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Test 1 - Microbiology (Ch. 1-5)

front 1

Which of the following processes of making blue jeans is incorrectly matched?

back 1

cotton - Fungal hyphae

front 2

Which of the following statements about biofilms is false

back 2

compared to free living bacteria, biofilms are more sensitive to antibiotics

front 3

Regular use of antibacterial cleaning products

back 3

promotes survival of bacteria that are resistant

front 4

In the name Escherichia coli, coli is the

back 4

specific epithet

front 5

which of the following is the best definition for biotechnology

back 5

The use of living organisms to make desired products

front 6

which of the following pairs is mismatched

back 6

Immunologist - studies ecology of legionella pneumophila

front 7

Who proved that microorganisms cause disease

back 7

Kotch

front 8

Who disproved the theory of spontaneous generation

back 8

pasteur

front 9

Which of the following statements about viruses is false

back 9

they cannot reproduce themselves

front 10

which of the following is a scientific name

back 10

Streptococcus Pyognesis

front 11

The pH of a solution reflects the hydrogen ion concentration. A change from pH 7 to pH 8 reflects a _______________ change in hydrogen ion concentration.

back 11

10-fold

front 12

Consider an atom of sodium with an atomic number of 11 and an atomic weight of 23. How many neutrons are in this atom?

back 12

12

front 13

Starch, dextran, glycogen, and cellulose are polymers of

back 13

Glucose

front 14

which molecule is composed of a chain of amino acids

back 14

protein

front 15

what do genes consist of

back 15

nucleic acid

front 16

which of the following pairs is mismatched?

back 16

MgSO4 -> Mg2+ + SO4 2- = Salt

front 17

which type of molecule is composed of (CH2O) units?

back 17

Carbohydrate

front 18

Identify the following reaction: NH3 + H2O

back 18

Reversible Reaction

front 19

Which of the following is the type of bond holding K+ and I- ions in KI?

back 19

Ionic Bond

front 20

When an atom's outer electron shell is only partially filled, the atom is considered:

back 20

chemically unstable

front 21

which of the following statements about protozoa is false

back 21

they have rigid cell walls

front 22

which of the following pairs is mismatched

back 22

Van Leeuwenhoek - germ theory

front 23

Who was the first one to observe microorganisms with a microscope

back 23

Van Leeuwenhoek

front 24

Drag each of the of the following statements to the appropriate bin to indicate wether it is a characteristic of bacteria, archae, fungi or viruses

back 24

-Bacteria: have cell walls that contain peptidoglycan, derive nutrition from organic or inorganic sources or conduct photosynthesis.
-Archae: found in extreme environments, not typically associated with human disease.
-Fungi: eukaryotic, can be unicellular or multicellular

front 25

One of the first set of experiments to refute spontaneous generation was done in 1688 by Francesco Redi. Which of the following statements regarding Francesco Redi’s experiments is true?

back 25

The results of his experiment demonstrated that living organisms are derived from other living organisms.

front 26

In 1861, Pasteur conducted his now-famous experiments using flasks with long necks bent into an S-shape. Imagine that you are a scientist working in Pasteur’s lab at this time. You decide to tip the flasks so that broth enters the long S-shaped neck. You then return the flask to its upright position. Predict the most likely outcome of tipping one of Pasteur’s S-necked flasks.

back 26

The broth would become contaminated with microbes because they were trapped in the neck.

front 27

S. aureus has been isolated from George’s infected wound. To satisfy Koch’s postulates, what would George’s doctor need to do with the isolated S. aureus?

back 27

Inject the S. aureus into an animal, observe whether the animal gets an infection similar to George’s, and isolate the same strain of S. aureus from the infection.

front 28

Which of the following are limitations of antibiotics?

back 28

Antibiotics may be toxic.
Treatment with antibiotics can lead to the emergence of resistant strains.
Antibiotics are not effective in treating viral infections.

front 29

Further characterization of the S. aureus isolated from George’s wound reveals that the strain is MRSA. Why is George’s doctor concerned that MRSA has been identified as the causative agent of George’s infection?

back 29

MRSA is transmissible.

front 30

For each of the following items, indicate which viewing method is most appropriate–the unaided eye, light microscopy, scanning electron microscopy, or transmission electron microscopy–by dragging it into the correct bin.

back 30

-Unaided eye: examining your cat for the presence of fleas.
- Light microscope: examining a clinical specimen, such as a sputum smear, for the presence of bacteria. Examining a blood smear for the presence of malarial bacteria.
- Scanning Electron Microscope: viewing the three-dimetional shape of a protozoan and the arrangement and distribution of cilia on its surface. Determining the three-dimensional shape and arrangement of bacterial cells.
- Transmission Electron Microscope: confirming the 9 + 2 microtubule arrangement in an eukaryotic flagellum. Viewing ribosomes (20nm) within a bacterial cell. Viewing a cross section of poliovirus (30nm). Viewing the layer of gram negative cell wall in cross section.

front 31

Chlamydia trachomatis elementary bodies measure approximately 0.25 micrometers in diameter. What is this measurement expressed in nanometers (nm)?

back 31

250 nm

front 32

A paramecium is approximately 150 micrometers in length. What is this measurement expressed in millimeters (mm)?

back 32

0.15 mm

front 33

While staining a mixed culture of Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria, switching the order of steps 2 and 3 would result in ______________________.

back 33

all bacteria appearing pink

front 34

Which structural feature of Gram-positive bacteria enhances their ability to retain the crystal violet dye?

back 34

a thick peptidoglycan layer

front 35

What would you anticipate seeing if you accidentally switched crystal violet and safranin while performing a Gram stain?

back 35

All bacteria would appear purple.

front 36

What would you expect to see if you forgot to perform step 2 of the Gram stain procedure?

back 36

All bacteria would appear pink.

front 37

A key feature of cellular respiration is the removal of electrons from fuel molecules (oxidation) and the ultimate acceptance of these electrons by a low-energy electron acceptor. The process involves the use of electron carriers, NAD+ and FAD, which play crucial roles in multiple steps of the metabolic pathways. The overall equation for cell respiration is shown below. Why do NAD+ and FAD NOT appear in the overall equation?

back 37

The NAD+ and FAD are initially reduced then oxidized to their original state, so they do not appear in the net equation.

front 38

Consider the glycolysis pathway.
Select all statements that correctly describe glycolysis.

back 38

-Glucose is the original electron donor.
-The 6-carbon skeleton of glucose is enzymatically split into two 3-carbon compounds.
-Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate is oxidized, and NAD+ is reduced to NADH.
-More ATP is formed than is consumed in this process.

front 39

Examine the figure above depicting the preparatory step and the Krebs cycle, and identify statements that correctly describe these processes.
Select all statements that correctly describe the preparatory step and the Krebs cycle.

back 39

-the oxaloacetic acid that accepts the acetyl group is regenerated, enabling the cyclic nature of this process.
-The potential energy in the pyruvate is transferred to the reduced coenzymes (NADH and FADH2).
-There are five oxidation-reduction reactions depicted.
-The equivalent of one ATP is made for each turn of the Krebs cycle.
-It takes two “turns” of the Krebs cycle to process the pyruvic acid molecules resulting from the glycolysis of one glucose molecule.
-Carbons from pyruvic acid end up as CO2.

front 40

Compare and contrast three metabolic pathways by choosing whether the statement applies to aerobic respiration.
Check all that apply.

back 40

-Much or most of the ATP produced is produced by oxidative phosphorylation.
-A total of 38 ATP are produced per molecule of glucose input.
-The coenzyme NAD+ plays an important role in the pathway.
-Process involves the Krebs cycle
-Process includes glycolysis
-End products are CO2 and H2O
-Process involves electron transport and chemiosmosis

front 41

Compare and contrast three metabolic pathways by choosing whether the statement applies to anaerobic respiration.
Check all that apply.

back 41

-Much or most of the ATP produced is produced by oxidative phosphorylation.
-Between 2 and 38 ATP are produced per molecule of glucose input.
-Can generate ATP in the absence of O2.
-Process includes glycolysis
-Process involves the Krebs cycle
-The coenzyme NAD+ plays an important role in the pathway.
-Process involves electron transport and chemiosmosis

front 42

Compare and contrast three metabolic pathways by choosing whether the statement applies to fermentation.
Check all that apply.

back 42

-The coenzyme NAD+ plays an important role in the pathway.
-Can generate ATP in the absence of O2.
-A total of 2 ATP are produced per molecule of glucose input.
-Process includes glycolysis
-End products may include lactic acid or ethanol.

front 43

When bacteria are inoculated into a new sterile nutrient broth, their numbers don’t begin to increase immediately. Instead, there is a lag phase that may last for an hour or even several days. Why don’t bacterial numbers increase immediately?

back 43

The bacteria must adjust to the nutrient content in the new medium, synthesizing necessary amino acids, growth factors, and enzymes.

front 44

Select each statement that accurately describes what is happening to bacterial cultures during stationary phase.

back 44

-Harmful waste products may be accumulating.
-the cells are likely running out of nutrients.
-The number of cells that are dying is balanced by the number of new cells that are being formed.

front 45

A chemostat is continuous culture system that is designed to promote and prolong exponential growth and prevent bacteria from entering stationary phase. How might this work?

back 45

Chemostats provide a continued source of fresh nutrients and remove wastes and dead bacterial cells.

front 46

A broth medium has been inoculated, and microbial numbers will be counted periodically to generate a bacterial growth curve. At 2 hours after inoculation, the culture has progressed through lag phase and is now in log phase. At this point, the population size is 1 million cells. The generation time is 30 minutes. Assuming the continuation of log growth, how many cells would there be at 2 hours after inoculation?

back 46

16 million

front 47

This activity asks you to consider various methods of counting or estimating the size of bacterial populations and to select the method that will provide the most accurate data for plotting a bacterial growth curve.
Which of the following methods would be most appropriate for gathering data to plot a bacterial growth curve throughout the four phases?

back 47

Plate count

front 48

Drag each of the following terms into the appropriate box, indicating whether it applies to prokaryotic cells or eukaryotic cells.

back 48

-prokaryotic:
70's ribosomes, circular chromosome, not enclosed with a nuclear envelope, peptidoglycan-containing cell wall, flagella that rotate, composed of flagellin.

-eukaryotic:
80s ribosomes, mitochondria, linear chromosomes enclosed within a nuclear envelope, cellulose or chitin containing cell walls, golgi apparatus, lysosomes, endoplasmic reticulum, flagella that wave composed of reticulum

front 49

Select the structures below that are found in all bacterial cells.

back 49

nucleoid, ribosomes, cytoplasm, plasma membrane

front 50

Indicate the bacterial structures that are likely to be antigens, to which host antibodies bind, marking the invader for phagocytosis

back 50

capsule, fimbriae, cell wall, flagella

front 51

Identify antibacterial strategies that would likely be selectively toxic for bacteria.

back 51

- inhibition of fimbriae synthesis
- inhibition of peptidoglycan synthesis
- interfering with translation at 70s ribosomes

front 52

A strain of Streptococcus pneumoniae is no longer able to synthesize its capsular polysaccharide. What is a likely outcome?

back 52

It will be readily phagocytized upon entering the host

front 53

A strain of Neisseria gonorrhoeae has been genetically altered and can no longer produce fimbriae. What is a likely outcome?

back 53

It will no longer be able to secrete exotoxins.

front 54

Select the statements that accurately describe DNA replication.

back 54

-The major replication enzyme is DNA polymerase.
-Topoisomerase and DNA gyrase remove supercoiling ahead of the replication fork.
-DNA helicase separates the DNA strands, creating a replication fork.
-DNA replication provides an exact copy of DNA for daughter cells (next generation).
- DNA replication occurs prior to mitosis and prior to binary fission.
- DNA replication is semiconservative.
- DNA replication can copy plasmids, which can be transferred among bacterial cells of the same generation.

front 55

During infection, C. diphtheriae expresses a variety of genes that are used to establish infection and cause disease. One of these genes encodes for diphtheria toxin. Expression of the toxin requires the genetic information contained in DNA be converted into protein. The 1st step in this process is transcription, in which DNA is converted into mRNA. The following is a short piece of the DNA sequence for diphtheria toxin (written 5’ to 3’): TAA GCG TAG AAC TTG. Which of the following sequences represents the mRNA (written 5’ to 3’) that will be generated from this DNA sequence?

back 55

CAA GUU CUA CGC UUA

front 56

The major virulence factor produced by C. diphtheriae is diphtheria toxin. The production of diphtheria toxin during infection is controlled by a repressor, DtxR. The activity of DtxR is regulated by iron, which acts as a corepressor. During an infection, the levels of iron available in the tissues for use by C. diphtheriae are low. What effect will the decreased iron availability have on the production of diphtheria toxin

back 56

The lack of corepressor binding to DtxR will lead to a loss of repression and an increase in the production of toxin.

front 57

Diphtheria toxin kills eukaryotic cells by affecting translation. More specifically, the toxin prevents movement of tRNAs from the A site to the P site of the ribosome. Predict what the result(s) of this inhibition would be.
Select all that apply.

back 57

-New tRNAs will not be able to enter the ribosome.
-Protein synthesis will be interrupted because the peptide chain is inhibited from growing.

front 58

Enzymes are important in living organisms because they

back 58

bring together reactants or properly orient a molecule for a reaction

front 59

competitive inhibition of enzyme involves

back 59

competition with the substrate for binding at the active sight

front 60

in an ezymatic rx involving oxidation of a substrate, which of the following would be required

back 60

NAD+

front 61

During glycolosys, electrons from the oxidation of glucose are transferred to

back 61

NAD+

front 62

All of the following are potential end products of fermentation except

back 62

pyruvic acid

front 63

which of the following statements about substrate level phosphorylation is false?

back 63

the oxidation of intermediate metabolic compound releases energy that is used to generate ATP

front 64

which of the following is not necessary for respiration

back 64

oxygen

front 65

assume you are growing bacteria on a lipid medium that started at pH7. The action of bacterial lipase's should cause the pH of the medium to

back 65

decrease

front 66

which statement are true

back 66

2- ATP is a common intermediate between catabolic and anabolic pathways.
4- Anaerobic organisms are capable of respiration
5- ATP is generated by the flow of protons across the cell membrane

front 67

what can you conclude about an enzymes activity?

back 67

a particular enzyme is very specific to the rx it catalyzes

front 68

Which of the following is NOT a distinguishing characteristic of prokaryotic cells?

back 68

They lack a plasma membrane.

front 69

By which of the following mechanisms can a cell transport a substance from a lower to a higher concentration?

back 69

Active transport

front 70

Which of the following organelles most closely resembles a prokaryotic cell?

back 70

Mitochondrion

front 71

Which of the following statements about gram-negative cell walls is false?

back 71

They are sensitive to penicillin.

front 72

Where are phospholipids most likely found in a prokaryotic cell?

back 72

Plasma membrane

front 73

Where are phospholipids most likely found in a eukaryotic cell?

back 73

Around organelles and Plasma membrane

front 74

In the gram-stain, if the decolorizing step is deleted, gram-neg cell walls will appear ___________ at the competition of the staining procedure

back 74

purple

front 75

Resolution is great when using an electron microscope because the __________ of the electron beam is much shorter than of visible light

back 75

wavelength

front 76

Which of the following types of microscopy can be used to specifically identify pathogens (such as Mycobacterium Tuberculosis) in specimens?

back 76

fluorescence

front 77

Which of the following types of microscopy is most useful for viewing the internal structures of unstained specimens?

back 77

phase-contrast

front 78

which of the following is not part of the gram stain

back 78

hydrochloric acid

front 79

the purpose of a mordant in a gram stain is

back 79

to prevent the crystal violet from leaving the cells

front 80

the best use of a negative stain is

back 80

to determine cell size and to determine cell shape

front 81

what is the total magnification of a chloroplast viewed with a 10x ocular lens and 45x objective lense

back 81

450x

front 82

Bacterial smears are fixed before staining to

back 82

kill the bacteria and affix the cells to the slide

front 83

the resolution of a microscope can be improved by changing the

back 83

wavelength of light