by the liver are filtered out of the blood by the kidneys. The liver is the primary source of plasma proteins. The liver synthesizes immunoglobulins and protein hormones. The liver serves as a filter for plasma proteins and pathogens.	back 88 The liver is the primary source of plasma proteins.

front 89 When plasma O2 concentrations are falling, the rising plasma CO2 binds to the __________ of the hemoglobin molecule. alpha and beta chains heme porphyrin None of the listed responses is correct.	back 89 alpha and beta chains
front 90 Hemoglobin molecules released into the bloodstream by the breakdown of RBCs by hemolysis will be excreted in the __________. kidney small and large intestine skin tears	back 90 kidney
front 91 Signs of iron deficiency anemia include __________. increase in hematocrit, hemoglobin, and O2-carrying capacity decrease in hematocrit, hemoglobin content, and O2-carrying capacity increase in hematocrit, decrease in hemoglobin, and decrease in O2-carrying capacity decrease in hematocrit and hemoglobin, and increase in O2-carrying capacity	back 91 decrease in hematocrit, hemoglobin content, and O2-carrying capacity
front 92 On average, 1 microliter of blood contains __________ erythrocytes. 1013 260 million 25 million 5.2 million	back 92 5.2 million

front 93 The process in which packed RBCs that were previously removed are reintroduced before an athletic event is called __________. blood doping EPO doping a cross-reaction None of the listed responses is correct.	back 93 blood doping
front 94 Protein synthesis in a mature RBC occurs primarily in __________. the nucleus ribosomes mitochondria Mature red blood cells cannot synthesize proteins.	back 94 Mature red blood cells cannot synthesize proteins.
front 95 If agglutinogen B meets with agglutinin anti-A, what is the result? The patient becomes comatose. A cross-reaction occurs. No agglutination occurs. The patient dies.	back 95 No agglutination occurs.
front 96 What is the precursor of all blood cells in the human body? myeloblast hemocytoblast megakaryocyte None of the listed responses is correct.	back 96 hemocytoblast

front 97 Reticulocytes are nucleated immature cells that develop into mature __________. lymphocytes leukocytes platelets erythrocytes	back 97 erythrocytes
front 98 In which pregnancy is an Rh-positive mom and an Rh-positive child at risk of developing erythroblastosis fetalis? no pregnancy all pregnancies second or later pregnancies first pregnancy	back 98 no pregnancy
front 99 In the first pregnancy of an Rh-negative mother with an Rh-positive child, why are there usually NO symptoms of erythroblastosis fetalis? Blood between mother and child does not mix until birth. Antibodies from the mother's blood cannot cross over to the child. The immune system of first child develops faster than that of the second or later children. None of the listed responses is correct..	back 99 Blood between mother and child does not mix until birth.
front 100 Which of the following occurs in hemolytic disease of the newborn? The newborn's agglutinins cross the placental barrier and cause the newborn's RBCs to degenerate. The mother's agglutinins cross the placental barrier and destroy fetal red blood cells. The mother's agglutinogens destroy her own RBCs, causing deoxygenation of the newborn. All of the listed responses are correct.	back 100 The mother's agglutinins cross the placental barrier and destroy fetal red blood cells.

front 101 The number of eosinophils increases dramatically during __________. an allergic reaction or a parasitic infection tissue degeneration or cellular deterioration an injury to a tissue or a bacterial infection All of the listed responses are correct.	back 101 an allergic reaction or a parasitic infection
front 102 A typical microliter of blood contains __________ leukocytes. 1000–2000 3000–5000 5000–10,000 10,000–12,000	back 102 5000–10,000
front 103 Under "normal" conditions, neutrophils comprise __________ of the circulatory white blood cells. 10–20 percent 20–40 percent 50–70 percent 85–95 percent	back 103 50–70 percent
front 104 Which of the following is a notable feature of leukemia? excessive numbers of white blood cells yellowing of the eyes and skin crescent-shaped erythrocytes absence of certain blood clotting factors	back 104 excessive numbers of white blood cells

front 105 Myeloid stem cells will differentiate into progenitor cells, which give rise to all white blood cells EXCEPT __________. eosinophils lymphocytes neutrophils basophils	back 105 lymphocytes
front 106 Clot destruction involves a process that begins with __________. activation of the proenzyme fibrinogen, which initiates the production of fibrin activation of prothrombin, which initiates the production of thrombin activation of Ca2+ to produce tissue plasmin activation of the proenzyme plasminogen, which initiates the production of plasmin	back 106 activation of the proenzyme plasminogen, which initiates the production of plasmin
front 107 The major effect of vitamin K deficiency in the body is that it leads to __________. a breakdown of the common pathway, inactivating the clotting system the body becoming insensitive to situations that would necessitate the clotting mechanism an overactive clotting system, which might necessitate thinning of the blood All of the listed responses are correct.	back 107 a breakdown of the common pathway, inactivating the clotting system
front 108 A vitamin B12 deficiency results in the type of anemia known as __________. sickle cell anemia hemorrhagic anemia aplastic anemia pernicious anemia	back 108 pernicious anemia

front 109 A change in the amino acid sequence of DNA coding for one of the globin chains of the hemoglobin molecule results in a condition known as __________. leukemia sickle cell anemia leukopenia thalassemia	back 109 sickle cell anemia
front 110 Jessica has just moved to Denver, Colorado, from Orlando, Florida. What condition is she experiencing now that is stimulating the production of erythropoietin and, consequently, more red blood cells? a change in diet, from deep-fried comfort foods to healthy organic meals increased oxygen concentration in the atmospheric air hypoxia caused by an increase in her elevation above sea level a decrease in the number of existing white blood cells	back 110 hypoxia caused by an increase in her elevation above sea level
front 111 Correctly match the terms with the correct location of the diagram of red blood cell turnover.	back 111 A. Hemolysis B. Biliverdin C. Urobilins, stercobilins D. Heme E. Bilirubin
front 112 Correctly match the terms with the formed elements of blood.	back 112 A. Basophil B. Neutrophil C. Lymphocyte D. Monocyte E. Eosinophil F. Platelet

front 113 Match the terms in their appropriate locations in the diagram of the coagulation phase of hemostasis.	back 113 A. Factor X B. Ca++ C. Fibrinogen D. Prothrombinase E. Fibrin F. Tissue Damage
front 114 Order of events occurring during the recycling of a red blood cell.	back 114 A. After approximately 120 days, a macrophage consumes a red blood cell. B. Heme is broken down, iron and amino acids are sent to bone marrow, while the remainder of the cell forms biliverdin and bilirubin. E. Bilirubin is secreted in bile. D. Bilirubin is converted to urobilins and stercobilins in the large intestine. C. Urobilins and stercobilins are eliminated in digestive and urinary waste.
front 115 Correctly list the following steps in clotting in the proper order: A Blood clot formed and bleeding stopped B Endothelial cells contract and expose underlying basal lamina to bloodstream C Coagulation phase D Endothelial cells release local hormones and chemical factors, causing them to become "sticky" E Formation of a platelet plug F Platelets attach to exposed surfaces (platelet adhesion)	back 115 B. Endothelial cells contract and expose underlying basal lamina to bloodstream D. Endothelial cells release local hormones and chemical factors, causing them to become "sticky" F. Platelets attach to exposed surfaces (platelet adhesion) E. Formation of a platelet plug C. Coagulation phase A. Blood clot formed and bleeding stopped
front 116 Correctly list the cells in the steps of erythropoiesis in the correct order.	back 116 hemocytoblast proerythroblast normoblast reticulocyte erythrocyte

front 117 Surface antigen A and anti-B antibodies	back 117 Type A
front 118 Surface antigen B and anti-A antibodies	back 118 Type B
front 119 Surface antigens A and B, no antibodies	back 119 Type AB
front 120 No surface antigens, anti-A and anti-B antibodies	back 120 Type O

front 121 Rh surface antigen, no antibodies	back 121 Type Rh positive
front 122 Attack objects coated with antibodies	back 122 Eosinophil
front 123 Large phagocytic cells (macrophage precursors)	back 123 Monocyte
front 124 When stimulated, release histamine and heparin	back 124 Basophil

front 125 Attack and digest bacteria marked with complement	back 125 Neutrophil
front 126 Responsible for cell-mediated or humoral immunity	back 126 Lymphocyte
front 127 True/False. Carbon dioxide binds to the heme group of hemoglobin.	back 127 False. Carbon dioxide binds to the alpha and beta chains of hemoglobin.
front 128 True/False. Ferritin is responsible for transporting iron around the body.	back 128 False. Ferritin is a storage form for iron, not a transport form.

front 129 True/False. To prevent excessive platelet plug formation, prostacyclins are released during the platelet phase.	back 129 True
front 130 True/False. Rh incompatibility exists when the mother is Rh+ and the fetus is Rh%ndash;.	back 130 False. Rh incompatibility exists only when the mother is Rh– and the fetus is Rh+.
front 131 True/False. Platelets are derived from the breakdown of a large cell called a reticulocyte.	back 131 False. Platelets are derived from a large cell called a megakaryocyte.
front 132 Biliverdin is formed when ____is broken down.	back 132 heme

front 133 When an antibody meets its specific antigen, a cross-reaction occurs and the red blood cells clump together, a process known as _____.	back 133 agglutination
front 134 If Amy is on vacation in a country with poor health standards and she contracts a parasitic roundworm, which type of white blood cells would you expect to see elevated in her blood? ______	back 134 Eosinophils
front 135 Almost every aspect of the clotting process is affected by _____ ions and vitamin K.	back 135 calcium
front 136 Which enzyme digests fibrin strands in a blood clot after healing at the injury site has occurred? _____	back 136 Plasmin