front 1 Which process accounts for most myocardial ischemia cases? A) Coronary vasculitis B) Atherosclerotic narrowing C) Septal congenital defect D) Primary myocardial infection | back 1 B. Atherosclerotic narrowing |
front 2 A patient has severe substernal chest pain from transient myocardial ischemia, but cardiac myocytes do not undergo necrosis. What is this syndrome called? A) Myocardial infarction B) Stable myocarditis C) Angina pectoris D) Coagulative necrosis | back 2 C. Angina pectoris |
front 3 An acute thrombotic occlusion of which coronary artery is classically called the “widowmaker”? A) RCA B) LCX C) PDA D) LAD | back 3 D. LAD |
front 4 A patient has prolonged coronary ischemia causing death of cardiac muscle cells. Which diagnosis best describes this event? A) Angina pectoris B) Myocardial infarction C) Prinzmetal angina D) Sick sinus syndrome | back 4 B. Myocardial infarction |
front 5 Which referred pain pattern is most typical for angina pectoris? A) Right shoulder and wrist B) Left arm or jaw C) Epigastrium and umbilicus D) Right flank and groin | back 5 B. Left arm or jaw |
front 6 A patient with recurrent angina is started on medications that reduce ischemic symptoms by improving coronary supply-demand balance. Which front-line treatment pair matches these notes? A) ACE inhibitor and aspirin B) Digoxin and furosemide C) CCBs and nitroglycerin D) Heparin and warfarin | back 6 C. CCBs and nitroglycerin |
front 7 A woman has episodic myocardial ischemia at rest due to transient coronary artery spasm rather than fixed exertional narrowing. Which diagnosis best fits? A) Stable angina B) Prinzmetal variant angina C) Myocardial rupture D) Sick sinus syndrome | back 7 B. Prinzmetal variant angina |
front 8 A patient’s chest pain episodes occur from coronary artery spasm and may happen without exertion. Which mechanism best explains the ischemia? A) Fixed 70% plaque narrowing B) Coronary vasospasm C) Ventricular septal rupture D) Chronic venous congestion | back 8 B. Coronary vasospasm |
front 9 Which patient group is at increased risk for coronary artery disease due to loss of estrogen-associated protection? A) Premenopausal adolescents B) Postmenopausal women C) Pediatric females D) Pregnant teenagers | back 9 B. Postmenopausal women |
front 10 During myocardial ischemia, impaired aerobic metabolism causes buildup of a noxious metabolite in cardiac myocytes. Which metabolite is emphasized? A) Lactate B) Bilirubin C) Creatinine D) Ammonia | back 10 A. Lactate |
front 11 A coronary occlusion begins causing irreversible ischemic myocyte injury. Which myocardial region is injured first? A) Epicardial surface B) Subendocardial zone C) Papillary muscle tip only D) Pericardial reflection | back 11 B. Subendocardial zone |
front 12 A patient has an RCA occlusion and develops evidence of left ventricular myocardial injury. Which statement is most accurate? A) RCA cannot affect LV B) RCA always spares septum C) RCA can damage LV D) RCA affects only atria | back 12 C. RCA can damage LV |
front 13 A coronary artery supplies the cardiac apex, anterior left ventricle, and anterior two-thirds of the interventricular septum. Which vessel is described? A) RCA B) LAD C) LCX D) PDA | back 13 B. LAD |
front 14 A full-thickness myocardial infarct occurs after occlusion of a major surface coronary vessel. Which infarct-vessel pairing is correct? A) Transmural, epicardial vessel B) Subendocardial, pulmonary vessel C) Transmural, endocardial capillary D) Nontransmural, cardiac vein | back 14 A. Transmural, epicardial vessel |
front 15 An infarct involves the full thickness of the ventricular wall because an epicardial coronary artery is occluded. Which infarct type is this? A) Nontransmural infarct B) Transmural infarct C) Watershed infarct D) Liquefactive infarct | back 15 B. Transmural infarct |
front 16 A patient develops a nontransmural myocardial infarct in a partially occluded coronary artery. Which mechanism best matches this pattern? A) Plaque disruption with thrombus B) Pure coronary vasospasm C) Septal congenital shunting D) Viral myocardial invasion | back 16 A. Plaque disruption with thrombus This leads to partial occlusion and causes non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI). |
front 17 Why can thrombus formation in a partially occluded coronary artery precipitate infarction? A) It reverses atherosclerosis B) It restores coronary flow C) It effectively completes occlusion D) It prevents platelet activation | back 17 C. It effectively completes occlusion |
front 18 Across myocardial infarction cases, which coronary vessel is most commonly involved? A) LAD B) RCA C) LCX D) PDA | back 18 A. LAD |
front 19 In most people, which artery supplies the posterior one-third of the interventricular septum? A) LAD B) LCX C) RCA D) Internal thoracic | back 19 C. RCA |
front 20 A patient dies 2–3 hours after a suspected MI, before gross necrosis is obvious. Which stain can help identify necrotic myocardium? A) Congo red B) PAS stain C) Oil red O D) Triphenyltetrazolium chloride | back 20 D. Triphenyltetrazolium chloride |
front 21 A myocardial infarct is examined histologically after prolonged ischemia. Which necrosis pattern is expected in heart tissue? A) Liquefactive necrosis B) Coagulative necrosis C) Caseous necrosis D) Fat necrosis | back 21 B. Coagulative necrosis |
front 22 A patient arrives with an acute MI. What is the first therapeutic goal? A) Salvage myocardium by reperfusion B) Prevent all future plaques C) Diagnose chronic stable angina D) Increase infarct demarcation | back 22 A. Salvage myocardium by reperfusion |
front 23 A patient receives thrombolysis for an acute coronary clot. Shortly after flow returns, oxidative and inflammatory damage worsens myocyte injury. What complication occurred? A) Prinzmetal angina B) Reperfusion injury C) Sick sinus syndrome D) Stable exertional ischemia | back 23 B. Reperfusion injury |
front 24 A patient with an inferior MI has nausea, vomiting, and diaphoresis. These symptoms suggest damage involving which ventricular region? A) Anterior septal ventricle B) Posteroinferior ventricle C) Right atrial appendage D) Lateral papillary base | back 24 B. Posteroinferior ventricle |
front 25 Which symptom triad in acute MI points toward posteroinferior ventricular involvement in these notes? A) Fever, cough, hemoptysis B) Diaphoresis, nausea, vomiting C) Syncope, seizure, aphasia D) Jaundice, pruritus, ascites | back 25 B. Diaphoresis, nausea, vomiting |
front 26 A patient has a transmural myocardial infarction with acute ST elevations on ECG. Which infarct-ECG pairing is correct? A) Transmural infarct, STEMI B) Transmural infarct, NSTEMI C) Subendocardial infarct, STEMI D) Subendocardial infarct, pericarditis | back 26 A. Transmural infarct, STEMI |
front 27 A patient has myocardial necrosis limited mainly to the subendocardial zone without ST-segment elevation. Which infarct classification best fits? A) STEMI B) NSTEMI C) Prinzmetal angina D) Brugada syndrome | back 27 B. NSTEMI |
front 28 Cardiac troponin is expected to begin rising after what time interval? A) 10–20 minutes B) 2–4 hours C) 12–18 hours D) 3–5 days | back 28 B. 2–4 hours |
front 29 After an acute myocardial infarction, cardiac troponin rises within hours. When does it typically peak? A) 4–6 hours B) 8–12 hours C) 24–48 hours D) 7–10 days | back 29 C. 24–48 hours |
front 30 A patient has a STEMI rather than an NSTEMI. Which complication category is relatively more common in STEMIs? A) Arrhythmias B) Renal stones C) Biliary colic D) Peptic ulcers | back 30 A. Arrhythmias |
front 31 After an MI, two patients have similar infarct sizes but different long-term outcomes. Which factor best indicates a good prognosis? A) Complete PR prolongation B) Retention of LV function C) Higher lactate accumulation D) Persistent ventricular fibrillation | back 31 B. Retention of LV function |
front 32 A patient’s SA node is damaged, and pacemaker activity shifts to junctional foci near the AV node. What is this condition called? A) Long QT syndrome B) Sick sinus syndrome C) Brugada syndrome D) Prinzmetal angina | back 32 B. Sick sinus syndrome |
front 33 An ECG shows progressive elongation of the PR interval, indicating delayed atrioventricular conduction. What general conduction abnormality is suggested? A) Ventricular fibrillation B) Heart block C) Short QT syndrome D) Coronary vasospasm | back 33 B. Heart block |
front 34 Long QT syndrome, short QT syndrome, and Brugada syndrome are grouped together because they primarily involve abnormal ion channel function. What are they called? A) Cardiomyopathies B) Channelopathies C) Valvulopathies D) Vasculitides | back 34 B. Channelopathies |
front 35 A young man has syncope with a Brugada ECG pattern but no structural heart disease. Which ECG combination is classically associated? A) ST elevation and RBBB B) PR shortening and LVH C) ST depression and LBBB D) QT shortening and AV block | back 35 A. ST elevation and RBBB |
front 36 A patient experiences sudden cardiac death. Which ECG rhythm most commonly precedes this event? A) First-degree AV block B) Ventricular fibrillation C) Sinus bradycardia D) Atrial flutter | back 36 B. Ventricular fibrillation |
front 37 An adult with chronic systemic hypertension develops thickening of the left ventricular wall. What is the most common cause of LVH? A) Pulmonary embolism B) Hypertension C) Tricuspid stenosis D) Chronic bronchitis | back 37 B. Hypertension |
front 38 A patient with long-standing elevated systemic arterial pressure develops increased left ventricular wall thickness. Which mechanism best explains the hypertrophy? A) Pressure overload on LV B) Volume loss from RV C) Pulmonary venous spasm D) Coronary plaque regression | back 38 A. Pressure overload on LV |
front 39 What is the most common cause of RVH? A) Systemic hypertension B) Lung disorder causing PH C) LAD atherosclerosis D) Mitral valve prolapse | back 39 B. Lung disorder causing PH |
front 40 A patient with pulmonary hypertension secondary to chronic lung disease develops ventricular hypertrophy. Which chamber is most directly affected? A) Left atrium B) Left ventricle C) Right ventricle D) Right atrium | back 40 C. Right ventricle |
front 41 Which distinction separates angina from MI? A) Angina lacks myocyte necrosis B) Angina requires transmural necrosis C) MI lacks prolonged ischemia D) MI lasts under 15 seconds | back 41 A. Angina lacks myocyte necrosis |
front 42 A patient has fixed coronary narrowing, exertional chest pain, lactate buildup, and no necrosis. Which diagnosis best integrates these findings? A) Stable angina pectoris B) Sick sinus syndrome C) Ventricular fibrillation D) Right ventricular hypertrophy | back 42 A. Stable angina pectoris |
front 43 A coronary occlusion produces full-thickness necrosis and ST elevations. Which artery type is most likely acutely occluded? A) Epicardial coronary artery B) Pulmonary capillary C) Endocardial venule D) Coronary sinus branch | back 43 A. Epicardial coronary artery |
front 44 A patient develops acute ventricular septal defect after myocardial infarction. Which direction of blood flow is expected immediately after rupture? A) LV to RV B) RV to LV C) RA to LA D) Aorta to LV | back 44 A. LV to RV |
front 45 Several days after an MI, a patient develops acute pulmonary edema and a new systolic murmur due to rupture of a left ventricular papillary muscle. Which valve lesion is most likely A) Aortic stenosis B) Tricuspid regurgitation C) Mitral regurgitation D) Pulmonic stenosis | back 45 C. Mitral regurgitation the papillary muscle that does the chorade tendinae strabilization and opening of the mitral leaflets is messed up |
front 46 Which mechanical complication of MI is described as relatively least common in these notes but causes acute severe mitral regurgitation when it occurs? A) Free-wall rupture B) Papillary muscle rupture C) Ventricular aneurysm D) Mural thrombus | back 46 B. Papillary muscle rupture |
front 47 A post-MI patient has free-wall rupture contained by adherent pericardium, forming a localized hematoma that communicates with the ventricular cavity. What is this lesion? A) True ventricular aneurysm B) Mural thrombus C) False aneurysm D) Infarct expansion | back 47 C. False aneurysm |
front 48 Why is a post-MI false aneurysm clinically dangerous despite temporarily containing free-wall rupture? A) It blocks AV conduction B) It often still ruptures C) It prevents LV filling D) It causes aortic stenosis | back 48 B. It often still ruptures |
front 49 A late complication of transmural infarction produces a ventricular wall outpouching bounded by scarred myocardium that bulges during systole. Which lesion is present? A) False aneurysm B) Mural thrombus C) Ventricular septal rupture D) True ventricular aneurysm | back 49 D. True ventricular aneurysm |
front 50 Which feature best distinguishes a true ventricular aneurysm from a false aneurysm after MI? A) No ventricular communication B) Bounded by scarred myocardium C) Made only of thrombus D) Usually ruptures immediately | back 50 B. Bounded by scarred myocardium |
front 51 A patient develops sharp chest pain and pericardial inflammation on the second or third day after a transmural MI. Which complication is most likely? A) Cor pulmonale B) Mural thrombus C) Post-MI pericarditis D) Sick sinus syndrome | back 51 C. Post-MI pericarditis |
front 52 Early post-MI pericarditis after transmural infarction is best explained by which mechanism? A) Underlying myocardial inflammation B) Acute pulmonary hypertension C) Mitral valve calcification D) Primary atrial channelopathy | back 52 A. Underlying myocardial inflammation |
front 53 A post-MI patient develops thinning, stretching, and dilation of the necrotic infarcted wall segment. Which complication is described? A) Ventricular remodeling B) Infarct expansion C) Sick sinus syndrome D) False aneurysm | back 53 B. Infarct expansion |
front 54 Which infarct location is especially associated with infarct expansion in these notes? A) Posterior RV infarct B) Inferior atrial infarct C) Lateral wall infarct D) Anteroseptal infarct | back 54 D. Anteroseptal infarct |
front 55 A patient with abnormal contraction of an infarcted ventricular wall develops intracardiac stasis and endocardial damage, creating a thrombogenic surface. Which complication is most likely? A) Acute VSD B) Mural thrombus C) Long QT syndrome D) Mitral stenosis | back 55 B. Mural thrombus |
front 56 Mural thrombus after myocardial infarction is most directly promoted by which combination? A) Hyperkalemia and hypoxia B) Stasis and endocardial damage C) Bradycardia and valve calcification D) Vasospasm and pericarditis | back 56 B. Stasis and endocardial damage |
front 57 After an MI, noninfarcted ventricular segments undergo hypertrophy and dilation to maintain hemodynamics. What is this process called? A) False aneurysm B) Ventricular remodeling C) Papillary rupture D) Paroxysmal rhythm | back 57 B. Ventricular remodeling |
front 58 Why can ventricular remodeling eventually become harmful despite initially helping cardiac output? A) It lowers oxygen demand B) It removes scar tissue C) Dilation raises oxygen demand D) It prevents mural thrombus | back 58 C. Dilation raises oxygen demand |
front 59 Which medication class can inhibit or reduce maladaptive ventricular remodeling after MI? A) ACE inhibitors B) Loop diuretics C) Calcium supplements D) Beta-lactams | back 59 A. ACE inhibitors |
front 60 A patient with accumulated infarcts develops progressive congestive heart failure, cardiomegaly, LV hypertrophy, and LV dilation. Which diagnosis best fits? A) Cor pulmonale B) Chronic ischemic heart disease C) Brugada syndrome D) Acute Dressler syndrome | back 60 B. Chronic ischemic heart disease |
front 61 Chronic ischemic heart disease causes progressive congestive heart failure through which mechanism? A) Repeated ischemic injury accumulation B) Primary pulmonary valve stenosis C) Isolated atrial channelopathy D) Acute right-to-left shunting | back 61 A. Repeated ischemic injury accumulation |
front 62 Which histologic pattern best matches chronic ischemic heart disease? A) Caseating granulomas B) Hypertrophy, vacuolization, fibrosis C) Liquefactive necrosis D) Amyloid without myocyte hypertrophy | back 62 B. Hypertrophy, vacuolization, fibrosis |
front 63 An arrhythmia originates from irritable foci in either the right or left atrium. Which term describes its anatomic origin? A) Ventricular B) Junctional C) Supraventricular D) Fascicular | back 63 C. Supraventricular |
front 64 What is the most common cause of rhythm disorders involving the cardiac conduction system? A) Ischemic injury B) Vitamin deficiency C) Valve calcification D) Urea retention | back 64 A. Ischemic injury |
front 65 How can ischemic injury cause rhythm disorders in the heart conduction system? A) Direct damage or chamber dilation B) Increased bile acid deposition C) Reduced skeletal muscle tone D) Primary renal salt loss | back 65 A. Direct damage or chamber dilation |
front 66 An ECG shows an elongated PR interval with every atrial impulse still conducted to the ventricles. Which heart block is present? A) First-degree block B) Second-degree block C) Third-degree block D) Bundle branch reentry | back 66 A. First-degree block |
front 67 Which conduction abnormality is defined by intermittent failure of atrial impulses to reach the ventricles? A) First-degree block B) Second-degree block C) Sick sinus syndrome D) Atrial fibrillation | back 67 B. Second-degree block |
front 68 A patient has complete failure of atrioventricular signal transmission with atrial and ventricular dissociation. Which degree of heart block is implied? A) First-degree block B) Second-degree block C) Third-degree block | back 68 C. Third-degree block |
front 69 A patient’s ECG shows an irregularly irregular rhythm due to atrial myocytes depolarizing independently and sporadically. Which arrhythmia is most likely? A) Ventricular fibrillation B) Atrial fibrillation C) First-degree block D) Sick sinus syndrome | back 69 B. Atrial fibrillation |
front 70 A heritable ion-channel disorder prolongs ventricular repolarization and increases susceptibility to malignant ventricular arrhythmias. Which syndrome is described? A) Brugada syndrome B) Sick sinus syndrome C) Long QT syndrome D) Cor pulmonale | back 70 C. Long QT syndrome |
front 71 Why is long QT syndrome clinically dangerous? A) It promotes malignant ventricular arrhythmias B) It causes acute mitral regurgitation C) It reverses coronary atherosclerosis D) It prevents atrial depolarization | back 71 A. It promotes malignant ventricular arrhythmias |
front 72 In patients lacking structural cardiac pathology, arrhythmias due to channelopathies are most commonly inherited in what pattern in these notes? A) Autosomal recessive B) X-linked recessive C) Mitochondrial D) Autosomal dominant | back 72 D. Autosomal dominant |
front 73 Sudden cardiac death is defined as unexpected death from lethal arrhythmia without symptoms or within what symptom duration? A) 1–24 hours B) 2–3 days C) 1–2 weeks D) 3–6 months | back 73 A. 1–24 hours |
front 74 Which rhythm mechanisms may directly cause sudden cardiac death in these notes? A) Asystole or ventricular fibrillation B) Sinus tachycardia or Wenckebach C) First-degree block or LVH D) Atrial flutter or PVCs | back 74 A. Asystole or ventricular fibrillation |
front 75 Most sudden cardiac death cases result from ischemia-induced myocardial irritability causing which immediate problem? A) Malignant ventricular arrhythmias B) Acute mitral stenosis C) Pulmonary valve rupture D) Left-to-right atrial shunt | back 75 A. Malignant ventricular arrhythmias |
front 76 What is the leading underlying cause of sudden cardiac death A) Rheumatic valve disease B) Coronary artery disease C) Primary renal failure D) Pulmonary embolism | back 76 B. Coronary artery disease |
front 77 In left-sided hypertensive heart disease, pressure overload initially causes ventricular hypertrophy and stiffness. Which functional problem follows? A) Impaired diastolic filling B) Acute right-to-left shunt C) Mitral valve perforation D) Complete AV dissociation | back 77 A. Impaired diastolic filling |
front 78 Why does left atrial enlargement occur in left-sided systemic hypertensive heart disease? A) LV diastolic filling is impaired B) RV rupture increases preload C) Pulmonary valve stenosis reverses flow D) Coronary plaques disappear | back 78 A. LV diastolic filling is impaired |
front 79 Which microscopic finding best matches hypertensive heart disease? A) Myocyte and nuclear enlargement B) Caseating granulomas C) Liquefactive necrosis D) Epicardial hematoma only | back 79 A. Myocyte and nuclear enlargement |
front 80 Hypertensive heart disease from systemic hypertension most commonly affects which chamber? A) Right atrium B) Right ventricle C) Left atrium D) Left ventricle | back 80 D. Left ventricle |
front 81 Cor pulmonale is right-sided hypertensive heart disease caused by which primary hemodynamic burden? A) RV pressure overload B) LV volume overload C) LA pressure loss D) Aortic valve reflux | back 81 A. RV pressure overload |
front 82 Which condition causes cor pulmonale by producing pulmonary hypertension and right ventricular pressure overload? A) Emphysema B) Systemic hypertension C) Mitral valve prolapse D) LAD thrombosis | back 82 A. Emphysema |
front 83 Which finding best describes acute cor pulmonale? A) Marked RV dilation without hypertrophy B) Severe LV hypertrophy with fibrosis C) Chronic LA enlargement only D) Scarred LV systolic bulging | back 83 A. Marked RV dilation without hypertrophy |
front 84 Which disease is noted as a common complication of left-sided heart disease? A) Cor pulmonale B) Brugada syndrome C) Papillary rupture D) Long QT syndrome | back 84 A. Cor pulmonale |
front 85 A patient with left ventricular hypertrophy has an ECG axis shift related to increased LV mass. Which axis deviation may result? A) Right-axis deviation B) Left-axis deviation C) Electrical alternans D) Indeterminate only | back 85 B. Left-axis deviation |
front 86 A patient with systemic hypertensive heart disease develops left atrial enlargement. Which arrhythmia is commonly associated with this complication? A) Atrial fibrillation B) Ventricular fibrillation C) Brugada syndrome D) Complete heart block | back 86 A. Atrial fibrillation |
front 87 Which combination best matches left-sided hypertensive heart disease? A) Systemic HTN, LVH, LA enlargement B) Pulmonary HTN, RVH, emphysema C) MI rupture, VSD, L→R shunt D) Channelopathy, normal structure, arrhythmia | back 87 A. Systemic HTN, LVH, LA enlargement |
front 88 Which combination best matches chronic cor pulmonale? A) Pulmonary HTN, RV pressure overload, RVH B) Systemic HTN, LV pressure overload, LVH C) Transmural MI, scarred LV aneurysm D) SA damage, junctional bradycardia | back 88 A. Pulmonary HTN, RV pressure overload, RVH |
front 89 Which post-MI outpouching is a localized hematoma communicating with the ventricle and bounded by pericardial tissue? A) False aneurysm B) True ventricular aneurysm C) Chronic IHD D) Ventricular remodeling | back 89 A. False aneurysm |
front 90 Which post-MI process involves thinning and stretching of the necrotic infarcted segment itself? A) Ventricular remodeling B) Infarct expansion C) Sick sinus syndrome D) Channelopathy | back 90 B. Infarct expansion |
front 91 Which post-MI complication is most directly embolic in concern because a thrombus forms along damaged endocardium? A) Mural thrombus B) Post-MI pericarditis C) Ventricular remodeling D) Sick sinus syndrome | back 91 A. Mural thrombus |
front 92 A patient with repeated myocardial ischemic damage develops progressive CHF and becomes a heart transplant candidate. Which diagnosis accounts for about half of transplant patients in these notes? A) Chronic ischemic heart disease B) Cor pulmonale C) Brugada syndrome D) Acute pericarditis | back 92 A. Chronic ischemic heart disease |
front 93 Sudden cardiac death from myocardial ischemia most directly results from which immediate electrical complication? A) Fatal ventricular arrhythmia B) Acute left-to-right shunt C) Progressive valve stenosis D) Reversible myocyte swelling | back 93 A. Fatal ventricular arrhythmia |
front 94 During an episode of angina pectoris, myocardial cells become swollen but later recover. Which injury pattern is most consistent with this presentation? A) Caseous necrosis B) Liquefactive necrosis C) Irreversible contraction band necrosis D) Reversible ischemic injury | back 94 D. Reversible ischemic injury |
front 95 A patient has paroxysmal precordial chest discomfort caused by transient myocardial ischemia insufficient to kill myocytes. Which term best names this syndrome? A) Angina pectoris B) Unstable aneurysm C) Cor pulmonale D) Sick sinus syndrome | back 95 A. Angina pectoris |
front 96 A patient reports chest pain that previously occurred only with exertion but now occurs at rest, lasts longer than 20 minutes, and is increasingly severe. Which diagnosis best fits? A) Stable angina B) Prinzmetal angina C) Unstable crescendo angina D) Silent ischemia | back 96 C. Unstable crescendo angina |
front 97 Unstable or crescendo angina is most directly caused by which coronary plaque event? A) Plaque disruption with thrombosis B) Pure coronary vasospasm C) Complete fibrotic scar formation D) Chronic pulmonary vasoconstriction | back 97 A. Plaque disruption with thrombosis |
front 98 Which clinical pattern best supports unstable angina rather than stable angina? A) Exertional pain relieved by rest B) Pain only after large meals C) Rest pain lasting over 20 minutes D) Brief pain with deep breathing | back 98 C. Rest pain lasting over 20 minutes |
front 99 Stable angina is most commonly caused by which physiologic mismatch? A) Supply-demand imbalance B) Coronary embolic shower C) Papillary muscle rupture D) Primary channelopathy | back 99 A. Supply-demand imbalance |
front 100 A patient with stable angina and a patient with Prinzmetal angina both receive drugs that relax vascular smooth muscle. Which treatment category applies to both? A) Vasodilator drugs B) Cytotoxic drugs C) Antiviral drugs D) Antifungal drugs | back 100 A. Vasodilator drugs |