front 1 Which description best defines a “good death”? A) Rapid death without planning B) Death occurring inside hospital C) Free from avoidable distress D) Death after aggressive treatment | back 1 C. Free from avoidable distress |
front 2 Which description best defines a “bad death” in palliative care A) Needless suffering; dishonored wishes B) Sudden death after trauma C) Death after chronic illness D) Death with family present | back 2 A. Needless suffering; dishonored wishes |
front 3 A patient is declared dead after irreversible loss of circulation and breathing. Which definition is being applied? A) Loss of cortical awareness B) Persistent vegetative state C) Terminal sedation response D) Cessation of circulatory-respiratory function | back 3 D. Cessation of circulatory-respiratory function |
front 4 Death can also be defined by irreversible cessation of which entire system? A) Peripheral nervous system B) Entire brain including brainstem C) Cerebral cortex excluding brainstem | back 4 B. Entire brain, including brainstem |
front 5 For brain death determination in an infant aged 1 week to 2 months, two assessments must be separated by at least how long? A) 6 hours B) 12 hours C) 48 hours D) 72 hours | back 5 C. 48 hours |
front 6 For brain death determination in an infant aged 2 months to 1 year, two assessments must be separated by at least how long A) 24 hours B) 48 hours C) 72 hours D) 1 week | back 6 A. 24 hours |
front 7 For brain death determination in an older child, two assessments must be separated by at least how long? A) 1 hour B) 6 hours C) 24 hours D) 12 hours | back 7 D. 12 hours |
front 8 After a patient dies, who is required to sign the death certificate? A) Primary nurse B) Physician C) Social worker D) Funeral director | back 8 B. Physician |
front 9 Which Kubler-Ross sequence is correctly ordered? A) Anger; denial; acceptance; depression B) Depression; bargaining; anger; denial C) Denial; depression; anger; bargaining D) Denial; anger; bargaining; depression | back 9 D. Denial; anger; bargaining; depression |
front 10 A dying patient says, “Why me?” and becomes resentful toward family and staff. Which Kubler-Ross stage best fits? A) Bargaining B) Acceptance C) Anger D) Depression | back 10 C. Anger |
front 11 A terminally ill patient promises major life changes if given more time. Which Kubler-Ross stage best fits? A) Anger B) Bargaining C) Acceptance D) Shock | back 11 B. Bargaining |
front 12 A dying patient becomes withdrawn, slowed, sleepless, hopeless, and suicidal. Which Kubler-Ross stage best fits? A) Acceptance B) Bargaining C) Denial D) Depression | back 12 D. Depression |
front 13 Which symptom cluster most strongly matches the depression stage of dying? A) Withdrawal; hopelessness; sleep disturbance B) Euphoria; grandiosity; pressured speech C) Flashbacks; hypervigilance; avoidance D) Rituals; compulsions; intrusive thoughts | back 13 A. Withdrawal; hopelessness; sleep disturbance |
front 14 A patient reports floating above their body and hearing conversations during resuscitation. This best matches what phenomenon? A) Near-death experience B) Dissociative fugue C) Panic attack D) Somatic delusion | back 14 A. Near-death experience |
front 15 Which set best matches common near-death experience features? A) Fever; seizures; hallucinations B) Amnesia; confusion; agitation C) Tremor; sweating; tachycardia D) Peace; tunnel; deceased loved ones | back 15 D. Peace; tunnel; deceased loved ones |
front 16 “Unio mystica” refers to which experience? A) Fear of permanent separation B) Oceanic unity with infinite power C) Denial of personal mortality D) Bargaining with a deity | back 16 B. Oceanic unity with infinite power |
front 17 Compared with children, adults most commonly die from which broad cause? A) Accidents B) Homicides C) Chronic illness D) Suicides | back 17 C. Chronic illness |
front 18 Compared with adults, children usually die from which broad cause pattern? A) Sudden unexpected causes B) Slowly progressive dementia C) Chronic cardiopulmonary illness D) Long-term malignancy | back 18 A. Sudden unexpected causes |
front 19 Among children aged 1–14, almost half of deaths are due to which cause group? A) Chronic illness only B) Accidents, homicides, suicides C) Congenital cardiac defects D) Progressive neurologic disease | back 19 B. Accidents, homicides, suicides |
front 20 In late adolescence and early adulthood, nearly 75% of deaths are due to which cause group? A) Cancer and infections B) Chronic organ failure C) Neurodegenerative disease D) Accidents, homicides, suicides | back 20 D. Accidents, homicides, suicides |
front 21 A preschool child views death as temporary, incomplete, and reversible. Which cognitive stage best explains this? A) Formal operational B) Sensorimotor C) Preoperational D) Concrete operational | back 21 C. Preoperational |
front 22 What is the main fear for preschool children facing death or serious illness? A) Separation from primary caretaker B) Loss of occupational identity C) Moral guilt after bargaining D) Permanent social reputation loss | back 22 B. Separation from primary caretaker |
front 23 A seriously ill child develops more nightmares and aggressive play. This reaction best fits which developmental group? A) Adolescents B) School-age children C) Young adults D) Preschool children | back 23 D. Preschool children |
front 24 School-age children with concrete-operational thinking usually understand death as what? A) Final reality B) Temporary absence C) Reversible sleep D) Magical punishment | back 24 A. Final reality |
front 25 Which developmental stage is most associated with recognizing death as final through concrete-operational thinking? A) Preschool children B) Adolescents C) School-age children D) Infants | back 25 C. School-age children |
front 26 How do adolescents typically understand death? A) Temporary and incomplete B) Inevitable and final C) Reversible after separation D) Impossible and unreal | back 26 B. Inevitable and final |
front 27 Which statement best captures adolescent thinking about personal death? A) Death is always reversible B) Death only affects adults C) Death lacks finality D) Own death may feel impossible | back 27 D. Own death may feel impossible |
front 28 Erikson’s eighth and final life-cycle stage centers on which psychosocial outcome? A) Initiative versus guilt B) Identity versus role confusion C) Integrity versus despair D) Generativity versus stagnation | back 28 C. Integrity versus despair |
front 29 After a loved one dies, a patient describes the private emotional pain of the loss. Which term best applies? A) Grief B) Mourning C) Bereavement D) Melancholia | back 29 A. Grief |
front 30 Which term describes the process by which grief is gradually resolved? A) Bereavement B) Anniversary reaction C) Anticipatory grief D) Mourning | back 30 D. Mourning |
front 31 A widow is described as being deprived of someone by death and currently in mourning. Which term best applies? A) Grief B) Bereavement C) Protest D) Detachment | back 31 B. Bereavement |
front 32 Which pairing correctly distinguishes grief and mourning? A) Feeling; resolution process B) Ritual; depressive syndrome C) Denial; social isolation D) Trauma; anniversary trigger | back 32 A. Feeling; resolution process |
front 33 Which pairing correctly defines mourning and bereavement? A) Shock; anger response B) Loneliness; chronic grief C) Grief resolution; deprivation state D) Acute grief; delayed denial | back 33 C. Grief resolution; deprivation state |
front 34 In normal bereavement, what is typically the first response to loss? A) Detachment B) Reorganization C) Idealization D) Protest | back 34 D. Protest |
front 35 After the initial protest response in normal bereavement, which behavior commonly follows? A) Permanent withdrawal B) Searching behavior C) Immediate acceptance D) Prolonged denial | back 35 B. Searching behavior |
front 36 Which sequence best matches normal bereavement progression? A) Protest; searching; despair; reorganization B) Detachment; bargaining; protest; searching C) Depression; denial; anger; acceptance D) Searching; reorganization; protest; despair | back 36 A. Protest; searching; despair; reorganization |
front 37 Which symptom is considered a more lasting manifestation of grief? A) Anger B) Loneliness C) Euphoria D) Panic | back 37 B. Loneliness |
front 38 A patient grieves before a loved one dies from progressive terminal illness. Which term best applies? A) Anticipatory grief B) Delayed grief C) Anniversary reaction D) Hypertrophic grief | back 38 A. Anticipatory grief |
front 39 Anticipatory grief is most associated with which situation? A) Sudden unexpected death B) Special occasion trigger C) Slow dying process D) Incomplete hematopoietic development | back 39 C. Slow dying process |
front 40 Anticipatory grief may cause which maladaptive interpersonal response before death occurs? A) Searching behavior and attachment B) Normal reorganization and attachment C) Acute anniversary sadness and withdrawal D) Premature separation and withdrawal | back 40 D. Premature separation and withdrawal |
front 41 A spouse withdraws emotionally while their partner slowly dies from illness. Which grief process best explains this? A) Chronic grief B) Anticipatory grief C) Delayed grief D) Anniversary reaction | back 41 B. Anticipatory grief |
front 42 A patient develops acute grief every year on the spouse’s birthday. Which term best applies? A) Hypertrophic grief B) Prolonged denial C) Normal protest D) Anniversary reaction | back 42 D. Anniversary reaction |
front 43 An acute grief reaction triggered by a special occasion is best called what? A) Anniversary reaction B) Chronic grief C) Anticipatory grief D) Bereavement | back 43 A. Anniversary reaction |
front 44 Bereavement commonly evokes symptoms from which psychiatric domain? A) Psychotic symptoms B) Manic symptoms C) Depressive symptoms D) Somatic delusions | back 44 C. Depressive symptoms |
front 45 Which term can describe complicated bereavement? A) Normal B) Morbid C) Organized D) Expected | back 45 B. Morbid |
front 46 Which set contains terms used for complicated bereavement A) Abnormal; atypical; unresolved B) Normal; organized; adaptive C) Preoperational; reversible; temporary D) Protest; searching; reorganization | back 46 A. Abnormal; atypical; unresolved |
front 47 Which term is NOT typically used for complicated bereavement? A) Traumatic B) Distorted C) Unresolved D) Reorganized | back 47 D. Reorganized |
front 48 Which pattern is the most common complicated grief syndrome? A) Hypertrophic B) Delayed C) Traumatic D) Chronic | back 48 D. Chronic |
front 49 Chronic dysfunctional grief is especially characterized by which features? A) Brief sadness; rapid reorganization B) Bitterness; idealization C) Amnesia; manic symptoms D) Peace; tunnel experience | back 49 B. Bitterness; idealization |
front 50 Chronic grief is most likely when the relationship was extremely close or when what is lacking? A) Funeral rituals B) Medical documentation C) Social supports D) Religious beliefs | back 50 C. Social supports |
front 51 Hypertrophic grief is most often seen after which type of death? A) Chronic terminal illness B) Expected peaceful death C) Remote childhood loss D) Sudden unexpected death | back 51 D. Sudden unexpected death |
front 52 Which description best matches hypertrophic dysfunctional grief? A) Mild and short-term B) Extreme denial and long-term C) Extraordinarily intense and long-term D) Quiet loneliness only and short-term | back 52 C. Extraordinarily intense and long-term |
front 53 A patient has prolonged denial after losing a loved one. Which complicated grief pattern fits best? A) Chronic grief B) Delayed grief C) Hypertrophic grief D) Anniversary reaction | back 53 B. Delayed grief |
front 54 A patient has grief that remains persistently chronic and extraordinarily intense after a violent loss. Which term best fits A) Normal bereavement B) Traumatic bereavement C) Anniversary reaction D) Anticipatory grief | back 54 B. Traumatic bereavement |
front 55 Which pattern combination defines traumatic bereavement? A) Chronic and hypertrophic B) Delayed and anticipatory C) Protest and searching D) Restitution and reorganization | back 55 A. Chronic and hypertrophic |
front 56 A patient with traumatic bereavement is being evaluated for risk factors. Which history is frequently present? A) Autoimmune disease B) Psychiatric illness C) Childhood asthma D) Substance allergy | back 56 B. Psychiatric illness |
front 57 Bereavement-related medical complications most often include which pattern? A) Only psychiatric symptoms B) Only acute infections C) Existing disease exacerbations D) Permanent immune recovery | back 57 C. Existing disease exacerbations |
front 58 Which mortality pattern is associated with bereavement overall? A) Increased mortality, especially women B) Increased mortality, especially men C) No mortality effect D) Increased mortality, especially children | back 58 B. Increased mortality, especially men |
front 59 A recently bereaved man dies shortly after his spouse’s death. When is mortality risk highest after bereavement? A) Immediately after bereavement B) Five years after loss C) During anniversaries D) After full reorganization | back 59 A. Immediately after bereavement |
front 60 Immediately after bereavement, which cause of death is particularly increased? A) Colon cancer B) Ischemic heart disease C) Chronic renal failure D) Pulmonary fibrosis | back 60 B. Ischemic heart disease |
front 61 The greatest mortality effect after bereavement is seen in which group? A) Women younger than 40 B) Men older than 80 C) Men younger than 65 D) Children younger than 15 | back 61 C. Men younger than 65 |
front 62 After bereavement, widows may have increased relative risk of death from which causes? A) Cirrhosis and suicide B) Asthma and seizures C) Diabetes and pneumonia D) Stroke and anemia | back 62 A. Cirrhosis and suicide |
front 63 Which type of death is more likely to precipitate PTSD in survivors? A) Natural expected death B) Chronic illness death C) Peaceful hospice death D) Unnatural violent death | back 63 D. Unnatural violent death |
front 64 During acute grief, which biologic disruption may occur? A) Increased hemoglobin synthesis B) Disrupted biologic rhythms C) Enhanced neutrophil maturation D) Improved sleep architecture | back 64 B. Disrupted biologic rhythms |
front 65 Acute grief may impair immune function through which changes? A) Increased platelets and ferritin B) Higher transferrin and ferritin C) Reduced lymphocyte proliferation and NK function D) Increased thymic T-cell maturation and NK function | back 65 C. Reduced lymphocyte proliferation and NK function |
front 66 Which phase begins many models of the grieving process? A) Restitution and reorganization B) Acute discomfort withdrawal C) Shock and disbelief D) Premature separation withdrawal | back 66 C) Shock and disbelief |
front 67 In grief models, the intermediate phase is best characterized by what? A) Acute discomfort and withdrawal B) Full restitution and reorganization C) Immediate acceptance and peace D) Hypertrophic denial only | back 67 A. Acute discomfort and withdrawal |
front 68 Which phase usually culminates the grieving process? A) Initial denial B) Social withdrawal C) Restitution and reorganization D) Acute biologic disruption | back 68 C. Restitution and reorganization |
front 69 Approximately what percentage of US children lose one or both parents by age 15? A) 1% B) 4% C) 15% D) 25% | back 69 B. 4% |
front 70 What is the most common cause of bereavement in children? A) Parent death B) Sibling death C) Peer death D) Grandparent death | back 70 A. Parent death |
front 71 In childhood bereavement, sibling death is ranked as which cause? A) First B) Second C) Third D) Fourth | back 71 B. Second |
front 72 Which life event is often ranked as the most stressful? A) Starting college B) Losing employment C) Death of a spouse D) Moving homes | back 72 C. Death of a spouse |
front 73 Grief after late perinatal loss is usually most intense for whom A) Father B) Sibling C) Grandparent D) Mother | back 73 D. Mother |
front 74 When professional help is sought for grief, what request is commonly made to the PCP? A) Sleeping medications B) Antipsychotic injections C) Stimulant medications D) Cognitive testing | back 74 A. Sleeping medications |
front 75 Bereavement care and grief therapy have been most effective in which group? A) Children and adolescents B) Widows and widowers C) Unmarried young adults D) Hospitalized trauma survivors | back 75 B. Widows and widowers |
front 76 Which set best lists common psychological states in end-of-life care? A) Mania; psychosis; euphoria B) Obsessions; compulsions; tics C) Anxiety; depression; confusion D) Somatization; fugue; amnesia | back 76 C. Anxiety; depression; confusion |
front 77 What happens to psychiatric conditions near the end of life? A) Markedly increase B) Completely resolve C) Remain unchanged D) Become diagnostically irrelevant | back 77 A. Markedly increase |
front 78 In end-of-life care, approximately what proportion have major depression? A) 4% B) 10% C) 15% D) 50% | back 78 C. 15% |
front 79 Negative affect refers to which paired emotional states? A) Anger and bargaining B) Anxiety and depression C) Denial and shock D) Confusion and delirium | back 79 B. Anxiety and depression |
front 80 In advanced disease, anxiety usually presents with which symptom pattern? A) Primarily somatic symptoms B) Purely delusional symptoms C) Mostly suicidal thoughts D) No physical symptoms | back 80 A. Primarily somatic symptoms |
front 81 Which symptom cluster best matches anxiety in advanced disease? A) Bradycardia; hypersomnia; euphoria B) Aphasia; paralysis; seizures C) Restlessness; tachycardia; insomnia D) Jaundice; pruritus; ascites | back 81 C. Restlessness; tachycardia; insomnia |
front 82 In advanced disease, delirium prevalence can rise to approximately what level? A) 15% B) 35% C) 65% D) 85% | back 82 D. 85% |
front 83 Which description best defines family-centered grief therapy A) Treats family only after death B) Includes patient, continues after death C) Avoids discussing the patient D) Focuses only on medications | back 83 B. Includes patient, continues after death |
front 84 A physician caring for a dying patient must first decide when which treatment goal has ended? A) Pain control B) Family communication C) Curative care D) Spiritual support | back 84 C. Curative care |
front 85 Which skill set is essential for palliative care physicians? A) Pain management and opioids B) Surgical airway management C) Chemotherapy protocol design D) Forensic death certification | back 85 A. Pain management and opioids |
front 86 When estimating survival in terminal illness, what is the best physician approach? A) Give precise dates confidently B) Avoid all prognosis discussion C) Acknowledge estimates are inaccurate D) Promise maximal survival time | back 86 C. Acknowledge estimates are inaccurate |
front 87 Before disclosing details of a serious condition, doctors should first ask what? A) Who should make decisions B) How much patient wants known C) Whether family wants disclosure D) Which medication patient prefers | back 87 B. How much patient wants known |
front 88 Valid informed consent should include risks, benefits, alternatives, and what else? A) Physician’s personal opinion B) Family’s religious beliefs C) Results of refusing treatment D) Hospital insurance policies | back 88 C. Results of refusing treatment |
front 89 Which finding set best defines brain death? A) No awareness but preserved brainstem B) Lost cortex but preserved breathing C) Higher brain and brainstem loss D) Sleep-wake cycles without cognition | back 89 C. Higher brain and brainstem loss |
front 90 Brain death includes loss of respiration plus which reflexes? A) Pupillary and patellar B) Gag and corneal C) Babinski and biceps D) Vestibular and plantar | back 90 B. Gag and corneal |
front 91 Persistent vegetative state is best defined by which pattern? A) No self or environmental awareness B) Preserved awareness, absent speech C) Intact cognition, motor paralysis D) Fluctuating confusion and agitation | back 91 A. No self or environmental awareness |
front 92 Persistent vegetative state is associated with which underlying condition? A) Mild psychiatric illness B) Acute grief reaction C) Severe neurologic damage D) Normal brainstem function | back 92 C. Severe neurologic damage |
front 93 For patients in persistent vegetative state, medical treatment generally provides what? A) Curative neurologic recovery B) No patient benefit C) Improved environmental awareness D) Restored cortical function | back 93 B. No patient benefit |
front 94 Advance directives primarily document patient wishes about care under what condition? A) Temporary febrile illness B) Minor outpatient procedure C) Terminal condition D) Normal aging | back 94 C. Terminal condition |
front 95 Which set contains the major advance directive types? A) Living will; proxy; DNR B) Consent; certificate; discharge plan C) Autopsy; biopsy; guardianship D) Hospice; chemotherapy; insurance | back 95 A. Living will; proxy; DNR |
front 96 A living will may specifically reject which life-prolonging measure? A) Physical therapy B) Feeding tubes C) Family meetings D) Bereavement counseling | back 96 B. Feeding tubes |
front 97 A patient names someone to make medical decisions if incapacitated. Which directive is this? A) Living will B) DNR order C) Health care proxy D) Informed consent | back 97 C. Health care proxy |
front 98 A health care proxy is also known as what? A) Durable power of attorney B) Patient self-determination C) Physician death certification D) Do-not-intubate order | back 98 A. Durable power of attorney |
front 99 Which order prevents attempted cardiopulmonary resuscitation? A) DNI B) DNR C) Proxy D) Living will | back 99 B. DNR |
front 100 Which order prevents placement of an artificial airway? A) DNR B) Proxy C) DNI D) Living will | back 100 C. DNI |
front 101 The Federal Patient Self-Determination Act was enacted in which year? A) 1973 B) 1985 C) 1991 D) 2001 | back 101 C. 1991 |
front 102 Under the Patient Self-Determination Act, hospitals must provide information about which right? A) Right to refuse treatment B) Right to demand antibiotics C) Right to choose physician D) Right to avoid diagnosis | back 102 A. Right to refuse treatment |
front 103 The Patient Self-Determination Act specifically requires facilities to ask about what? A) Organ donation B) Advance directives C) Psychiatric history D) Family bereavement patterns | back 103 B. Advance directives |
front 104 Hospitals must keep written records of whether patients have an advance directive or what else? A) Opioid allergy history B) Hospice insurance status C) Health care proxy D) Funeral home preference | back 104 C. Health care proxy |
front 105 Palliative care primarily refers to relieving suffering from what A) Elective procedures B) Terminal disease symptoms C) Normal developmental stress D) Chronic family conflict | back 105 B. Terminal disease symptoms |
front 106 Which room arrangement supports palliative care for a dying patient? A) Busy shared hallway bed B) Bright procedure suite C) Quiet private room D) Locked isolation room | back 106 C. Quiet private room |
front 107 Allowing family members to be present is an important part of what care approach? A) Palliative care B) Forensic evaluation C) Experimental consent D) Brain death testing | back 107 A. Palliative care |
front 108 Which pain types usually respond well to opiates? A) Neuropathic and sympathetically maintained B) Somatic and visceral C) Psychogenic and existential D) Phantom and deafferentation | back 108 B. Somatic and visceral |
front 109 Neuropathic or sympathetically maintained pain often requires what in addition to opiates? A) Adjuvant medications B) Feeding tubes C) Death certification D) Advance directives | back 109 A. Adjuvant medications |
front 110 A terminal cancer patient describes constant, aching, gnawing pain that is easy to point to. Which pain type best fits? A) Neuropathic pain B) Visceral pain C) Somatic pain D) Sympathetic pain | back 110 C. Somatic pain |
front 111 A patient with bowel obstruction reports deep squeezing pain that is difficult to localize. Which pain type best fits? A) Visceral pain B) Somatic pain C) Neuropathic pain D) Psychogenic pain | back 111 A. Visceral pain |
front 112 A hospice patient describes pain as burning and electric-like. Which pain type is most likely? A) Somatic pain B) Visceral pain C) Referred pain D) Neuropathic pain | back 112 D. Neuropathic pain |
front 113 Which opioid adverse effects can occur frequently? A) Bradycardia and hypothermia B) Delirium and hallucinations C) Seizures and aphasia D) Mania and euphoria | back 113 B. Delirium and hallucinations |
front 114 In palliative care, which medication class can serve as an adjuvant for neuropathic pain? A) Antidepressants B) Antibiotics C) Anticoagulants D) Antacids | back 114 A. Antidepressants |
front 115 Which set contains commonly used pain adjuvants in palliative care? A) Diuretics; statins; fibrates B) Antidepressants; steroids; antihistamines C) Antivirals; antifungals; antibiotics D) Laxatives; antacids; bronchodilators | back 115 B. Antidepressants; steroids; antihistamines |
front 116 Adjuvant medications are especially crucial for which pain categories? A) Somatic and visceral pain B) Acute and nociceptive pain C) Neuropathic and sympathetically maintained D) Localized and gnawing pain | back 116 C. Neuropathic and sympathetically maintained |
front 117 Which medication group is listed as a common adjuvant in palliative pain control? A) Mood stabilizers B) Beta blockers C) Iron chelators D) Antiplatelets | back 117 A. Mood stabilizers |
front 118 Which medication group is also listed as a common adjuvant for palliative pain management? A) Antiemetics B) Amphetamines C) Opioid antagonists D) Antifungals | back 118 B. Amphetamines |
front 119 In palliative care, what clinical goal is considered a high priority? A) Symptom management B) Cure of disease C) Diagnostic certainty D) Surgical correction | back 119 A. Symptom management |
front 120 A palliative patient has severe nausea and vomiting despite standard measures. Which therapy is noted as effective? A) SSRI B) THC C) Lithium D) Digoxin | back 120 B. THC |
front 121 Under Medicare hospice criteria, a physician must certify what prognosis? A) One month or less B) Three months or less C) Six months or less D) One year or less | back 121 C. Six months or less |
front 122 A physician considers withholding intensive care for a severely disabled child. Which quality-of-life issue is relevant? A) Parent income level B) Hospital bed availability C) Physician specialty preference D) Extent of bodily damage | back 122 D. Extent of bodily damage |
front 123 Which consideration is used by physicians supporting withholding intensive care in children? A) Family social media support B) Burden on the family C) Child’s school performance D) Insurance reimbursement level | back 123 B. Burden on the family |
front 124 When considering withholding intensive care, which child-centered factor is relevant? A) Ability to feel pleasure B) Parents’ preferred physician C) Hospital room size D) Available research protocols | back 124 A. Ability to feel pleasure |
front 125 What is the leading cause of death in children? A) Cancer B) Accidents C) Infection D) Suicide | back 125 B. Accidents |
front 126 After accidents, which cause ranks second for death in children? A) Homicide B) Congenital disease C) Cancer D) Heart disease | back 126 C. Cancer |