front 1 A patient with acute angina symptoms needs a drug that directly reduces cardiac workload by venodilation. Which drug best fits? A) Propranolol B) Nitroglycerin C) Ranolazine D) Ivabradine | back 1 B. Nitroglycerin |
front 2 Which drug class is most directly used for immediate angina relief rather than mainly prophylaxis? A) Nitrates B) Beta blockers C) Calcium channel blockers D) Late sodium inhibitors | back 2 A. Nitrates |
front 3 Nitroglycerin, isosorbide dinitrate, and isosorbide mononitrate belong to which drug class? A) Beta blockers B) Calcium channel blockers C) Nitrates D) SA node inhibitors | back 3 C. Nitrates |
front 4 Which name clue helps identify nitroglycerin, isosorbide dinitrate, and isosorbide mononitrate? A) They end in “olol” B) They sound nitrate-related C) They end in “dipine” D) They contain “iva” | back 4 B. They sound nitrate-related |
front 5 Nitrates release which mediator to produce vasodilation? A) Angiotensin II B) Dopamine C) Acetylcholine D) Nitric oxide | back 5 D. Nitric oxide |
front 6 Nitric oxide from nitrates activates which enzyme? A) Guanylyl cyclase B) ACE C) Renin D) Vesicular transporter | back 6 A. Guanylyl cyclase |
front 7 Activation of guanylyl cyclase by nitrates increases which second messenger? A) cAMP B) cGMP C) IP3 D) DAG | back 7 B. cGMP |
front 8 Nitrate-induced vasodilation decreases cardiac work mainly by reducing which variable? A) Afterload only B) Heart rate only C) Venous return D) Contractility only | back 8 C. Venous return |
front 9 Decreased venous return from nitrates helps angina by causing which effect? A) Increased preload B) Decreased heart work C) Increased oxygen demand D) Increased contractility | back 9 B. Decreased heart work |
front 10 A patient takes nitroglycerin. Which adverse effect is most likely? A) Headache B) Constipation C) Bronchoconstriction D) QT prolongation | back 10 A. Headache |
front 11 A patient takes isosorbide mononitrate. Which adverse effect best explains this? A) Hypertension B) Bradycardia C) Hypotension D) Bronchoconstriction | back 11 C. Hypotension |
front 12 Which adverse effect can happen with nitrates? A) Visual brightness changes B) Reflex tachycardia C) QT prolongation D) Constipation | back 12 B. Reflex tachycardia |
front 13 Which nitrate is commonly used for direct angina symptom relief? A) Atenolol B) Amlodipine C) Ranolazine D) Nitroglycerin | back 13 D. Nitroglycerin |
front 14 Which drug is a long-acting nitrate listed in the notes? A) Metoprolol B) Isosorbide mononitrate C) Diltiazem D) Ranolazine | back 14 B. Isosorbide mononitrate |
front 15 Beta blockers help angina mainly by decreasing which cardiac functions? A) Venous return and preload B) Sodium current and QT interval C) Heart rate and contractility D) SA node current and vision | back 15 C. Heart rate and contractility |
front 16 Why are beta blockers useful in angina prophylaxis? A) They increase oxygen supply B) They decrease oxygen demand C) They increase venous return D) They increase reflex tachycardia | back 16 B. They decrease oxygen demand |
front 17 Which beta blocker was listed in the angina chapter notes? A) Propranolol B) Prazosin C) Nitroglycerin D) Fenoldopam | back 17 A. Propranolol |
front 18 Which pair contains beta blockers used for angina prophylaxis? A) Verapamil and diltiazem B) Atenolol and metoprolol C) Ranolazine and ivabradine D) Nitroglycerin and isosorbide | back 18 B. Atenolol and metoprolol |
front 19 Which suffix commonly identifies beta blockers? A) “dipine” B) “sartan” C) “olol” D) “nitrate” | back 19 C. “olol” |
front 20 Which adverse effect can occur because beta blockers slow the heart? A) Headache B) QT prolongation C) Bradycardia D) Constipation | back 20 C. Bradycardia |
front 21 A patient with asthma develops wheezing after starting propranolol. Which adverse effect is most likely? A) Bronchoconstriction B) Visual brightness C) Hypotension only D) QT prolongation | back 21 A. Bronchoconstriction |
front 22 Bronchoconstriction is especially concerning with which type of beta blocker? A) Beta-1 selective blockers B) Nonselective beta blockers C) Calcium channel blockers D) Late sodium inhibitors | back 22 B. Nonselective beta blockers |
front 23 Which beta blocker is nonselective and therefore more concerning in asthma? A) Metoprolol B) Atenolol C) Propranolol D) Ivabradine | back 23 C. Propranolol |
front 24 Beta blockers are mainly used in angina in which way? A) Direct acute relief B) Prophylactically C) Only for headache relief D) Only for QT shortening | back 24 B. Prophylactically |
front 25 Calcium channel blockers used for angina block which channel type? A) Sodium channels B) Potassium channels C) Chloride channels D) L-type calcium channels | back 25 D. L-type calcium channels |
front 26 Which drug group contains calcium channel blockers listed in the notes? A) Verapamil and diltiazem B) Propranolol and atenolol C) Nitroglycerin and isosorbide D) Ranolazine and ivabradine | back 26 A. Verapamil and diltiazem |
front 27 Which calcium channel blockers contain the “dipine” name clue? A) Verapamil and diltiazem B) Nifedipine and amlodipine C) Propranolol and metoprolol D) Nitroglycerin and isosorbide | back 27 B. Nifedipine and amlodipine |
front 28 Calcium channel blockers improve angina mainly by causing which effect? A) Increased contractility B) Increased cardiac work C) Decreased oxygen demand D) Increased venous return | back 28 C. Decreased oxygen demand |
front 29 Why does blocking L-type calcium channels help reduce angina symptoms prophylactically? A) Less heart work is needed B) More renin is released C) More oxygen is consumed D) More reflex tachycardia occurs | back 29 A. Less heart work is needed |
front 30 Which listed drug is a calcium channel blocker? A) Atenolol B) Nitroglycerin C) Diltiazem D) Ranolazine | back 30 C. Diltiazem |
front 31 Which listed drug is a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker? A) Nifedipine B) Verapamil C) Propranolol D) Ivabradine | back 31 A. Nifedipine |
front 32 Which listed drug is a non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker? A) Isosorbide dinitrate B) Verapamil C) Metoprolol D) Ranolazine | back 32 B. Verapamil |
front 33 Calcium channel blockers in these notes are mainly used for angina in which way? A) As direct acute nitrates B) Prophylactically C) Only for bronchospasm D) Only for QT shortening | back 33 B. Prophylactically |
front 34 A patient with angina is given amlodipine. Which mechanism best explains its benefit? A) Blocks L-type calcium channels B) Releases nitric oxide C) Inhibits late sodium current D) Blocks beta receptors | back 34 A. Blocks L-type calcium channels |
front 35 Which antianginal drug inhibits the late sodium current in the heart? A) Nitroglycerin B) Metoprolol C) Ranolazine D) Amlodipine | back 35 C. Ranolazine |
front 36 Inhibiting late sodium current with ranolazine causes which therapeutic effect? A) Improves cardiac efficiency B) Increases venous return C) Increases heart rate D) Activates guanylyl cyclase | back 36 A. Improves cardiac efficiency |
front 37 Ranolazine decreases angina mainly by reducing which cardiac requirement? A) Blood pressure only B) Myocardial oxygen demand C) Bronchial oxygen delivery D) Venous oxygen content | back 37 B. Myocardial oxygen demand |
front 38 Ranolazine is mainly used in angina therapy in which way? A) Direct acute relief B) Emergency vasodilation C) Prophylactically D) Reflex tachycardia induction | back 38 C. Prophylactically |
front 39 Which adverse effect is associated with ranolazine? A) Bronchoconstriction B) Gynecomastia C) Ototoxicity D) QT prolongation | back 39 D. QT prolongation |
front 40 A patient is on ranolazine. Which listed side effect does this match? A) Dizziness B) Headache C) Cough D) Reflex tachycardia | back 40 A. Dizziness |
front 41 Which gastrointestinal side effect is associated with ranolazine? A) Diarrhea B) Constipation C) Vomiting D) Metallic taste | back 41 B. Constipation |
front 42 A patient with angina needs prophylaxis without directly lowering symptoms like nitrates. Which drug inhibits late sodium current? A) Ranolazine B) Nitroglycerin C) Isosorbide dinitrate D) Propranolol | back 42 A. Ranolazine |
front 43 Which antianginal drug inhibits the SA node pacemaker current? A) Amlodipine B) Ivabradine C) Isosorbide mononitrate D) Atenolol | back 43 B. Ivabradine |
front 44 Ivabradine lowers myocardial oxygen demand primarily by decreasing which variable? A) Venous return B) Contractility C) Heart rate D) QT interval | back 44 C. Heart rate |
front 45 Ivabradine decreases heart rate by inhibiting which cardiac target? A) L-type calcium channels B) Beta receptors C) Late sodium current D) SA node pacemaker current | back 45 D. SA node pacemaker current |
front 46 Ivabradine is mainly used in angina therapy in which way? A) Prophylactically B) Direct acute relief C) Immediate nitrate reversal D) Bronchospasm treatment | back 46 A. Prophylactically |
front 47 Which adverse effect is associated with ivabradine due to reduced heart rate? A) QT prolongation B) Bradycardia C) Constipation D) Headache | back 47 B. Bradycardia |
front 48 A patient on ivabradine reports unusual visual brightness. Which adverse effect does this represent? A) Reflex tachycardia B) Bronchoconstriction C) Visual brightness changes D) Ototoxicity | back 48 C. Visual brightness changes |
front 49 Which set contains adverse effects of ivabradine? A) Headache and hypotension B) Bradycardia and visual brightness changes C) Constipation and QT prolongation D) Bronchoconstriction and wheezing | back 49 B. Bradycardia and visual brightness changes |
front 50 Which antianginal drug reduces heart rate without directly blocking beta receptors? A) Ivabradine B) Propranolol C) Atenolol D) Metoprolol | back 50 A. Ivabradine |
front 51 A patient asks why several antihypertensive drugs also help angina. Which explanation is best? A) They increase cardiac oxygen demand B) They increase heart work C) They decrease heart workload D) They increase venous return | back 51 C. They decrease heart workload |
front 52 Which antianginal option most directly decreases venous return? A) Metoprolol B) Nitroglycerin C) Ranolazine D) Ivabradine | back 52 B. Nitroglycerin |
front 53 Which of the following is a common direct or reflex effect of
| back 53 (D) Increased cardiac force It increases cardiac contractile force because the decrease in blood pressure evokes a compensatory increase in sympathetic discharge. |
front 54 In advising the patient about the adverse effects she may
| back 54 (D) Headache due to meningeal vasodilation |
front 55 Useful drugs for the prophylaxis of angina of effort include | back 55 (E) Verapamil esmolol is not going to work long enough |
front 56 If a β blocker were to be used for prophylaxis in a patient,
| back 56 (A) Block of exercise-induced tachycardia |
front 57 In considering adverse effects of possible drugs for these
conditions, you note that an adverse effect that
nitroglycerin and prazosin have in
common is | back 57 (D) Orthostatic hypotension |
front 58 A 25-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department with a
brownish cyanotic appearance, marked shortness of breath, and
hypotension. He has needle marks in | back 58 (A) Amyl nitrite Nitrites, not nitrates, cause methemoglobinemia in adults |
front 59 Another patient is admitted to the emergency department | back 59 (E) Verapamil |
front 60 A 45-year-old woman with hyperlipidemia and
frequent
| back 60 (D) Nitroglycerin |