Instructions for Side by Side Printing
- Print the notecards
- Fold each page in half along the solid vertical line
- Cut out the notecards by cutting along each horizontal dotted line
- Optional: Glue, tape or staple the ends of each notecard together
Ch. 25-29 A&P
front 1  What type of fetal testing provides results within a day or so of the test? | back 1 chorionic villus sampling |
front 2  At how many weeks of pregnancy can chorionic villus sampling (CVS) be safely performed? | back 2 10 weeks |
front 3  At what age are both amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling routinely ordered when a woman is pregnant to test for Down syndrome? | back 3 35 years old |
front 4  Using the information provided in this figure, what is the probability of producing a homozygous dominant offspring? | back 4 25% |
front 5  Using the information provided in this figure, what is the probability of producing an offspring who can roll their tongue? | back 5 75% |
front 6  Which of the following is NOT the tongue-roller genotype? | back 6 tt |
front 7  Using the information provided in this figure, what is the probability of producing an offspring who CANNOT roll his or her tongue? | back 7 25% |
front 8  Using the information provided in this figure, what is the genotype of a homozygous recessive offspring? | back 8 tt |
front 9  Using the information provided in this figure, what is the probability of producing an offspring whose phenotype is that of tongue-roller? | back 9 75% |
front 10  Continuous phenotypic variation between two extremes results from _________. | back 10 polygenic inheritance |
front 11  Three genes control skin color. How many possible combinations of skin color result from those three genes? | back 11 64 |
front 12  Which of the following exemplifies polygenic inheritance? | back 12 height |
front 13  How many chromatids are present in a tetrad? | back 13 4 |
front 14  During what phase of meiosis do the tetrads align together along the metaphase spindle? | back 14 metaphase I |
front 15  If a cell has a diploid number of 22, how many total chromosomes should it have? | back 15 22 |
front 16  When one chromatid segment has formed a chiasma with a homologous chromatid segment, what is the result? | back 16 recombinant chromosomes |
front 17  What do chiasmas promote? | back 17 genetic variability |
front 18  For a cell with a five homologous pairs, calculate how many different gamete types can result from meiosis. | back 18 32 |
front 19  During metaphase of meiosis I, the alleles determining each trait are distributed to different gametes. What is this called? | back 19 segregation |
front 20  What is the name of the condition when a person has inherited the genotype HH? | back 20 homozygous dominant |
front 21  In this figure, hair color genes and eye color genes are located on the same chromosome. Since these genes are transmitted as a unit to daughter cells during mitosis, we describe these genes as ____________. | back 21 linked |
front 22  Which statement best describes the function of the urethra? | back 22 The urethra transports urine from the bladder to the outside of the body. |
front 23  What region of the male urethra runs through the urogenital diaphragm, extending about 2 cm from the prostate to the beginning of the penis? | back 23 intermediate part of the urethra (membranous urethra) |
front 24  What type of epithelial tissue forms the mucosa layer of the urinary bladder? | back 24 transitional epithelium |
front 25  Which pressure is the chief force pushing water and solutes out of the blood and across the filtration membrane of the glomerulus? | back 25 hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries (HPgc) |
front 26  Which of the following is the volume of filtrate formed each minute by all of the glomeruli of the kidneys? | back 26 glomerular filtration rate (GFR) |
front 27  Calculate the net filtration pressure if blood pressure in the glomerulus is unusually high, around 68 mm Hg. | back 27 23 mm Hg |
front 28  What hormone promotes active tubular secretion of potassium ions in the late distal convoluted tubule (DCT) and collecting ducts? | back 28 aldosterone |
front 29  In what part of the renal tubule are aquaporins scarce or absent so that water CANNOT be reabsorbed? | back 29 ascending limb of the nephron loop |
front 30  In what part of the renal tubule does parathyroid hormone (PTH) promote the reabsorption of calcium ions? | back 30 distal convoluted tubule (DCT) |
front 31  Which of the following promotes the formation of dilute urine? | back 31 decreased osmolality of extracellular fluids |
front 32  Which statement best describes the effect diuretics have? | back 32 Diuretics increase urinary output. |
front 33  Where does antidiuretic hormone (ADH) exert its effects to promote water reabsorption? | back 33 collecting duct |
front 34  Which region of the kidney is characterized by the presence of cone-shaped pyramids? Select from letters A-D. | back 34 B |
front 35  What region subdivides to form two or three major calyces and several minor calyces? Select from letters A-D. | back 35 C |
front 36  Which letter represents the most superficial region of the kidney? Select from letters A-D. | back 36 A |
front 37  What arteries branch off the arcuate arteries? | back 37 cortical radiate (interlobular) arteries |
front 38  Which vessel is present in the arterial pathway as blood flows into the kidney but NOT present in the venous pathway exiting the kidney? | back 38 segmental |
front 39  Which vessels supply the cortical tissue of the kidney with blood? | back 39 cortical radiate arteries |
front 40  What two structures constitute the renal corpuscle? | back 40 glomerulus and glomerular (Bowman's) capsule |
front 41  Which of the three parts of the renal tubule is formed by cuboidal epithelial cells bordered by dense microvilli? | back 41 proximal convoluted tubule |
front 42  In which kidney region are all renal corpuscles located? | back 42 renal cortex |
front 43  Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the cortical nephrons? | back 43 The glomerulus of the cortical nephron is closer to the cortex-medulla junction. |
front 44  Where does the efferent arteriole of the juxtamedullary nephron carry blood to? | back 44 vasa recta |
front 45  Which capillary bed produces filtrate? | back 45 glomerulus |
front 46  What is the function of the macula densa cells of the juxtaglomerular complex (JGC)? | back 46 The macula densa cells monitor the NaCl content of the filtrate entering the distal convoluted tubule. |
front 47  Where is filtrate produced in the nephron? | back 47 glomerulus |
front 48  What vessel directly feeds into the glomerulus? | back 48 afferent arteriole |
front 49  This chemical equation shows the reaction of a strong acid and weak base in the bicarbonate buffer system. Provide the products of the following reaction. HCl + NaHCO3 --> | back 49 H2CO3 + NaCl |
front 50  Which chemical buffer system is the only important system in the extracellular fluid (ECF) that resists short-term changes in pH? | back 50 bicarbonate buffer system |
front 51  In order to buffer a strong acid into a weak acid, which has a less dramatic effect on pH, what chemical should be used as the buffer? | back 51 weak base |
front 52  Which of the following regulates the secretion of K+ into the filtrate? | back 52 aldosterone |
front 53  What is the most important trigger for aldosterone release? | back 53 renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism |
front 54  What results from increased levels of aldosterone? | back 54 increased Na+ reabsorption |
front 55  In a given day, what is the typical value for water intake? | back 55 2500 ml |
front 56  What accounts for the route through which most fluid is lost in a day? | back 56 urine |
front 57  How much water is generated per day from cellular metabolism? | back 57 250 ml |
front 58  Which of the following is NOT involved in triggering the thirst mechanism? | back 58 increase in blood pressure |
front 59  What receptors does the brain use to detect changes in osmolality? | back 59 osmoreceptors |
front 60  What hormone helps to maintain extracellular fluid (ECF) osmolality when concentrations become too high? | back 60 antidiuretic hormone (ADH) |
front 61  What type of water imbalance increases the amount of fluid in all compartments? | back 61 hypotonic hydration |
front 62  Which of the following conditions promotes edema? | back 62 hypoproteinemia |
front 63  What is the hallmark of hypotonic hydration? | back 63 hyponatremia |
front 64  Where is the majority of water stored in the human body? | back 64 intracellular fluid (ICF) compartment |
front 65  Select the person in the following list who would have the highest percentage of water in his or her body. | back 65 a 6-month-old baby boy |
front 66  During pregnancy, which hormone is responsible for stimulating maturation of the breast for lactation? | back 66 human placental lactogen (hPL) |
front 67  What role does oxytocin play in promoting labor? | back 67 Oxytocin stimulates the uterus to contract. |
front 68  Which of the following serves as the trigger to begin the vigorous, rhythmic contractions of true labor? | back 68 prostaglandins |
front 69  What is released from fetal lungs in the weeks before delivery to soften the cervix in preparation for labor? | back 69 surfactant protein A (SP-A) |
front 70  How long does the expulsion stage typically last in a first birth? | back 70 50 minutes |
front 71  During what stage is the afterbirth delivered? | back 71 placental stage |
front 72  The softening and thinning of the cervix during the dilation stage is known as ___________. | back 72 effacement |
front 73  What does the hormone relaxin promote? | back 73 Relaxin promotes the relaxation, widening, and increased flexibility of the pelvic ligaments and pubic symphysis. |
front 74  Due to the increased bulkiness of the anterior abdomen and the change in a pregnant woman's center of gravity, what type of spinal curvature do many pregnant women develop? | back 74 lordosis |
front 75  Which fetal vascular shunt directly connects the right atrium to the left atrium so as to bypass the nonfunctional lungs? | back 75 foramen ovale |
front 76  Which fetal vascular shunt bypasses the pulmonary circuit by connecting the pulmonary trunk to the aorta? | back 76 ductus arteriosus |
front 77  The dermatome is one of the three somites of the mesoderm. What does the dermatome form? | back 77 dermis of the skin in the dorsal part of the body |
front 78  From what germ layer is the serosae of the coelom derived? | back 78 mesoderm |
front 79  From what germ layer are the somites derived? | back 79 mesoderm |
front 80  Which of the following arises from the endoderm? | back 80 mucosal lining of the gastrointestinal tract and respiratory tract |
front 81  Which of the following is derived from the somites of the mesoderm? | back 81 vertebrae and ribs |
front 82  Which germ layer gives rise to the nervous system? | back 82 ectoderm |
front 83  Which of the following takes oxygenated blood to the liver from the placenta? | back 83 umbilical vein |
front 84  Which extra-embryonic membrane protects the developing embryo against physical trauma and helps maintain a constant homeostatic temperature? | back 84 amnion |
front 85  Which of the following implants in the mucosa of the endometrium? | back 85 blastocyst |
front 86  What is the 16-cell stage known as? | back 86 morula |
front 87  How much time passes after fertilization until implantation occurs? | back 87 7 days |
front 88  Which of the following is the multicellular cytoplasmic mass formed from the trophoblast as it implants into the endometrium? | back 88 syncytiotrophoblast |
front 89  What releases human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)? | back 89 trophoblast |
front 90  What membrane does the trophoblast form after implantation? | back 90 chorion |
front 91  Together, what do the decidua basalis and the chorionic villi form? | back 91 placenta |
front 92  What is the function of the placenta? | back 92 The placenta functions as a nutritive, respiratory, excretory, and endocrine organ for the developing embryo. |
front 93  Once sperm are deposited into the vagina, sperm motility must be enhanced and they must be prepared to release hydrolytic enzymes from their acrosomes. What is this process called? | back 93 capacitation |
front 94  What does the cortical reaction prevent? | back 94 polyspermy |
front 95  What is the event that results when the maternal and paternal chromosomes combine? | back 95 fertilization |
front 96  Which of the following cells is released during ovulation? | back 96 secondary oocyte |
front 97  Why CAN'T polar bodies be fertilized? | back 97 Polar bodies lack nutrient-containing cytoplasm. |
front 98  How many functional gametes are produced by oogenesis? | back 98 one functional gamete |
front 99  What event occurs during the proliferative phase? | back 99 ovulation |
front 100  During what phase of the female's uterine (menstrual) cycle is the uterine lining shed? | back 100 menstrual phase |
front 101  What hormone promotes ovulation? | back 101 luteinizing hormone (LH) |
front 102  What part of the female duct system is the usual site of fertilization of the ovulated oocyte? | back 102 uterine (fallopian) tube (oviduct) |
front 103  Which layer of the uterine wall is made of smooth muscle? | back 103 myometrium |
front 104  Which specific layer of the uterus is shed during menstruation, approximately every 28 days? | back 104 stratum functionalis of the endometrium |
front 105  Specifically, what encloses the vestibule which houses the openings of the urethra and vagina? | back 105 labia minora |
front 106  Which structure of the female's external genitalia has erectile tissue like the penis? | back 106 clitoris |
front 107  What are the two fatty, hair-covered skin folds that run posteriorly from the mons pubis? | back 107 labia majora |
front 108  What part of the breast produces milk? | back 108 alveoli |
front 109  The mammary glands belong to which of the following systems? | back 109 integumentary system |
front 110  What is the pigmented ring of skin situated slightly below the center of each breast? | back 110 areola |
front 111  Which of the following inhibits the release of FSH from the anterior pituitary and GnRH from the hypothalamus when the sperm count is high? | back 111 inhibin |
front 112  Which of the following keeps the concentration of testosterone in the vicinity of the spermatogenic cells high to stimulate spermatogenesis? | back 112 androgen-binding protein (ABP) |
front 113  Which hormone promotes the formation of secondary sex characteristics such as the appearance of pubic, axillary, and facial hair, enhanced hair growth on the chest, and a deepening voice? | back 113 testosterone |
front 114  Why does meiosis involve two nuclear divisions rather than one, as in mitosis? | back 114 Meiosis reduces the chromosome number by half. |
front 115  At what point during meiosis do homologous chromosomes pair up? | back 115 prophase I |
front 116  During meiosis, what does crossover promote? | back 116 Crossover promotes increased genetic variability among gametes. |
front 117  Which of the following results from spermiogenesis? | back 117 sperm |
front 118  Which of the following is the haploid cell produced as a result of meiosis I? | back 118 secondary spermatocyte |
front 119  Which of the following cells is returned to the basal lamina to continue the pool of dividing germ cells? | back 119 type A daughter cell or spermatogonium |
front 120  Which of the following is the site where sperm are stored until they are ejaculated? | back 120 tail of the epididymis |
front 121  Which cells produce androgens such as testosterone? | back 121 interstitial endocrine (Leydig) cells |
front 122  Which of the following is housed within the spermatic cord? | back 122 testicular arteries and veins |
front 123  Which portion of the penis is removed through a procedure known as circumcision? | back 123 prepuce (foreskin) |
front 124  Which of these male accessory ducts transports both sperm and urine? | back 124 urethra |
front 125  During vasectomy, what accessory duct is cut as a form of birth control? | back 125 ductus (vas) deferens |