front 1 A diabetic foot ulcer that has penetrated through the subcutaneous tissue to involve tendon/ligament/joint capsule w/out abscess or Ostemyelitis (osteoM) is classified as which Wagner grade? Grade 4 Grade 5 Grade 3 Grade 2 | back 1 Grade 2 According to the widely used Wagner classification system, diabetic foot ulcers are graded from 0 to 5 based on the depth of tissue involvement & the presence of infection, osteomyelitis, or gangrene. Grade 2 ulcers penetrate the subcutaneous tissue & may expose bone, tendon, ligament, or joint capsule w/out abscess formation or osteoM |
front 2 Which of the following is not a sign of zinc deficiency? Slow wound healing Spoon-shaped nails Loss of taste Thin, sparse hair | back 2 Spoon-shaped nails Concave, spoon-shaped nails indicate insufficient iron level in the body. The other symptoms-thin, sparse hair; loss of taste; and slow wound healing- are associated with zinc deficiency. |
front 3 Thin, sparse hair; loss of taste; and slow wound healing- are associated with____ deficiency. | back 3 zinc |
front 4 What legal documentation is essential to palliative wound care, particularly regarding patient preferences? Treatment plan Power of Attorney Living Will Consent form | back 4 Living will A living will is legally recognized document that outlines a patient's preferences for medical treatment, including palliative care. It explicitly states which interventions the patient does or does not want, providing clear guidance to healthcare providers. This document is particularly valuable in palliative wound care, as it ensures the treatment plan aligns w/the patient's wishes & respects their autonomy. |
front 5 What legal documentation designate someone to make healthcare decisions on behalf of the the patient if they become unable to do so themselves. It's a back up measure to the living will, the living will takes precedence for medical treatment. | back 5 Power of attorney |
front 6 What legal documentation gives permission for specific treatment or procedures. They are crucial for informed consent but lack the comprehensive scope of a living will, which details preferences across various medical situations, including palliative care, thus offering broader legal guidance. | back 6 Consent forms |
front 7 Empiric treatment of severe diabetic foot infection involves which of the following antibiotics? Ampicillin/sulbactam Cephalexin Vancomycin Amoxicillin/clavulanate | back 7 Ampicillin/sulbactam |
front 8 For severely infected ____ ___ ___, initiate antibiotic therapy intravenously, then switch to oral administration once the patient improves. | back 8 diabetic foot wound |
front 9 What are the recommended empiric treatment options for DFU. | back 9 Ampicillin/sulbactam 2.1 g IV every 6hrs plus ciprofloxacin 750mg PO BID (twice daily) |
front 10 This empiric treatment option is for what type of wound? Ampicillin/sulbactam 2.1 g IV every 6hrs plus ciprofloxacin 750mg PO BID (twice daily) | back 10 DFU that is severly infected |
front 11 Cephalexin & amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin) are indicated for ___ ___ __ __ (oral therapy for the entire course). | back 11 mild to moderate infections |
front 12 What antibiotic is reserved for life threatening infections and requires prolonged IV Therapy? | back 12 Vancomycin |
front 13 Which of the following study designs is considered the gold standard of research? Case series or case reports Cohort studies Case-control studies Randomized controlled trials | back 13 Randomized controlled trials RCTs are considered the gold standard of research: participants are randomly allocated to either a treatment (intervention) group or a control group (receiving placebo or standard treatment) |
front 14 Meta-analysis & randomized controlled trials (RCTs) are ranked as the__ __ ___ because their designs minimize the biases and systematic errors. | back 14 highest levels of evidence |
front 15 What type of approach is where neither participants nor researches know assignment-further reduces bias & threats to validity, including the placebo effect | back 15 Double-blind approach |
front 16 A nurse is changing a dressing on a patient and notes red drainage both on the old dressing, and oozing from the wound bed. What type of exudate is this? | back 16 Sanguinous Sanguinous exudate is thin, watery, and bloody (red) in appearance. Its presence indicates new blood vessel growth or disruption of existing vessels, and it is normal during the proliferative phase of wound healing. Propliferative Phase- the third stage of wound healing, generally lasting from day 4 to day 21 post-injury. |
front 17 What stage of wound healing is the 3rd stage and generally lasts 4 to 21 days, where new blood vessel growth, or disruptions of existing vessels takes place. | back 17 Propliferative Phase |
front 18 ____ exudate is thin, clear, to straw-colored, and also normal during the Proliferative phase (3rd phase). | back 18 Serous |
front 19 ______ exudate is thin, watery, and pink to light pink; it is normal during the inflammatory and proliferative phases. | back 19 Serosanguineous exudate Common in the Inflammatory (1st / critical stage), and the Proliferative phase (3rd phase). |
front 20 ______ is the critical first phase in the wound healing process. Beginning immediately upon injury, it aims to stop bleeding and clean the wound bed of bacteria and debris. last 2-6 days. | back 20 Inflammatory phase |
front 21 How long does the first / critical phase, the inflammatory phase last? | back 21 Beginning immediately upon injury, it aims to stop bleeding and clean the wound bed of bacteria and debris. Typically lasts for the first 2 to 6 days and is characterized by swelling, redness, pain, and heat |
front 22 _____ ______ is medical treatment started based on clinical experience and an "educated guess" before a definitive diagnosis or test result is confirmed. | back 22 Empiric treatment (or empiric therapy) |
front 23 Empiric treatment (or empiric therapy) | back 23 A treatment that is initiated based off of an educated guess, or clinical experience? |
front 24 A patient has a surgical wound resulting from a skin tissue biopsy. Which surgical wound classification does this wound receive? Class II Class III Class I Class IV | back 24 Class I A surgical wound from skin tissue biopsy is considered a Class 1 (clean) wound. The biopsy specimen is obtained from clean tissue using a scapel or punch bipsy, and the bleeding is controlled. There is no traumatic injury or inflammation during the procedure, and steril technique is maintained throughout. |
front 25 A 69 year old male patient w/diabetes present w/foot ulcer. He reports a mild allergy to latex and is concerned about the cost of treament. Which dressing is most appropriate? Latex gauze dressing Latex-containing hydrocolloid dressing Alginate dressing Silicone foam dressing | back 25 Silicone foam dressing Silicone foam dressing is the most appropriate choice for this patient. It is latex-free, avoiding any risk of allergic reaction-and offers effective exudate management and wound protection at a reasonable cost. |
front 26 RE: A male pt. worried about cost w/DFU and latex allergy. Which dressing option describles the below dressing type. Read thoroughly! ___ __ are excellent for high exudate wounds such a DFUs, they can be more expensive and do not address the patient's latex allergy. | back 26 Alginate dressing |
front 27 What is the standard treatment for chronic venous insufficiency? Pharmacologic management Exercise Compression therapy Weight control & dietary modifications | back 27 Compression Therapy Compression therapy is the standard treatment for chronic venous insufficiency. Because venous insufficiency is associated w/increased hydrostatic pressure in the leg veins, compression therapy reduces that pressure & aids venous return. |
front 28 ____ ___ in leg veins is the physical force exerted by the weight of the blood column against the vein walls, heavily influenced by gravity. | back 28 Hydrostatic pressure |
front 29 A patient has been prescribed silver sulfadiazine cream for a burn wound. Pt. education regarding this topical agent should include which of the following? Do not use it for longer than 2 weeks This medication penetrates burn eschar well, making it useful when an infections is suspected or vascular supply is limited This medication is safe for use during pregnancy There may be some pain associated w/the application of this cream | back 29 Do not use it for longer than 2 weeks |
front 30 ___ _____ is a topical antibiotic effective against both grampositive and gram-negative organisms, as well as some fungi. It is the indicated for second-and thrid degree burns. | back 30 Silver Sulfadiazine |
front 31 Key teaching points for ____ _____ - Limit use to no more than 2 weeks - Do not use in pregnant women, neonates, or pts w/sulfonamid allergy - Application is usually comfortable & soothing; pain is NOT typically associated w/its use. | back 31 Silver sulfadiazine |
front 32 ___ ___ not silver sulfadiazine- penetrates eschar more effectively and is preferred when infection is suspected or vascular supply is minimal. | back 32 Mafenide acetate |
front 33 Which classification of pressure ulcer is characterized by wound presenting w/non-blanchable erythema of intact skin? Suspected deep tissue injury (sDTI) Unstageable Stage I Stage II | back 33 Stage I Stage I pressure ulcers present as intact skin w/non-blanchable erythema localized over a bony prominence. |
front 34 What stage ulcer presents with intact skin, and with non blanchable erythema localized over a bony prominence? | back 34 Stage I |
front 35 A suspected ___ ___ __ looks like an area of intact or non-intact skin with localized purple or maroon discoloration, or a blood-filled blister. The affected area often feels different from the surrounding skin—it can be painful, firm, mushy, boggy, warmer, or cooler to the touch. | back 35 deep tissue injury (sDTI) |
front 36 Which of the following conditions is not an acute complication of major burns? Pneumonia Wound infection Acute renal failure (ARF) Cellulitis | back 36 Acute renal failure (ARF) |
front 37 Can you guess the top 5 without looking? The top acute complications of major burns include: | back 37 Pneumonia Wound infection Cellulitis Respiratory failure Urinary tract infection |
front 38 Which of the following statements about herpes simple virus (HSV) is false? Vesicles are uniformly shaped and grouped HSV-1 is associated w/cold sores, while HSV-2 causes genital and perianal herpes Erythema indicates a secondary infection HSV infections occur in two phases; primary & secondary | back 38 Erythema indicates a secondary infection |
front 39 HSV 1 | back 39 Oral herpes |
front 40 HSV has two phases: Primary infection & a secondary phase During the primary infection- | back 40 Your body’s very first encounter with the virus (HSV-1 or HSV-2) Significant inflammatory response extends from the base of the lesions into the dermis, resulting in the classic presentation of uniform, grouped vesicles on an erythematous base. Can also cause fatigue, flu-like symptoms, swollen lymphnodes that can last up to 3 weeks. |
front 41 HSV can be confirmed with a ___ ___. | back 41 Tzanck smear |
front 42 HSV I Secondary phase : | back 42 Refers to latency, the dormant period that follows the initial outbreak. During this phase, the virus retreats into the nerve cells near the spine (the trigeminal ganglion for oral herpes) where it remains inactive, causing no symptoms but staying in the body permanently |
front 43 HSV secondary phase: | back 43 the blistering stage of a standard outbreak (the second localized stage after initial tingling), or a recurrent outbreak (subsequent outbreaks after the initial primary infection) |
front 44 What should be emphasized as the primary goal when educating a new physician about wound care? | back 44 Applying evidence-based practices. This is the primary goal when educating a new physician about wound care. Without evidence, clinical practice rapidly becomes outdated. Evidence based wound care ensures that treatment decisions are informed by the latest & most effective research. |
front 45 Evidence based practice integrates: | back 45 Individual clinical experience, the best available evidence, and patient preferences to guide decision-making. |
front 46 In management of the second-degree burn (superficial dermal injury), which of the following interventions is not appropriate? Cleanse & debride broken blisters Perform early surgical grafting Apply nonadherent dressings or CTPs Leave intact blisters alone unless they interfere w/movement | back 46 Perform early surgical grafting Surgical grafting is reserved for deep dermal second-degree injuries & third-degree burns; it is not indicated for superficial dermal (superficial second-degree) burns. |
front 47 Surgical grafting is for deep dermal second degree injuries & third degree burns True or false | back 47 True |
front 48 In management of a second-degree burn (superficial dermal injury), are the following interventions appropriate? Cleanse & debride broken blisters Apply nonadherent dressings or CTPs Leave intact blisters alone unless they interfere w/movement | back 48 Yes |
front 49 Which of the following is not a sign of zinc deficiency? Loss of taste Slow wound healing Thin, sparse hair Spoon-shaped nails | back 49 Spoon-shaped nails This indicates insufficient iron levels |
front 50 What is the primary function of fibroblasts? To participate in the biosynthesis of collagen to form the extracellular matrix (ECM) To promote cell migration, proliferation, and angiogenesis To facilitate the reepithelialization & formation of granulation tissue To control infection as long as the wound remains open | back 50 To participate in the biosynthesis of collagen to form the extracellular matrix (ECM) Fibroblasts migrate to the wound area along fibrin strands of the wound clot & synthesize ground substance and collagen to form the ECM. |
front 51 ____ are involved in the cell adhesion & signaling during wound healing, play a critical role in reepithelialization & granulation tissue formation. | back 51 Intergrins |
front 52 ___ ___ promote cell migration, proliferation, and angiogenesis | back 52 Growth factors Growth factors are: naturally occurring proteins that act as chemical messengers in the body |
front 53 Which of the following indicators would most effectively help a wound care nurse evaluate a patient's adherence to a wound dressing regimen? Improvement in healing rate & wound appearance Patient's verbal confirmation of adherence Prescription refill frequency Number of missed appointments. | back 53 Improvement in healing rate & wound appearance This is the most objective / direct objective evidence that the treatment plan is both followed and effective. |
front 54 How soon after a patient is diagnosed w/malnutrition should they receive a malnutrition care plan? Immediately Within 24hrs Within 48hrs Within 12hrs | back 54 Immediately Why delay? |
front 55 What primarily occurs during the first phase of wound healing? Granulation Angiogensis Inflammation Clotting | back 55 Clotting |
front 56 During the __ __ __ ____ hemostasis-platelets adhere to the injured vessel wall, forming a platelet plug & generating thrombin to initiate the coagulation cascade. * This clot formation stops bleeding & creates a provisional ECM that supports subsequent inflammatory & repairative processes. | back 56 first phase of wound healing |
front 57 What do the phases below represent? 1. Hemostatis (clotting) 2. Inflammation (erythema, edema, and neutrophil-mediated debris removal) 3. Proliferation/granulation (fibroblast-driven collagen synthesis & new tissue formation. 4. Maturation/remodeling (collagen reorganiztion and scar contaction) | back 57 The four primary phases of wound healing |
front 58 Which intervention is most appropriate for a patient w/a high risk of skin breakdown due to incontinence? Application of an antimicrobial ointment Frequent repositioning Increased use of absorbent pads Application of moisture barrier | back 58 Application of moisture barrier Protect against irritants such as urine, feces, and sweat. Moisture barriers are creams, ointments, or films that create a protective layer over the skin, preventing moisture-induced irritation & breakdown. |
front 59 What is the recommended daily allowance (RDA) of protein for a healthy person? 0.5 g/kg/day 2.2 g/kg/day 0.8 g/kg/day 1.2 g/kg/day | back 59 0.8 g/kg/day This is the RDA for protein per kilogram of body weight per day. After injury or during periods of catabolic stress, protein needs may increase to approx. 1.5 g/kg/day. |
front 60 True / False Older adults often require LESS protein than younger individuals. | back 60 False * they often require more. |