front 1 Antiarrhythmic drugs can help arrhythmias by doing which overall action? A) Increasing preload only B) Slowing heart firing C) Increasing potassium loss D) Increasing AV speed | back 1 B. Slowing heart firing |
front 2 Which drug group slows heart firing according to the notes? A) Class II beta blockers B) Class IA sodium blockers C) Class IB sodium blockers D) Class IC sodium blockers | back 2 A. Class II beta blockers |
front 3 Which drug listed can slow heart firing by blocking L-type calcium channels? A) Flecainide B) Lidocaine C) Verapamil D) Procainamide | back 3 C. Verapamil |
front 4 Which non-Vaughan-Williams drug slows heart firing by affecting the AV node? A) Adenosine B) Quinidine C) Mexiletine D) Propafenone | back 4 A. Adenosine |
front 5 Which drug from prior angina material is listed as slowing heart firing? A) Dofetilide B) Ivabradine C) Disopyramide D) Ibutilide | back 5 B. Ivabradine |
front 6 Which antiarrhythmic goal means reducing how quickly impulses travel through the heart? A) Increasing automaticity B) Increasing contractility C) Slowing conduction D) Shortening refractoriness | back 6 C. Slowing conduction |
front 7 Which class slows conduction by blocking sodium channels? A) Class I B) Class II C) Class III D) Class IV | back 7 A. Class I |
front 8 Which drug class helps slow conduction through beta receptor blockade? A) Class III B) Class II C) Class IB only D) Class IA only | back 8 B. Class II |
front 9 Which drug class slows conduction through L-type calcium channel blockade? A) Class III B) Class IC C) Class IV D) Class IB | back 9 C. Class IV |
front 10 Which antiarrhythmic goal means cells must wait longer before firing again? A) Shorter AP duration B) Increased refractory period C) Faster AV conduction D) Higher excitability | back 10 B. Increased refractory period |
front 11 Which classes are especially associated with making cells wait longer before firing again? A) Class IA and III B) Class IB and IC C) Adenosine and magnesium D) Potassium and lidocaine | back 11 A. Class IA and III |
front 12 In the AV node, which classes can increase the waiting period before firing again? A) Class IB and IC B) Class II and IV C) Class IA and IB D) Class III and IC | back 12 B. Class II and IV |
front 13 Which drugs are Class IA antiarrhythmics? A) Procainamide, quinidine, disopyramide B) Lidocaine, mexiletine, flecainide C) Amiodarone, sotalol, dofetilide D) Verapamil, diltiazem, adenosine | back 13 A. Procainamide, quinidine, disopyramide |
front 14 Which drug is a Class IA antiarrhythmic? A) Lidocaine B) Procainamide C) Metoprolol D) Diltiazem | back 14 B. Procainamide |
front 15 Which drug is a Class IA antiarrhythmic? A) Quinidine B) Mexiletine C) Flecainide D) Esmolol | back 15 A. Quinidine |
front 16 Which drug is a Class IA antiarrhythmic? A) Sotalol B) Propafenone C) Disopyramide D) Adenosine | back 16 C. Disopyramide |
front 17 Class IA drugs block which channels? A) Calcium and chloride channels B) Sodium and potassium channels C) Beta and alpha receptors D) BNP and D1 receptors | back 17 B. Sodium and potassium channels |
front 18 What is the main electrophysiologic effect of Class IA drugs? A) Shortened AP duration B) Faster AV conduction C) Prolonged AP duration D) Increased ischemic firing | back 18 C. Prolonged AP duration |
front 19 Class IA drugs prolong which cellular period? A) Refractory period B) Depolarization leak only C) SA pacemaker slope only D) AV nodal delay only | back 19 A. Refractory period |
front 20 Class IA drugs are used for which arrhythmia types? A) Only atrial arrhythmias B) Only ventricular arrhythmias C) Atrial and ventricular arrhythmias D) Only digitalis arrhythmias | back 20 C. Atrial and ventricular arrhythmias |
front 21 Which side effect is associated with Class IA drugs? A) Bronchoconstriction only B) QT prolongation/torsades C) Severe cyanide toxicity D) Thrombocytopenia only | back 21 B. QT prolongation/torsades |
front 22 Which Class IA drug is linked to lupus-like syndrome? A) Procainamide B) Quinidine C) Disopyramide D) Lidocaine | back 22 A. Procainamide |
front 23 Which drugs are Class IB antiarrhythmics? A) Flecainide and propafenone B) Lidocaine and mexiletine C) Verapamil and diltiazem D) Quinidine and disopyramide | back 23 B. Lidocaine and mexiletine |
front 24 Which drug is a Class IB antiarrhythmic? A) Lidocaine B) Procainamide C) Dofetilide D) Metoprolol | back 24 A. Lidocaine |
front 25 Which drug is a Class IB antiarrhythmic? A) Flecainide B) Mexiletine C) Quinidine D) Sotalol | back 25 B. Mexiletine |
front 26 Class IB drugs block sodium channels especially in which tissue? A) Healthy atrial tissue only B) AV nodal tissue only C) Damaged ischemic ventricular tissue D) Normal SA nodal tissue | back 26 C. Damaged ischemic ventricular tissue |
front 27 Class IB drugs have which effect on action potential duration? A) Prolong AP duration B) Shorten AP duration C) No sodium effect D) Prolong QT strongly | back 27 B. Shorten AP duration |
front 28 Although Class IB drugs shorten AP duration, they suppress which activity? A) Normal AV nodal delay B) Abnormal ischemic ventricular activity C) BNP receptor signaling D) Aldosterone receptor activity | back 28 B. Abnormal ischemic ventricular activity |
front 29 Which clinical use matches Class IB drugs? A) Ventricular tachycardia B) Chronic hypertension only C) Stable angina only D) Supraventricular arrhythmias only | back 29 A. Ventricular tachycardia |
front 30 Class IB drugs can help prevent which rhythm after cardioversion? A) Atrial flutter only B) Ventricular fibrillation C) Sinus bradycardia D) AV block | back 30 B. Ventricular fibrillation |
front 31 Which class is best for sodium channel blockade in damaged ischemic ventricular tissue? A) Class IA B) Class IB C) Class IC D) Class IV | back 31 B. Class IB |
front 32 Which drug best matches “ventricular tachycardia after ischemic damage”? A) Lidocaine B) Diltiazem C) Adenosine D) Propranolol | back 32 A. Lidocaine |
front 33 Which drugs are Class IC antiarrhythmics? A) Lidocaine and mexiletine B) Procainamide and quinidine C) Flecainide and propafenone D) Amiodarone and sotalol | back 33 C. Flecainide and propafenone |
front 34 Which drug is a Class IC antiarrhythmic? A) Flecainide B) Lidocaine C) Amiodarone D) Verapamil | back 34 A. Flecainide |
front 35 Which drug is a Class IC antiarrhythmic? A) Procainamide B) Propafenone C) Mexiletine D) Adenosine | back 35 B. Propafenone |
front 36 Class IC drugs are defined by which major mechanism? A) Strong Na+ channel blockade B) Strong K+ channel blockade C) L-type calcium blockade D) Beta receptor activation | back 36 A. Strong Na+ channel blockade |
front 37 Class IC drugs mainly slow which cardiac property? A) Heart preload B) Renal sodium excretion C) Conduction D) Contractility | back 37 C. Conduction |
front 38 Slowed conduction from Class IC drugs prevents which problem? A) Impulses spreading too quickly B) Cells waiting too long C) Calcium leaving cells D) Venous return increasing | back 38 A. Impulses spreading too quickly |
front 39 Class IC drugs are used for supraventricular arrhythmias in which patients? A) Patients with normal hearts B) Patients after MI C) Patients with ischemic disease D) Patients with torsades | back 39 A. Patients with normal hearts |
front 40 What is the big warning for Class IC drugs? A) Avoid in asthma B) Avoid in post-MI disease C) Avoid in hypokalemia only D) Avoid in AVNRT only | back 40 B. Avoid in post-MI disease |
front 41 Why should Class IC drugs be avoided in ischemic heart disease or post-MI patients? A) They worsen arrhythmias B) They cause lupus only C) They reverse hypokalemia D) They block BNP receptors | back 41 A. They worsen arrhythmias |
front 42 A post-MI patient has arrhythmias. Which drug should be avoided because it can worsen arrhythmias? A) Flecainide B) Lidocaine C) Magnesium D) Adenosine | back 42 A. Flecainide |
front 43 Which class strongly blocks sodium channels and is used only in normal hearts for supraventricular arrhythmias? A) Class II B) Class IC C) Class IA D) Class III | back 43 B. Class IC |
front 44 Which drugs are Class II antiarrhythmics? A) Propranolol, esmolol, metoprolol B) Verapamil, diltiazem, adenosine C) Lidocaine, mexiletine, flecainide D) Amiodarone, dofetilide, ibutilide | back 44 A. Propranolol, esmolol, metoprolol |
front 45 Class II antiarrhythmics are also known as which drug group? A) Calcium channel blockers B) Sodium channel blockers C) Beta blockers D) Potassium channel blockers | back 45 C. Beta blockers |
front 46 Beta blockers help arrhythmias by decreasing which stimulation? A) Sympathetic stimulation B) Parasympathetic stimulation C) BNP stimulation D) Aldosterone stimulation | back 46 A. Sympathetic stimulation |
front 47 Class II beta blockers slow firing in which cardiac node? A) SA node B) AV node only C) Purkinje fibers only D) Ventricular myocardium only | back 47 A. SA node |
front 48 Class II beta blockers slow conduction through which cardiac node? A) AV node B) SA node only C) Bundle branches only D) Ventricular apex only | back 48 A. AV node |
front 49 Which clinical use matches Class II beta blockers? A) Atrial arrhythmias B) Cyanide toxicity C) Hypokalemia only D) Lupus-like syndrome | back 49 A. Atrial arrhythmias |
front 50 Beta blockers are useful for which arrhythmia treatment goal? A) Rate control B) QT shortening only C) Cardioversion anesthesia D) Potassium repletion | back 50 A. Rate control |
front 51 Class II beta blockers help prevent which cardiac outcomes? A) Recurrent MI/sudden death B) Digitalis toxicity only C) Torsades only D) Lupus-like syndrome | back 51 A. Recurrent MI/sudden death |
front 52 Which side effect is associated with Class II beta blockers? A) Bradycardia B) Cyanide toxicity C) Gingival hyperplasia D) Hearing loss | back 52 A. Bradycardia |
front 53 Class II beta blockers can cause which conduction adverse effect? A) AV block B) QT shortening C) SA node acceleration D) Ventricular fibrillation prevention only | back 53 A. AV block |
front 54 Which side effect is associated with beta blockers due to reduced sympathetic activity? A) Fatigue B) Constipation C) Lupus-like syndrome D) Visual brightness | back 54 A. Fatigue |
front 55 Bronchoconstriction is especially associated with which beta blockers? A) Nonselective beta blockers B) Beta-1 selective blockers C) Class III agents D) Class IV agents | back 55 A. Nonselective beta blockers |
front 56 A patient with asthma develops wheezing after propranolol. Which side effect explains this? A) Bronchoconstriction B) QT prolongation C) Lupus-like syndrome D ) Torsades | back 56 A. Bronchoconstriction |
front 57 Which drugs are Class III antiarrhythmics? A) Amiodarone, dofetilide, sotalol B) Propranolol, esmolol, metoprolol C) Flecainide, propafenone, lidocaine D) Verapamil, diltiazem, adenosine | back 57 A. Amiodarone, dofetilide, sotalol |
front 58 Which drug is a Class III antiarrhythmic? A) Amiodarone B) Procainamide C) Mexiletine D) Verapamil | back 58 A. Amiodarone |
front 59 Which drug is a Class III antiarrhythmic? A) Dofetilide B) Flecainide C) Adenosine D) Magnesium | back 59 A. Dofetilide |
front 60 Which drug is a Class III antiarrhythmic? A) Sotalol B) Esmolol C) Quinidine D) Potassium | back 60 A. Sotalol |
front 61 Which drug is a Class III antiarrhythmic? A) Ibutilide B) Lidocaine C) Diltiazem D) Propafenone | back 61 A. Ibutilide |
front 62 Which drug is a Class III antiarrhythmic? A) Dronedarone B) Disopyramide C) Metoprolol D) Adenosine | back 62 A. Dronedarone |
front 63 Class III drugs mainly block which channels? A) Potassium channels B) Sodium channels C) Calcium channels D) Chloride channels | back 63 A. Potassium channels |
front 64 What is the main effect of Class III drugs? A) Prolong AP and refractory period B) Shorten AP and refractory period C) Speed AV conduction D) Increase SA firing | back 64 A. Prolong AP and refractory period |
front 65 Amiodarone has extra actions on which targets? A) Na+, Ca2+, beta receptors B) SGLT2, ACE, renin C) BNP, D1, alpha-1 D) Aldosterone, GABA, NMDA | back 65 A. Na+, Ca2+, beta receptors |
front 66 Class III drugs are used for which arrhythmias? A) Serious ventricular and supraventricular B) Hypokalemia only C) AVNRT only D) Digitalis toxicity only | back 66 A. Serious ventricular and supraventricular |
front 67 Which side effect is associated with Class III drugs? A) QT prolongation/torsades B) Lupus-like syndrome only C) Bronchoconstriction only D) Thiocyanate toxicity | back 67 A. QT prolongation/torsades |
front 68 A patient receiving dofetilide develops torsades de pointes. Which class toxicity is this? A) Class III toxicity B) Class IB toxicity C) Class II toxicity D) Class IV toxicity | back 68 A. Class III toxicity |
front 69 Which class prolongs refractory period mainly by blocking potassium channels? A) Class III B) Class IB C) Class IC D) Class II | back 69 A. Class III |
front 70 Which drugs are Class IV antiarrhythmics? A) Verapamil and diltiazem B) Propranolol and esmolol C) Lidocaine and mexiletine D) Flecainide and propafenone | back 70 A. Verapamil and diltiazem |
front 71 Class IV drugs directly block which channels? A) L-type Ca2+ channels B) Fast Na+ channels C) K+ channels D) HCN pacemaker channels | back 71 A. L-type Ca2+ channels |
front 72 Which drug is a Class IV antiarrhythmic? A) Verapamil B) Adenosine C) Procainamide D) Amiodarone | back 72 A. Verapamil |
front 73 Which drug is a Class IV antiarrhythmic? A) Diltiazem B) Metoprolol C) Mexiletine D) Quinidine | back 73 A. Diltiazem |
front 74 Class IV drugs are clinically used for which arrhythmia type? A) Supraventricular tachycardias B) Ventricular fibrillation after cardioversion C) Digitalis-induced arrhythmias D) Hypokalemia-associated arrhythmias | back 74 A. Supraventricular tachycardias |
front 75 Besides arrhythmias, Class IV drugs are used for which condition? A) Hypertension B) Cyanide toxicity C) Lupus-like syndrome D) Thrombocytopenia | back 75 A. Hypertension |
front 76 Besides arrhythmias and hypertension, Class IV drugs are used for which condition? A) Angina B) Asthma C) Hypokalemia D) Digitalis toxicity | back 76 A. Angina |
front 77 Which side effect is associated with verapamil and diltiazem? A) Bradycardia B) Cyanide toxicity C) Lupus-like syndrome D) Ototoxicity | back 77 A. Bradycardia |
front 78 Class IV calcium channel blockers can cause which conduction adverse effect? A) AV block B) Ventricular acceleration C) QT shortening D) Hyperkalemic arrest | back 78 A. AV block |
front 79 Which gastrointestinal side effect is associated with Class IV drugs? A) Constipation B) Diarrhea C) Metallic taste D) Vomiting | back 79 A. Constipation |
front 80 Which vascular side effect is associated with Class IV drugs? A) Hypotension B) Hypertension C) Cyanosis D) Pulmonary edema | back 80 A. Hypotension |
front 81 Which side effect set best matches Class IV drugs? A) Bradycardia, AV block, constipation B) Torsades, lupus-like syndrome, cough C) Cyanide toxicity, hypotension, fatigue D) Arrhythmias, thrombocytopenia, flushing | back 81 A. Bradycardia, AV block, constipation |
front 82 Adenosine acts primarily in which cardiac structure? A) AV node B) SA node only C) Ventricular muscle only D) Purkinje fibers only | back 82 A. AV node |
front 83 Adenosine activates which current in the AV node? A) Potassium current B) Sodium current C) Chloride current D) Pacemaker current | back 83 A. Potassium current |
front 84 Adenosine blocks which current in the AV node? A) Calcium current B) Potassium current C) Chloride current D) Sodium-glucose current | back 84 A. Calcium current |
front 85 Adenosine is clinically used for which arrhythmia? A) Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia B) Ventricular tachycardia after ischemia C) Digitalis-induced arrhythmia D) Torsades de pointes | back 85 A. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia |
front 86 Which drug is used for paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia by affecting AV nodal K+ and Ca2+ currents? A) Adenosine B) Lidocaine C) Flecainide D) Potassium | back 86 A. Adenosine |
front 87 Magnesium helps arrhythmias by doing which general action A) Stabilizes cardiac electrical activity B) Blocks ACE C) Releases nitric oxide D) Blocks beta receptors | back 87 A. Stabilizes cardiac electrical activity |
front 88 Magnesium interacts with what to stabilize cardiac electrical activity? A) Ion channels B) Aldosterone receptors C) Beta receptors D) BNP receptors | back 88 A. Ion channels |
front 89 Magnesium is clinically used for which arrhythmia? A) Torsades de pointes B) Stable angina C) Chronic hypertension D) Recurrent MI prevention | back 89 A. Torsades de pointes |
front 90 Magnesium is also used for arrhythmias caused by which drug toxicity? A) Digitalis-induced arrhythmias B) Beta blocker-induced fatigue C) Procainamide-induced lupus D) Nitroprusside cyanide toxicity | back 90 A. Digitalis-induced arrhythmias |
front 91 Which agent is used for torsades de pointes? A) Magnesium B) Flecainide C) Ivabradine D) Diltiazem | back 91 A. Magnesium |
front 92 Which agent can treat digitalis-induced arrhythmias by stabilizing electrical activity? A) Magnesium B) Propranolol C) Quinidine D) Adenosine | back 92 A. Magnesium |
front 93 Potassium helps arrhythmias by correcting which abnormality A) Hypokalemia B) Hypercalcemia C) Hypernatremia D) Hypoglycemia | back 93 A. Hypokalemia |
front 94 Why can hypokalemia promote arrhythmias? A) Cells become too excitable B) Cells stop conducting completely C) BNP receptors activate D) AV node calcium rises | back 94 A. Cells become too excitable |
front 95 Potassium is clinically used for arrhythmias associated with which condition? A) Hypokalemia B) Hyperkalemia C) Hypertension only D) Angina only | back 95 A. Hypokalemia |
front 96 Potassium can be used for arrhythmias caused by which drug toxicity? A) Digitalis-induced arrhythmias B) Beta blocker fatigue C) Calcium blocker constipation D) Procainamide lupus | back 96 A. Digitalis-induced arrhythmias |
front 97 Which electrolyte correction reduces abnormal rhythm risk from overly excitable cells? A) Potassium correction B) Sodium restriction C) Chloride loading D) Glucose infusion | back 97 A. Potassium correction |
front 98 A patient with hypokalemia develops abnormal rhythms. Which agent directly addresses the cause? A) Potassium B) Adenosine C) Flecainide D) Verapamil | back 98 A. Potassium |
front 99 Compared with procainamide, disopyramide has which pharmacokinetic feature? A) Shorter duration B) No oral activity C) Longer duration D) No cardiac effect | back 99 C. Longer duration |
front 100 Which toxicity is associated with disopyramide? A) Antimuscarinic effects B) Cinchonism C) Tendon rupture D) Methemoglobinemia | back 100 A. Antimuscarinic effects |
front 101 Disopyramide can worsen which cardiac condition? A) Hypertension B) Atrial flutter C) Angina D) Heart failure | back 101 D. Heart failure |
front 102 A patient taking disopyramide develops dry mouth, urinary retention, and blurry vision. Which toxicity explains this? A) Beta blockade B) Antimuscarinic effects C) Calcium toxicity D) Folate blockade | back 102 B. Antimuscarinic effects |
front 103 Which side effect pair best matches disopyramide? A) Tinnitus and vertigo B) Rash and fever C) Antimuscarinic effects and heart failure D) Tendonitis and neurotoxicity | back 103 C. Antimuscarinic effects and heart failure |
front 104 Compared with procainamide, quinidine is described as having what? A) Less toxicity B) No toxicity C) Only renal toxicity D) Greater toxicity | back 104 D. Greater toxicity |
front 105 Which symptom set best matches quinidine cinchonism? A) Dry mouth, urinary retention B) Tinnitus, vertigo, headache C) Cough, angioedema, rash D) Wheezing, fatigue, bradycardia | back 105 B. Tinnitus, vertigo, headache |
front 106 Which side effect set best matches quinidine? A) Tendonitis, neurotoxicity, GI upset B) Cinchonism, GI disturbance, thrombocytopenia C) Methemoglobinemia, pulmonary irritation, hypotension D) Antimuscarinic effects, heart failure only | back 106 B. Cinchonism, GI disturbance, thrombocytopenia |
front 107 Compared with lidocaine, mexiletine has which pharmacokinetic feature? A) Shorter duration B) Longer duration C) No absorption D) IV use only | back 107 B. Longer duration |
front 108 Which statement best describes mexiletine? A) Similar to lidocaine, oral B) Similar to quinidine, shorter C) Similar to verapamil, IV only D) Similar to adenosine, AV node | back 108 A. Similar to lidocaine, oral |
front 109 A patient needs an orally active Class IB-like drug for ventricular arrhythmia. Which drug fits best? A) Lidocaine B) Mexiletine C) Procainamide D) Diltiazem | back 109 B. Mexiletine |
front 110 Which drug is similar to lidocaine but has longer duration and neuropathic pain use? A) Quinidine B) Disopyramide C) Mexiletine D) Esmolol | back 110 C. Mexiletine |
front 111 Esmolol is also used for arrhythmias associated with which condition? A) Hypokalemia B) Thyrotoxicosis C) Heart failure only D) Toxoplasmosis | back 111 B. Thyrotoxicosis |
front 112 A patient with thyrotoxicosis develops tachyarrhythmia. Which drug from the notes is especially useful? A) Disopyramide B) Quinidine C) Esmolol D) Nifedipine | back 112 C. Esmolol |
front 113 Which statement best describes esmolol use? A) Neuropathic pain treatment B) Toxoplasmosis folate blockade C) Pulmonary hypertension therapy D) Perioperative and thyrotoxicosis arrhythmias | back 113 D. Perioperative and thyrotoxicosis arrhythmias |
front 114 Dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers may sometimes do what to arrhythmias? A) Cure all arrhythmias B) Prevent digitalis toxicity C) Shorten QT only D) Precipitate arrhythmias | back 114 D. Precipitate arrhythmias |
front 115 Which statement best contrasts dihydropyridines with verapamil/diltiazem? A) Dihydropyridines are arrhythmia drugs B) Dihydropyridines are not useful C) Verapamil cannot affect AV node D) Diltiazem causes cinchonism | back 115 B. Dihydropyridines are not useful |
front 116 In deciding on a treatment regimen with procainamide
| back 116 (B) Hyperkalemia should be avoided to reduce the likelihood of procainamide toxicity. |
front 117 If this patient should take an overdose and manifest severe
| back 117 (E) Sodium lactate The most effective therapy for procainamide (and quinidine)
|
front 118 Amiodarone: | back 118 (B) Increases action potential duration |
front 119 A 36-year-old woman with a history of poorly controlled
| back 119 (C) Esmolol |
front 120 A 55-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department | back 120 (B) Flecainide: Increased QRS interval |
front 121 A 60-year-old woman comes to the emergency department | back 121 Lidocaine has limited applications as an antiarrhythmic drug,
|
front 122 Which of the following drugs slows conduction through the | back 122 (A) Adenosine |