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Phys 27

front 1

A urine dipstick is normal in a healthy adult because the glomerular capillary barrier normally produces filtrate with which composition?

A) Protein-rich and cell-free

B) Protein-free and cell-free

C) Protein-free with erythrocytes

D) Protein-rich with erythrocytes

back 1

B. Protein-free and cell-free

front 2

Glomerular filtrate is normally essentially devoid of red blood cells because glomerular capillaries are relatively impermeable to which components?

A) Proteins and cellular elements

B) Sodium and chloride ions

C) Water and small solutes

D) Glucose and amino acids

back 2

A. Proteins and cellular elements

front 3

A patient has normal plasma calcium, but not all calcium is freely filterable at the glomerulus. Which calcium fraction is not filtered?

A) Ionized calcium

B) Filtered calcium

C) Protein-bound calcium

D) Tubular calcium

back 3

C. Protein-bound calcium

front 4

Most plasma fatty acids are not freely filtered across glomerular capillaries because they are primarily:

A) Bound to proteins

B) Stored in erythrocytes

C) Trapped in podocytes

D) Secreted by tubules

back 4

A. Bound to proteins

front 5

Which two variables directly determine glomerular filtration rate?

A) Hematocrit and plasma sodium

B) Kf and net filtration pressure

C) Tubule length and urine flow

D) ADH and bladder pressure

back 5

B. Kf and net filtration pressure

front 6

The glomerular capillary filtration coefficient, Kf, is the product of which two capillary properties?

A) Pressure and plasma protein

B) Diameter and blood viscosity

C) Permeability and surface area

D) Osmolality and renal flow

back 6

C. Permeability and surface area

front 7

In an average adult, which value best matches normal glomerular filtration rate

A) 13 ml/min

B) 60 ml/min

C) 125 ml/min

D) 1100 ml/min

back 7

C. 125 ml/min

front 8

A normal adult has a GFR of 125 ml/min. Which daily filtration volume does this approximate?

A) 3 L/day

B) 30 L/day

C) 60 L/day

D) 180 L/day

back 8

D. 180 L/day

front 9

Which equation correctly defines filtration fraction?

A) Renal plasma flow/GFR

B) GFR/renal plasma flow

C) GFR/renal blood flow

D) Urine flow/GFR

back 9

B. GFR/renal plasma flow

front 10

A student compares the glomerular capillary membrane with typical systemic capillaries. What structural feature is unique?

A) Three major filtration layers

B) No basement membrane

C) Two endothelial layers

D) Complete cellular occlusion

back 10

A. Three major filtration layers

front 11

Which sequence lists the three major layers of the glomerular capillary membrane from blood outward?

A) Podocyte; endothelium; basement membrane

B) Basement membrane; podocyte; endothelium

C) Endothelium; basement membrane; podocyte

D) Endothelium; podocyte; basement membrane

back 11

C. Endothelium; basement membrane; podocyte

front 12

The outer epithelial cell layer of the glomerular filtration barrier is formed by which cells?

A) Mesangial cells

B) Podocytes

C) Macula densa cells

D) Juxtaglomerular cells

back 12

B. Podocytes

front 13

The glomerular capillary endothelium contains thousands of small holes. What are these openings called?

A) Slit pores

B) Fenestrae

C) Tight junctions

D) Canaliculi

back 13

B. Fenestrae

front 14

The glomerular basement membrane is mainly a meshwork of which substances

A) Elastin and fibrinogen

B) Albumin and globulin

C) Collagen and proteoglycans

D) Keratin and myosin

back 14

C. Collagen and proteoglycans

front 15

Why can large amounts of water and small solutes pass through the glomerular basement membrane?

A) It has large mesh spaces

B) It lacks negative charge

C) It actively pumps water

D) It contains red cell pores

back 15

A. It has large mesh spaces

front 16

Podocyte foot processes are separated by filtration gaps called:

A) Fenestrae

B) Slit pores

C) Major calyces

D) Tight junctions

back 16

B. Slit pores

front 17

Through which structure does filtrate move between podocyte foot processes?

A) Fenestrated liver pores

B) Macula densa plaques

C) Slit pores

D) Cortical collecting ducts

back 17

C. Slit pores

front 18

Which property of glomerular epithelial cells provides additional restriction to plasma protein filtration?

A) Positive electrical charge

B) Negative electrical charge

C) High lipid solubility

D) Smooth muscle contraction

back 18

B. Negative electrical charge

front 19

Despite high filtration rate, the glomerular filtration barrier selectively filters molecules mainly according to:

A) Size and electrical charge

B) pH and temperature

C) Sodium and potassium content

D) Hormonal and neural tone

back 19

A. Size and electrical charge

front 20

A molecule has filterability of 1.0. What does this mean?

A) Not filtered at all

B) Freely filtered like water

C) Half as filtered as water

D) Secreted after filtration

back 20

B. Freely filtered like water

front 21

Why does the negatively charged glomerular wall repel albumin?

A) Albumin is positively charged

B) Albumin is negatively charged

C) Albumin is lipid soluble

D) Albumin is bound to calcium

back 21

B. Albumin is negatively charged

front 22

Which glomerular wall component contributes negative charge that restricts albumin filtration?

A) Proteoglycans

B) Hemoglobin

C) Creatinine

D) Bicarbonate

back 22

A. Proteoglycans

front 23

For dextrans of equal molecular weight, which type is filtered more readily through the glomerular barrier?

A) Negatively charged dextran

B) Neutral dextran

C) Protein-bound dextran

D) Albumin-bound dextran

back 23

B. Neutral dextran

front 24

The negative charges of the basement membrane and podocytes most strongly restrict which molecules?

A) Small positively charged ions

B) Large negatively charged molecules

C) Small neutral solutes

D) Water molecules

back 24

B. Large negatively charged molecules

front 25

A child develops selective albuminuria despite nearly normal kidney histology. Which early barrier abnormality best explains this?

A) Loss of negative charges

B) Excess slit pore closure

C) Increased erythrocyte filtration

D) Loss of renal blood flow

back 25

A. Loss of negative charges

front 26

Loss of negative charges on the glomerular basement membrane before obvious histologic change is characteristic of:

A) Nephrotic obstruction

B) Minimal change nephropathy

C) Acute pyelonephritis

D) Renal papillary necrosis

back 26

B. Minimal change nephropathy

front 27

In minimal change nephropathy, which urinary abnormality occurs because lower molecular weight proteins are filtered?

A) Glycosuria

B) Hematuria

C) Proteinuria or albuminuria

D) Ketouria

back 27

C. Proteinuria or albuminuria

front 28

Which protein is especially likely to appear in urine when glomerular negative charge is lost?

A) Albumin

B) Fibrinogen

C) Hemoglobin

D) Myosin

back 28

A. Albumin

front 29

Which pair correctly identifies the two immediate determinants of GFR in the filtration equation?

A) Kf and net filtration pressure

B) RPF and filtration fraction

C) Hematocrit and renal blood flow

D) Urine pressure and bladder pressure

back 29

A. Kf and net filtration pressure

front 30

Which equation correctly describes glomerular filtration rate?

A) GFR = Kf/NFP

B) GFR = NFP/Kf

C) GFR = Kf × NFP

D) GFR = RPF × hematocrit

back 30

C. GFR = Kf × NFP

front 31

Net filtration pressure across glomerular capillaries is the sum of which forces?

A) Hydrostatic and colloid osmotic forces

B) Electrical and metabolic forces

C) Tubular and ureteral pressures

D) Neural and hormonal forces

back 31

A. Hydrostatic and colloid osmotic forces

front 32

Which force favors filtration across the glomerular capillary membrane?

A) Bowman hydrostatic pressure

B) Glomerular hydrostatic pressure

C) Glomerular oncotic pressure

D) Plasma protein pressure

back 32

B. Glomerular hydrostatic pressure

front 33

Which force opposes filtration by pushing fluid back toward glomerular capillaries from Bowman’s capsule?

A) Bowman hydrostatic pressure

B) Bowman oncotic pressure

C) Glomerular hydrostatic pressure

D) Interstitial oncotic pressure

back 33

A. Bowman hydrostatic pressure

front 34

Which force opposes filtration because plasma proteins retain water within glomerular capillaries?

A) Bowman hydrostatic pressure

B) Bowman oncotic pressure

C) Glomerular colloid osmotic pressure

D) Glomerular hydrostatic pressure

back 34

C. Glomerular colloid osmotic pressure

front 35

Which force would promote filtration if proteins were present in Bowman’s capsule?

A) Bowman colloid osmotic pressure

B) Glomerular colloid osmotic pressure

C) Bowman hydrostatic pressure

D) Peritubular hydrostatic pressure

back 35

A. Bowman colloid osmotic pressure

front 36

A patient with ureteral obstruction has increased pressure transmitted backward into Bowman’s capsule. What is the expected direct effect on GFR?

A) GFR increases markedly

B) GFR remains unchanged

C) GFR decreases

D) GFR doubles transiently

back 36

C. GFR decreases

front 37

A patient with uric acid stones obstructing the ureter develops reduced filtration. Which pressure change best explains the lower GFR?

A) Increased Bowman hydrostatic pressure

B) Decreased plasma oncotic pressure

C) Increased afferent hydrostatic pressure

D) Decreased renal venous pressure

back 37

A. Increased Bowman hydrostatic pressure

front 38

Calcium or uric acid precipitates lodge in the ureter and obstruct urinary outflow. Which downstream complication may occur if obstruction persists?

A) Nephrotic syndrome

B) Hydronephrosis

C) Central diabetes insipidus

D) Minimal change disease

back 38

B. Hydronephrosis

front 39

Hydronephrosis from ureteral obstruction is best described as distention and dilation of which structures?

A) Cortex and glomeruli

B) Renal artery and vein

C) Renal pelvis and calyces

D) Tubules and vasa recta

back 39

C. Renal pelvis and calyces

front 40

A patient has an obstructing ureteral stone with persistent elevated Bowman’s capsule pressure. What is the major renal risk if the obstruction is not relieved?

A) Increased nephron regeneration

B) Permanent kidney damage

C) Increased renal oxygen delivery

D) Reduced plasma protein filtration

back 40

B. Permanent kidney damage

front 41

When fluid leaves the glomerular capillary and enters Bowman’s capsule, why does the blood left behind have a higher protein concentration?

A) Proteins are not filtered

B) Proteins are actively secreted

C) Proteins enter podocyte cytoplasm

D) Proteins bind filtered glucose

back 41

A. Proteins are not filtered

front 42

If glomerular hydrostatic pressure is held constant, increasing blood flow into the glomerulus tends to have which effect on GFR?

A) Increases GFR

B) Decreases GFR

C) Stops filtration

D) Causes hydronephrosis

back 42

A. Increases GFR

front 43

If glomerular hydrostatic pressure is constant but blood flow into the glomerulus falls, which effect on GFR is expected?

A) GFR rises sharply

B) GFR decreases

C) GFR becomes pressure-independent

D) GFR equals renal blood flow

back 43

B. GFR decreases

front 44

Which set contains the three main determinants of glomerular hydrostatic pressure?

A) ADH, aldosterone, renin

B) Albumin, sodium, chloride

C) Arterial pressure, afferent resistance, efferent resistance

D) Tubule length, plasma volume, hematocrit

back 44

C. Arterial pressure, afferent resistance, efferent resistance

front 45

A drug dilates the afferent arteriole without changing other variables. What happens to glomerular hydrostatic pressure and GFR?

A) Both decrease

B) Pressure decreases; GFR increases

C) Pressure increases; GFR decreases

D) Both increase

back 45

D. Both increase

front 46

Afferent arteriolar dilation increases GFR primarily by producing which hemodynamic change?

A) Increased glomerular hydrostatic pressure

B) Increased Bowman capsule pressure

C) Increased glomerular oncotic pressure

D) Reduced renal artery pressure

back 46

A. Increased glomerular hydrostatic pressure

front 47

Afferent arteriolar constriction would be expected to have which effect on glomerular hydrostatic pressure and GFR?

A) Both increase

B) Both decrease

C) Pressure increases; GFR decreases

D) Pressure decreases; GFR increases

back 47

B. Both decrease

front 48

A patient receives a drug that moderately constricts efferent arterioles. Which immediate glomerular pressure change explains the initial GFR effect?

A) Increased Bowman pressure

B) Reduced glomerular pressure

C) Increased glomerular hydrostatic pressure

D) Reduced plasma protein pressure

back 48

C. Increased glomerular hydrostatic pressure

front 49

At moderate levels of efferent arteriolar constriction, what is the usual effect on GFR?

A) Slight increase

B) Severe decrease

C) No possible change

D) Complete filtration arrest

back 49

A. Slight increase

front 50

With severe efferent arteriolar constriction, what happens to GFR?

A) Continues increasing indefinitely

B) Decreases

C) Becomes independent of proteins

D) Equals renal plasma flow

back 50

B. Decreases

front 51

Which pattern best describes GFR as efferent arteriolar constriction progresses from moderate to severe?

A) Decrease then increase

B) Increase then decrease

C) No change then increase

D) Continuous linear increase

back 51

B. Increase then decrease

front 52

Why does severe efferent arteriolar constriction eventually decrease GFR despite raising glomerular hydrostatic pressure?

A) Bowman pressure becomes negative

B) Plasma proteins disappear from capillaries

C) Colloid osmotic pressure rises rapidly

D) Afferent arterioles fully dilate

back 52

C. Colloid osmotic pressure rises rapidly

front 53

During severe efferent constriction, plasma protein concentration increases markedly. Which effect makes colloid osmotic pressure rise nonlinearly?

A) Donnan effect

B) Starling dilution

C) Ureterorenal reflex

D) Micturition reflex

back 53

A. Donnan effect

front 54

In severe efferent arteriolar constriction, why does colloid osmotic pressure rise faster at higher protein concentrations?

A) Proteins become freely filtered

B) Protein-bound ions add osmotic force

C) Bowman capsule secretes albumin

D) Vasa recta stop concentrating urine

back 54

B. Protein-bound ions add osmotic force

front 55

If renal blood flow and GFR decrease, sodium filtration decreases. What happens to sodium reabsorption and renal oxygen consumption?

A) Both increase

B) Reabsorption increases; oxygen falls

C) Reabsorption falls; oxygen rises

D) Both decrease

back 55

D. Both decrease

front 56

Why does reduced GFR lower renal oxygen consumption?

A) Less sodium is reabsorbed

B) More proteins are filtered

C) More glucose is secreted

D) Less blood reaches cortex

back 56

A. Less sodium is reabsorbed

front 57

Which equation correctly represents renal blood flow?

A) Resistance ÷ pressure gradient

B) Renal vein pressure ÷ resistance

C) Pressure gradient ÷ total resistance

D) GFR ÷ renal plasma flow

back 57

C. Pressure gradient ÷ total resistance

front 58

Renal blood flow is calculated using which pressure gradient?

A) Bowman minus tubular pressure

B) Renal artery minus renal vein

C) Glomerular minus Bowman pressure

D) Afferent minus efferent pressure

back 58

B. Renal artery minus renal vein

front 59

In the renal blood flow equation, the pressure gradient is divided by which variable?

A) Total renal vascular resistance

B) Filtration fraction

C) Plasma colloid osmotic pressure

D) Glomerular filtration coefficient

back 59

A. Total renal vascular resistance

front 60

If renal artery and renal vein pressures remain constant, increased renal vascular resistance has what effect on renal blood flow?

A) Increases flow

B) Decreases flow

C) Stops GFR only

D) Increases filtration fraction only

back 60

B. Decreases flow

front 61

If renal artery and renal vein pressures remain constant, decreased renal vascular resistance has what effect on renal blood flow?

A) Decreases flow

B) Does not affect flow

C) Increases flow

D) Stops medullary flow

back 61

C. Increases flow

front 62

Which kidney region receives most renal blood flow?

A) Renal cortex

B) Renal medulla

C) Renal pelvis

D) Renal papilla

back 62

A. Renal cortex

front 63

Blood flow to the renal medulla is supplied by which specialized capillary system

A) Glomerular capillaries

B) Cortical veins

C) Vasa recta

D) Afferent arterioles

back 63

C. Vasa recta

front 64

The vasa recta are best described as a specialized portion of which capillary system?

A) Peritubular capillary system

B) Glomerular capillary system

C) Portal venous system

D) Pulmonary capillary system

back 64

A. Peritubular capillary system

front 65

A patient with severe hemorrhage has intense renal sympathetic nerve activation. What is the expected effect on renal arterioles, renal blood flow, and GFR?

A) Vasodilation; increased flow; increased GFR

B) Vasoconstriction; decreased flow; decreased GFR

C) Vasodilation; decreased flow; increased GFR

D) Vasoconstriction; increased flow; decreased GFR

back 65

B. Vasoconstriction; decreased flow; decreased GFR

front 66

Strong activation of renal sympathetic nerves directly causes which renal vascular response?

A) Constriction of renal arterioles

B) Dilation of renal arterioles

C) Relaxation of efferent venules

D) Dilation of vasa recta

back 66

A. Constriction of renal arterioles

front 67

A patient has a moderate fall in carotid sinus and cardiopulmonary receptor pressure, causing reflex sympathetic activation. What is the usual effect on renal blood flow and GFR?

A) Marked increase in both

B) Complete loss of autoregulation

C) Little influence on both

D) Severe decrease in both

back 67

C. Little influence on both

front 68

Which situation is most likely to substantially decrease renal blood flow and GFR through sympathetic effects?

A) Mild baroreceptor unloading

B) Moderate cardiopulmonary unloading

C) Strong renal nerve activation

D) Normal postural adjustment

back 68

C. Strong renal nerve activation

front 69

Which adrenal medullary hormones constrict both afferent and efferent arterioles, reducing renal blood flow and GFR?

A) Aldosterone and cortisol

B) Norepinephrine and epinephrine

C) Renin and angiotensin II

D) ADH and oxytocin

back 69

B. Norepinephrine and epinephrine

front 70

Which paired renal effect best matches norepinephrine and epinephrine release

A) Arteriolar dilation; increased GFR

B) Afferent dilation; reduced filtration

C) Arteriolar constriction; reduced GFR

D) Efferent dilation; increased flow

back 70

C. Arteriolar constriction; reduced GFR

front 71

Endothelin is best described as which type of renal vascular mediator?

A) Vasodilator from podocytes

B) Vasoconstrictor from damaged endothelium

C) Anticoagulant from collecting ducts

D) Natriuretic peptide from macula densa

back 71

B. Vasoconstrictor from damaged endothelium

front 72

Which mediator can be released by damaged vascular endothelial cells in the kidneys and other tissues?

A) Endothelin

B) Calcitriol

C) Erythropoietin

D) Albumin

back 72

A. Endothelin

front 73

Which mediator is formed both in the kidneys and in the systemic circulation?

A) Angiotensin II

B) Evans blue dye

C) Antipyrine

D) 51Cr-labeled erythrocytes

back 73

A. Angiotensin II

front 74

Nitric oxide and prostaglandins help preserve renal perfusion by counteracting vasoconstrictor effects of which mediator?

A) Erythropoietin

B) Calcitriol

C) Angiotensin II

D) Inulin

back 74

C. Angiotensin II

front 75

Which pair of mediators opposes angiotensin II–mediated vasoconstriction in renal blood vessels?

A) ADH and aldosterone

B) Nitric oxide and prostaglandins

C) Epinephrine and norepinephrine

D) Endothelin and renin

back 75

B. Nitric oxide and prostaglandins

front 76

Increased angiotensin II levels have which combined effect on glomerular hydrostatic pressure and renal blood flow?

A) Lower pressure; lower flow

B) Lower pressure; higher flow

C) Raise pressure; lower flow

D) Raise pressure; higher flow

back 76

C. Raise pressure; lower flow

front 77

Angiotensin II raises glomerular hydrostatic pressure primarily by constricting which vessel?

A) Afferent arteriole

B) Efferent arteriole

C) Interlobular artery

D) Cortical vein

back 77

B. Efferent arteriole

front 78

A patient with low effective circulating volume has increased angiotensin II levels. Angiotensin II preferentially constricts the efferent arteriole. Which effect of this response helps preserve GFR?

A) Maintains glomerular capillary pressure
B) Increases Bowman capsule pressure
C) Strongly dilates the efferent arteriole
D) Blocks tubular sodium reabsorption

back 78

A. Prevents fall in glomerular pressure

front 79

Elevated angiotensin II helps prevent decreases in GFR by maintaining which pressure?

A) Bowman hydrostatic pressure

B) Renal venous pressure

C) Glomerular hydrostatic pressure

D) Interstitial oncotic pressure

back 79

C. Glomerular hydrostatic pressure

front 80

Angiotensin II reduces renal blood flow by efferent constriction. What downstream peritubular effect promotes sodium and water retention?

A) Increased peritubular flow

B) Decreased peritubular flow

C) Increased Bowman pressure

D) Decreased tubular permeability

back 80

B. Decreased peritubular flow

front 81

A drug inhibits nitric oxide formation in the kidney. Which renal hemodynamic pattern is expected?

A) Lower resistance; increased GFR

B) Higher resistance; decreased GFR

C) Lower resistance; decreased sodium excretion

D) Higher resistance; increased GFR

back 81

B. Higher resistance; decreased GFR

front 82

Inhibition of nitric oxide formation eventually causes high blood pressure through which renal effects?

A) Increased GFR and natriuresis

B) Decreased resistance and natriuresis

C) Increased resistance and reduced natriuresis

D) Decreased filtration fraction and pressure

back 82

C. Increased resistance and reduced natriuresis

front 83

Administration of a nitric oxide synthesis inhibitor decreases urinary sodium excretion because it causes which primary renal vascular change?

A) Increased renal vascular resistance

B) Decreased renal vascular resistance

C) Selective venous dilation

D) Vasa recta rupture

back 83

A. Increased renal vascular resistance

front 84

Renal prostaglandins help protect GFR and renal blood flow primarily by opposing vasoconstriction of which vessels?

A) Afferent arterioles

B) Renal veins

C) Collecting ducts

D) Ureters

back 84

A. Afferent arterioles

front 85

A patient taking a prostaglandin-inhibiting drug is at risk for reduced renal perfusion during vasoconstrictor states. Which lost protective action explains this?

A) Opposing afferent vasoconstriction

B) Increasing efferent vasoconstriction

C) Blocking macula densa signaling

D) Increasing Bowman capsule pressure

back 85

A. Opposing afferent vasoconstriction

front 86

Feedback mechanisms intrinsic to the kidneys maintain relatively constant renal blood flow and GFR despite arterial pressure changes. What is this process called

A) Autoregulation

B) Micturition

C) Osmosis

D) Protein washdown

back 86

A. Autoregulation

front 87

Renal autoregulation refers to the kidney’s ability to keep which variables relatively constant despite arterial pressure changes?

A) Sodium intake and thirst

B) RBF and GFR

C) Hematocrit and albumin

D) ADH and aldosterone

back 87

B. RBF and GFR

front 88

The major purpose of renal autoregulation is to maintain a relatively constant GFR and allow precise control of what?

A) Water and solute excretion

B) Red cell sedimentation

C) Bladder wall tension

D) Plasma protein synthesis

back 88

A. Water and solute excretion

front 89

Why does arterial pressure usually affect urine volume less than expected?

A) GFR cannot be filtered

B) Autoregulation and tubular adaptation

C) Plasma proteins freely enter filtrate

D) Bowman's pressure always decreases

back 89

B. Autoregulation and tubular adaptation

front 90

Glomerulotubular balance describes which tubular response when GFR rises?

A) Tubular reabsorption increases

B) Tubular reabsorption decreases

C) Renin release stops completely

D) Afferent resistance always rises

back 90

A. Tubular reabsorption increases

front 91

A patient’s GFR rises, but urine volume increases less than predicted. Which tubular phenomenon helps explain this?

A) Proteinuria

B) Glomerulotubular balance

C) Vesicoureteral reflux

D) Minimal change nephropathy

back 91

B. Glomerulotubular balance

front 92

Tubuloglomerular feedback controls GFR through which two arteriolar mechanisms?

A) Afferent and efferent feedback

B) Venous and lymphatic feedback

C) Cortical and medullary feedback

D) Sympathetic and somatic feedback

back 92

A. Afferent and efferent feedback

front 93

Which feedback system has afferent and efferent arteriolar components that act together to regulate GFR?

A) Ureterorenal reflex

B) Micturition reflex

C) Tubuloglomerular feedback

D) Baroreceptor reflex

back 93

C. Tubuloglomerular feedback

front 94

The juxtaglomerular complex consists of which key cell groups?

A) Podocytes and mesangial cells

B) Macula densa and JG cells

C) Principal and intercalated cells

D) Fibroblasts and epithelial cells

back 94

B. Macula densa and JG cells

front 95

Macula densa cells are located in which nephron region?

A) Initial distal tubule

B) Proximal straight tubule

C) Collecting duct tip

D) Thin descending limb

back 95

A. Initial distal tubule

front 96

Juxtaglomerular cells are located in the walls of which vessels?

A) Renal veins only

B) Afferent and efferent arterioles

C) Peritubular capillaries only

D) Interlobar and arcuate arteries

back 96

B. Afferent and efferent arterioles

front 97

A fall in sodium chloride concentration at the macula densa initiates which afferent arteriolar response?

A) Increased afferent resistance

B) Decreased afferent resistance

C) Complete afferent occlusion

D) No change in resistance

back 97

B. Decreased afferent resistance

front 98

When macula densa NaCl delivery decreases, lowering afferent arteriolar resistance helps restore GFR by increasing which pressure?

A) Bowman hydrostatic pressure

B) Glomerular hydrostatic pressure

C) Renal venous pressure

D) Interstitial oncotic pressure

back 98

B. Glomerular hydrostatic pressure

front 99

Macula densa detection of decreased sodium chloride increases release of which substance from juxtaglomerular cells?

A) Calcitriol

B) Albumin

C) Renin

D) Endothelin

back 99

C. Renin

front 100

A low NaCl signal at the macula densa produces which paired response?

A) Afferent resistance falls; renin rises

B) Afferent resistance rises; renin falls

C) Efferent resistance falls; renin falls

D) Bowman pressure rises; renin rises

back 100

A. Afferent resistance falls; renin rises

front 101

Which statement best distinguishes renal autoregulation from glomerulotubular balance?

A) Autoregulation stabilizes GFR; GT balance adjusts reabsorption

B) Autoregulation empties bladder; GT balance controls sphincter

C) Autoregulation raises proteins; GT balance lowers GFR

D) Autoregulation secretes EPO; GT balance activates vitamin D

back 101

A. Autoregulation stabilizes GFR; GT balance adjusts reabsorption

front 102

A patient has low renal arterial pressure. Macula densa signaling increases renin release, ultimately helping preserve GFR. Which sequence best explains this response?

A) Renin; angiotensin I; angiotensin II

B) Renin; aldosterone; prostaglandin E

C) Endothelin; renin; nitric oxide

D) ADH; angiotensinogen; calcitriol

back 102

A. Renin; angiotensin I; angiotensin II

front 103

Renin released from juxtaglomerular cells functions primarily as which type of molecule?

A) Steroid hormone

B) Plasma protein buffer

C) Enzyme

D) Membrane channel

back 103

C. Enzyme

front 104

A patient with decreased renal perfusion relies on angiotensin II to maintain filtration. Which paired effect best describes angiotensin II at the glomerulus?

A) Efferent dilation; lower PG

B) Afferent dilation; higher PB

C) Efferent constriction; higher PG

D) Afferent constriction; higher πB

back 104

C. Efferent constriction; higher PG

front 105

A patient with bilateral renal artery stenosis is started on an ACE inhibitor and develops acute kidney injury. What mechanism best explains the fall in GFR?

A) Loss of efferent constriction

B) Increased afferent constriction

C) Increased Bowman pressure

D) Excess podocyte contraction

back 105

A. Loss of efferent constriction

front 106

Why can ACE inhibitors cause larger-than-usual GFR reductions when renal arterial pressure is low?

A) They block angiotensin II formation

B) They increase plasma protein filtration

C) They increase Bowman capsule pressure

D) They activate renal sympathetic nerves

back 106

A. They block angiotensin II formation

front 107

Which drug class can reduce GFR in renal artery stenosis by blocking angiotensin II action?

A) Loop diuretics

B) Beta blockers

C) Angiotensin receptor antagonists

D) Calcium channel blockers

back 107

C. Angiotensin receptor antagonists

front 108

Renal artery stenosis creates hypertension that may depend on angiotensin II–mediated efferent tone. Which treatment complication is especially important?

A) Severe decrease in GFR

B) Increased glomerular bleeding

C) Increased nephron regeneration

D) Severe protein synthesis

back 108

A. Severe decrease in GFR

front 109

A patient with renal artery stenosis develops acute renal failure after RAAS blockade. Which physiologic support was removed?

A) Afferent vasodilation by endothelin

B) Efferent constriction by angiotensin II

C) Bowman pressure by prostaglandins

D) Tubular secretion by aldosterone

back 109

B. Efferent constriction by angiotensin II

front 110

A renal arteriole responds to increased arterial pressure by resisting stretch and contracting. What autoregulatory mechanism is this?

A) Glomerulotubular balance

B) Myogenic mechanism

C) Ureterorenal reflex

D) Donnan effect

back 110

B. Myogenic mechanism

front 111

The myogenic mechanism helps maintain relatively constant renal blood flow and GFR through which vascular property?

A) Resistance to stretching

B) Increased protein filtration

C) Reduced calcium entry

D) Increased tubular secretion

back 111

A. Resistance to stretching

front 112

Stretch of renal vascular smooth muscle allows increased entry of which ion, causing contraction?

A) Sodium

B) Potassium

C) Calcium

D) Chloride

back 112

C. Calcium

front 113

Which sequence best describes the renal myogenic response to increased pressure?

A) Stretch; calcium entry; contraction

B) Stretch; sodium exit; relaxation

C) Stretch; renin release; dilation

D) Stretch; protein loss; filtration

back 113

A. Stretch; calcium entry; contraction

front 114

A patient begins a high-protein diet. What is the expected effect on renal blood flow and GFR?

A) Both decrease

B) Both increase

C) RBF decreases; GFR increases

D) RBF increases; GFR decreases

back 114

B. Both increase

front 115

A patient develops proximal tubular injury after mercury poisoning. Which tubular transport defect is expected?

A) Increased NaCl reabsorption

B) Decreased NaCl reabsorption

C) Increased albumin filtration

D) Decreased calcium filtration

back 115

B. Decreased NaCl reabsorption

front 116

Large doses of tetracycline damage proximal tubules. Which renal handling change best matches this injury?

A) Decreased sodium chloride reabsorption

B) Increased protein-bound calcium filtration

C) Increased efferent arteriolar resistance

D) Decreased Bowman capsule pressure

back 116

A. Decreased sodium chloride reabsorption

front 117

Which toxic exposures are specifically associated with proximal tubular damage that decreases NaCl reabsorption?

A) Mercury and tetracyclines

B) Lead and ethanol

C) Arsenic and lithium

D) Cadmium and acetaminophen

back 117

A. Mercury and tetracyclines

front 118

The first step in urine production forms a filtrate that is protein-free and lacks red blood cells. What is this fluid called?

A) Peritubular fluid

B) Glomerular filtrate

C) Renal lymph

D) Plasma ultraconcentrate

back 118

B. Glomerular filtrate

front 119

Which composition best describes normal glomerular filtrate?

A) Protein-rich with erythrocytes

B) Protein-free with salts

C) Fat-rich with leukocytes

D) Albumin-rich with platelets

back 119

B. Protein-free with salts

front 120

Which plasma substances are exceptions to free filtration because large portions are protein-bound?

A) Calcium and fatty acids

B) Sodium and chloride

C) Urea and creatinine

D) Glucose and bicarbonate

back 120

A. Calcium and fatty acids

front 121

Minimal change nephropathy causes proteinuria primarily through loss of which barrier property?

A) Negative basement membrane charge

B) Glomerular hydrostatic pressure

C) Bowman capsule pressure

D) Peritubular capillary flow

back 121

A. Negative basement membrane charge

front 122

Minimal change nephropathy is believed to involve abnormal secretion of what factor type?

A) T-cell cytokines

B) B-cell antibodies

C) Platelet thromboxanes

D) Macrophage prostaglandins

back 122

A. T-cell cytokines

front 123

Abnormal T-cell cytokines in minimal change nephropathy are thought to reduce which glomerular barrier feature?

A) Anionic charge

B) Hydrostatic pressure

C) Bowman capsule volume

D) Calcium permeability

back 123

A. Anionic charge

front 124

Why does plasma protein concentration rise across glomerular capillaries?

A) Fluid filters into Bowman capsule

B) Albumin enters Bowman capsule

C) Proteins are secreted by podocytes

D) Sodium leaves through erythrocytes

back 124

A. Fluid filters into Bowman capsule

front 125

Which two factors determine glomerular capillary colloid osmotic pressure?

A) Arterial oncotic pressure; filtration fraction

B) Bowman pressure; urine flow

C) ADH level; sodium intake

D) Hematocrit; bladder pressure

back 125

A. Arterial oncotic pressure; filtration fraction

front 126

Moderate efferent arteriolar constriction raises glomerular hydrostatic pressure. Under what condition can this increase GFR?

A) Bowman pressure rises markedly

B) Renal blood flow is preserved

C) Albumin becomes freely filtered

D) Afferent resistance also rises

back 126

B. Renal blood flow is preserved

front 127

Which disease-state group is associated with increased endothelin release?

A) Pregnancy toxemia; renal failure; uremia

B) Diabetes insipidus; tabes dorsalis; reflux

C) Nephrotic syndrome; cirrhosis; ascites

D) Hypernatremia; burns; diarrhea

back 127

A. Pregnancy toxemia; renal failure; uremia

front 128

Which renal vessels are relatively protected from angiotensin II–mediated vasoconstriction?

A) Preglomerular vessels

B) Efferent arterioles

C) Cortical veins

D) Peritubular capillaries

back 128

A. Preglomerular vessels

front 129

The afferent arteriole is protected from angiotensin II vasoconstriction partly by increased local release of which vasodilators?

A) Aldosterone and ADH

B) Prostaglandins and nitric oxide

C) Endothelin and norepinephrine

D) Renin and angiotensin I

back 129

B. Prostaglandins and nitric oxide

front 130

A patient has elevated angiotensin II. Which paired renal effect is expected from preferential efferent constriction?

A) Lower GFR; lower reabsorption

B) Higher RBF; lower reabsorption

C) Lower RBF; higher reabsorption

D) Higher RBF; higher GFR

back 130

C. Lower RBF; higher reabsorption

front 131

How does angiotensin II increase sodium and water reabsorption?

A) It increases peritubular capillary flow

B) It decreases peritubular capillary flow

C) It blocks proximal sodium transport

D) It raises Bowman capsule pressure

back 131

B. It decreases peritubular capillary flow

front 132

Which set contains renal vasodilators that tend to increase GFR?

A) NO, prostaglandins, bradykinin

B) Endothelin, epinephrine, norepinephrine

C) Angiotensin II, aldosterone, ADH

D) Renin, albumin, creatinine

back 132

A. NO, prostaglandins, bradykinin

front 133

Macula densa cells have Golgi apparatus directed toward arterioles, suggesting which function?

A) Secretion toward arterioles

B) Filtration of plasma proteins

C) Storage of erythropoietin

D) Reabsorption of fatty acids

back 133

A. Secretion toward arterioles

front 134

ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor antagonists can reduce GFR primarily by blocking which support mechanism?

A) Efferent arteriolar constriction

B) Afferent arteriolar dilation

C) Bowman capsule relaxation

D) Medullary osmotic washout

back 134

A. Efferent arteriolar constriction

front 135

What is the expected GFR effect of ACE inhibitors or angiotensin II receptor blockers, especially when renal perfusion pressure is low?

A) GFR decreases

B) GFR increases

C) GFR becomes unchanged

D) GFR exceeds RPF

back 135

A. GFR decreases

front 136

The myogenic mechanism of renal autoregulation depends on vascular smooth muscle doing what during increased blood pressure?

A) Resisting stretch by contraction

B) Releasing albumin into filtrate

C) Increasing sodium secretion

D) Relaxing after calcium entry

back 136

A. Resisting stretch by contraction

front 137

What is the main protective role of the renal myogenic mechanism during increased blood pressure?

A) Prevents excessive RBF and GFR rise

B) Prevents all sodium filtration

C) Increases bladder emptying

D) Blocks angiotensin II formation

back 137

A. Prevents excessive RBF and GFR rise

front 138

A high-protein meal increases amino acid delivery and renal tubular amino acid reabsorption. What happens to renal blood flow and GFR?

A) Both decrease

B) Both increase

C) RBF increases; GFR decreases

D) RBF decreases; GFR increases

back 138

B. Both increase

front 139

What is the long-term renal adaptation to high protein intake?

A) Kidney growth with higher RBF/GFR

B) Kidney shrinkage with lower RBF/GFR

C) Loss of afferent arteriolar response

D) Complete macula densa suppression

back 139

A. Kidney growth with higher RBF/GFR

front 140

Amino acids are reabsorbed primarily in which nephron segment?

A) Proximal tubule

B) Distal tubule

C) Thin ascending limb

D) Collecting duct

back 140

A. Proximal tubule

front 141

Amino acid reabsorption in the proximal tubule increases sodium reabsorption. How does this affect macula densa NaCl delivery?

A) It decreases NaCl delivery

B) It increases NaCl delivery

C) It has no effect

D) It blocks renin release

back 141

A. It decreases NaCl delivery

front 142

Which sequence best explains why high protein intake increases GFR?

A) Amino acid reabsorption; lower macula densa NaCl; afferent dilation

B) Protein filtration; higher Bowman pressure; afferent dilation

C) Amino acid secretion; higher NaCl; efferent dilation

D) Albumin reabsorption; lower renin; GFR increase

back 142

A. Amino acid reabsorption; lower macula densa NaCl; afferent dilation

front 143

Increased blood glucose can increase renal blood flow and GFR through a mechanism similar to amino acids because glucose is reabsorbed where?

A) Proximal tubule

B) Distal tubule

C) Collecting duct

D) Loop thin limb

back 143

A. Proximal tubule

front 144

How does increased glucose reabsorption in the proximal tubule affect macula densa NaCl delivery?

A) Decreases NaCl delivery

B) Increases NaCl delivery

C) Does not affect delivery

D) Completely blocks filtration

back 144

A. Decreases NaCl delivery

front 145

A patient with hyperglycemia has increased proximal sodium-glucose reabsorption. Which tubuloglomerular response can follow?

A) Afferent resistance decreases; GFR rises

B) Afferent resistance increases; GFR falls

C) Efferent resistance decreases; GFR falls

D) Bowman pressure increases; GFR falls

back 145

A. Afferent resistance decreases; GFR rises

front 146

Increased blood glucose is expected to have which renal hemodynamic effect?

A) Decreases RBF and GFR

B) Increases RBF and GFR

C) Increases RBF only

D) Decreases GFR only

back 146

B. Increases RBF and GFR