Print Options

Card layout: ?

← Back to notecard set|Easy Notecards home page

Instructions for Side by Side Printing
  1. Print the notecards
  2. Fold each page in half along the solid vertical line
  3. Cut out the notecards by cutting along each horizontal dotted line
  4. Optional: Glue, tape or staple the ends of each notecard together
  1. Verify Front of pages is selected for Viewing and print the front of the notecards
  2. Select Back of pages for Viewing and print the back of the notecards
    NOTE: Since the back of the pages are printed in reverse order (last page is printed first), keep the pages in the same order as they were after Step 1. Also, be sure to feed the pages in the same direction as you did in Step 1.
  3. Cut out the notecards by cutting along each horizontal and vertical dotted line
To print: Ctrl+PPrint as a list

154 notecards = 39 pages (4 cards per page)

Viewing:

Phys 22

front 1

A patient develops acute moderate cardiac failure after myocardial injury. Which immediate hemodynamic pattern is most expected?

A. Increased output, venous unloading
B. Decreased output, venous damming
C. Increased output, arterial pooling
D. Decreased output, arterial dilation

back 1

B. Decreased output, venous damming

front 2

Early compensation for acute heart failure by the sympathetic nervous system produces which two major responses?

A. Increased contractility, vasoconstriction
B. Bradycardia, venodilation
C. Decreased afterload, natriuresis
D. Increased diuresis, vasodilation

back 2

A. Increased contractility, vasoconstriction

front 3

Which reflex is one of the major mechanisms that strongly stimulates sympathetic activity in acute heart failure?

A. Bainbridge reflex
B. Oculocardiac reflex
C. Baroreceptor reflex
D. Cushing triad

back 3

C. Baroreceptor reflex

front 4

Which additional mechanism can strongly activate the sympathetic nervous system in worsening heart failure?

A. Chemoreceptor reflex
B. Frank-Starling mechanism
C. Hering-Breuer reflex
D. Diving reflex

back 4

A. Chemoreceptor reflex

front 5

Severe circulatory compromise from heart failure can activate which powerful sympathetic response?

A. Bezold-Jarisch reflex
B. CNS ischemic response
C. Vasovagal response
D. Pupillary reflex

back 5

B. CNS ischemic response

front 6

In chronic heart failure, reduced cardiac output and blood pressure cause the kidneys to retain:

A. bicarbonate and calcium
B. glucose and phosphate
C. sodium and water
D. potassium and urea

back 6

C. sodium and water

front 7

Moderate fluid retention in chronic heart failure can be:

A. always harmful
B. beneficial
C. never compensatory
D. unrelated to output

back 7

B. beneficial

front 8

Excess fluid retention in heart failure can directly cause all of the following except:

A. pulmonary edema
B. peripheral edema
C. increased cardiac workload
D. improved cardiac reserve

back 8

D. improved cardiac reserve

front 9

Excessive ventricular stretching from fluid retention tends to:

A. strengthen the myocardium
B. increase coronary flow only
C. weaken the heart
D. prevent pulmonary edema

back 9

C. weaken the heart

front 10

In compensated heart failure, which statement is most accurate?

A. Pumping returns fully normal, reserves reduced
B. Cardiac reserves normalize
C. Output remains depressed, reserves reduced
D. Edema cannot occur

back 10

C. Output remains depressed, reserves reduced

front 11

Which best defines decompensated heart failure?

A. Normal output restored by SNS
B. No compensation can normalize output
C. Renal perfusion is excessive
D. Pumping exceeds metabolic demand

back 11

B. No compensation can normalize output

front 12

Decompensated heart failure can become fatal largely because the kidneys receive insufficient blood flow to:

A. filter proteins
B. secrete renin
C. activate vitamin D
D. excrete necessary fluid

back 12

D. excrete necessary fluid

front 13

The approximate cardiac output required to maintain normal fluid balance is:

A. 2 L/min
B. 3.5 L/min
C. 5 L/min
D. 7 L/min

back 13

C. 5 L/min

front 14

A patient with severe pulmonary edema from heart failure is most likely to have which auscultatory finding?

A. Wheezes
B. Rales
C. Pleural rub
D. Silent lungs

back 14

B. Rales

front 15

Severe pulmonary edema in heart failure commonly causes:

A. dysphagia
B. hemoptysis
C. dyspnea
D. stridor

back 15

C. dyspnea

front 16

Which is a major treatment option for decompensated heart failure?

A. Loop diuretic
B. Calcium channel blocker
C. Thiazide
D. Acetazolamide

back 16

A. Loop diuretic

front 17

Another major treatment option for decompensated heart failure is:

A. digoxin
B. atropine
C. adenosine
D. lidocaine

back 17

A. digoxin

front 18

In a normal heart, digitalis has what effect on contractile strength?

A. Large increase always
B. Little effect
C. Marked depression
D. Stops contraction

back 18

B. Little effect

front 19

In chronic heart failure, digitalis may increase myocardial contractile strength by approximately:

A. 10-20%
B. 25-40%
C. 50-100%
D. 150-200%

back 19

C. 50-100%

front 20

The primary cellular effect of digitalis that improves contraction is increased intracellular:

A. potassium
B. chloride
C. magnesium
D. calcium

back 20

D. calcium

front 21

Digitalis increases intracellular calcium largely by inhibiting the:

A. L-type calcium channel
B. sodium-potassium ATPase
C. ryanodine receptor
D. funny current channel

back 21

B. sodium-potassium ATPase

front 22

Inhibition of the sodium-potassium pump by digitalis raises intracellular sodium, which then reduces activity of the:

A. sodium-calcium exchanger
B. sodium-hydrogen exchanger
C. SERCA pump
D. potassium leak channel

back 22

A. sodium-calcium exchanger

front 23

In the failing heart, digitalis is especially useful because the sarcoplasmic reticulum cannot:

A. form gap junctions
B. accumulate normal calcium
C. generate ATP
D. repolarize membranes

back 23

B. accumulate normal calcium

front 24

Which type of heart failure is more common?

A. Right-sided failure
B. Equal frequency
C. Left-sided failure
D. Isolated biventricular failure

back 24

C. Left-sided failure

front 25

Left-sided heart failure tends to increase mean pulmonary filling pressure because blood shifts from the systemic to the:

A. coronary circulation
B. pulmonary circulation
C. portal circulation
D. lymphatic system

back 25

B. pulmonary circulation

front 26

The most important problem in left-sided heart failure is:

A. ascites
B. hepatomegaly
C. peripheral cyanosis
D. pulmonary edema

back 26

D. pulmonary edema

front 27

Cardiogenic shock is best defined as circulatory shock caused by:

A. systemic vasodilation
B. inadequate cardiac pumping
C. excessive renal diuresis
D. adrenal insufficiency

back 27

B. inadequate cardiac pumping

front 28

A major vicious-cycle feature of cardiogenic shock is that reduced blood pressure lowers:

A. cerebral venous drainage
B. coronary blood supply
C. portal vein flow
D. pulmonary venous tone

back 28

B. coronary blood supply

front 29

In cardiogenic shock with ventricular deterioration, the classic drug treatment is:

A. digoxin
B. mannitol
C. heparin
D. verapamil

back 29

A. digoxin

front 30

If cardiogenic shock is associated with coronary thrombosis, which treatment may be used?

A. insulin infusion
B. methimazole
C. streptokinase or tPA
D. protamine sulfate

back 30

C. streptokinase or tPA

front 31

Another revascularization option for clot-related cardiogenic shock is:

A. valve commissurotomy
B. coronary artery bypass graft
C. carotid endarterectomy
D. pacemaker insertion

back 31

B. coronary artery bypass graft

front 32

Severe acute cardiac failure often causes what change in peripheral capillary pressure?

A. Increased markedly
B. Decreased
C. Unchanged always
D. Becomes pulsus paradoxus

back 32

B. Decreased

it is decreased at first bc of sympathetic constriction, will increase down the road and cause that edema

front 33

Which develops first in acute left-sided heart failure?

A. Peripheral edema
B. Ascites
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Anasarca

back 33

C. Pulmonary edema

front 34

A patient with compensated heart failure feels stable at rest. Which hidden limitation still remains?

A. Increased cardiac reserves
B. Depressed cardiac reserves
C. Normal renal perfusion
D. No sympathetic tone

back 34

B. Depressed cardiac reserves

front 35

Which combination best fits decompensated rather than compensated heart failure?

A. Normal output, no edema
B. Full recovery, normal reserves
C. Severe edema, inadequate renal flow
D. Improved pumping, stable balance

back 35

C. Severe edema, inadequate renal flow

front 36

A patient with congestive heart failure develops worsening fluid retention. Which renal-hemodynamic pattern is most expected?

A. Increased GFR, suppressed RAAS
B. Decreased GFR, activated RAAS
C. Increased GFR, reduced aldosterone
D. Normal GFR, absent SNS tone

back 36

B. Decreased GFR, activated RAAS

front 37

In congestive heart failure, RAAS activation most directly increases secretion of:

A. Insulin
B. Thyroxine
C. Aldosterone
D. Glucagon

back 37

C. Aldosterone

front 38

Which additional neurohumoral response commonly accompanies congestive heart failure?

A. Sympathetic activation
B. Parasympathetic dominance
C. Suppressed catecholamines
D. Decreased renin release

back 38

A. Sympathetic activation

front 39

Atrial natriuretic peptide is released primarily when the:

A. Ventricles become ischemic
B. Atrial walls are stretched
C. Aortic valve closes
D. AV node depolarizes

back 39

B. Atrial walls are stretched

front 40

ANP helps protect against congestive symptoms of heart failure by increasing renal:

A. Potassium retention
B. Glucose reabsorption
C. Salt and water excretion
D. Calcium secretion

back 40

C. Salt and water excretion

front 41

A patient with acute pulmonary edema from left-sided heart failure receives a bedside intervention that traps blood in the veins of the limbs to reduce left-heart workload. This intervention is:

A. Intra-aortic balloon pump
B. Limb tourniquets
C. Trendelenburg positioning
D. Carotid massage

back 41

B. Limb tourniquets

front 42

Which drug may be given in pulmonary edema specifically to increase the strength of cardiac contraction?

A. Digoxin
B. Furosemide
C. Morphine
D. Nitroglycerin

back 42

A. Digoxin

front 43

Which of the following is one of the four main treatments for pulmonary edema due to left-sided heart failure?

A. Hypertonic saline
B. Fluid bolus
C. Oxygen supplementation
D. β-blocker loading

back 43

C. Oxygen supplementation

front 44

The purpose of oxygen supplementation in pulmonary edema is best described as:

A. Raising preload rapidly, vasodilation
B. Reducing deterioration, vasodilation
C. Increasing renal sodium retention, vasodilation
D. Enhancing atrial stretch, vasodilation

back 44

B. Reducing deterioration, vasodilation

front 45

Cardiac reserve is best defined as the maximum percentage by which cardiac output can increase:

A. Below normal
B. Above normal
C. During systole only
D. During diastole only

back 45

B. Above normal

front 46

Normal cardiac reserve is approximately:

A. 50-100%
B. 100-200%
C. 300-400%
D. 500-600%

back 46

C. 300-400%

front 47

Cardiac reserve is usually how in patients with heart failure?

A. Increased
B. Unchanged
C. Diminished
D. Inverted

back 47

C. Diminished

front 48

The best test to diagnose low cardiac reserve is an:

A. Exercise test
B. Resting spirometry
C. Tilt table test
D. EEG

back 48

A. Exercise test

front 49

A patient with low cardiac reserve is most likely to show which combination during exertion?

A. Bradycardia, edema, confusion
B. Increased heart rate, dyspnea, fatigue
C. Decreased heart rate, cyanosis, syncope
D. Normal heart rate, weakness, cough

back 49

B. Increased heart rate, dyspnea, fatigue

front 50

Normal cardiac output is closest to:

A. 2 L/min
B. 3.5 L/min
C. 5 L/min
D. 8 L/min

back 50

C. 5 L/min

front 51

Normal right atrial pressure is closest to:

A. 0 mmHg
B. 4 mmHg
C. 8 mmHg
D. 12 mmHg

back 51

A. 0 mmHg

front 52

During an acute heart attack, right atrial pressure typically:

A. Decreases below zero
B. Rises to about 4 mmHg
C. Remains fixed at zero
D. Falls with venous pooling

back 52

B. Rises to about 4 mmHg

front 53

Decompensation in heart failure occurs because cardiac output never rises to the critical level needed to reestablish:

A. Coronary vasodilation
B. Normal AV conduction
C. Normal renal fluid excretion
D. Normal ventricular hypertrophy

back 53

C. Normal renal fluid excretion

front 54

After effective digitalis therapy, it takes several days for venous return to decrease because of increased:

A. Hemorrhage
B. Diuresis
C. Vasoconstriction
D. Bradycardia

back 54

B. Diuresis

front 55

Beriberi heart disease is associated with greatly increased venous return because systemic vascular resistance is:

A. Increased
B. Diminished
C. Unchanged
D. Variable only

back 55

B. Diminished

front 56

The vitamin deficiency classically associated with beriberi heart disease is:

A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin B6
C. Vitamin B12
D. Vitamin C

back 56

A. Vitamin B1

front 57

In beriberi, despite high venous return, cardiac output may fall because the heart is:

A. Hypercontractile
B. Electrically blocked
C. Weakened
D. Severely hypertrophied

back 57

C. Weakened

front 58

An arteriovenous fistula overloads the heart primarily because it causes excessive:

A. Afterload
B. Venous return
C. Coronary resistance
D. Atrial refractoriness

back 58

B. Venous return

front 59

In the presence of a large arteriovenous fistula, total peripheral vascular resistance is expected to:

A. Increase
B. Stay unchanged
C. Decrease
D. Oscillate only

back 59

C. Decrease

front 60

In an arteriovenous fistula, venous return typically:

A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. Stops
D. Normalizes

back 60

B. Increases

front 61

A major hemodynamic consequence of arteriovenous fistula is increased:

A. Cardiac output and right atrial pressure
B. Pulmonary resistance and wedge pressure
C. Left atrial standstill and bradycardia
D. Coronary thrombosis and afterload

back 61

A. Cardiac output and right atrial pressure

front 62

A patient has a massive myocardial infarction with a sharp drop in cardiac output. Which reflex is activated by the resulting fall in arterial pressure?

A. Chemoreceptor reflex
B. Baroreceptor reflex
C. Stretch reflex
D. Bainbridge reflex

back 62

B. Baroreceptor reflex

front 63

The baroreceptor reflex in severe post-MI low-output states is triggered by:

A. Diminished arterial pressure
B. Increased venous pressure
C. Elevated right atrial pressure
D. Increased pulse pressure

back 63

A. Diminished arterial pressure

front 64

Within seconds after a major MI with very low cardiac output, the reflex response is to:

A. Suppress sympathetics, increase vagal tone
B. Increase both autonomic limbs
C. Stimulate sympathetics, inhibit parasympathetics
D. Inhibit sympathetics, inhibit parasympathetics

back 64

C. Stimulate sympathetics, inhibit parasympathetics

front 65

In the early compensatory response after MI, sympathetic stimulation mainly helps the surviving myocardium by:

A. Depressing normal muscle activity
B. Stimulating intact myocardium
C. Blocking AV conduction
D. Reducing coronary extraction

back 65

B. Stimulating intact myocardium

front 66

Increased venous tone after MI raises the:

A. Ejection fraction
B. Mean systemic filling pressure
C. Pulmonary diffusion capacity
D. Coronary sinus pressure

back 66

B. Mean systemic filling pressure

front 67

Raising mean systemic filling pressure has what effect on blood flow from the veins back to the heart?

A. Greatly increases it
B. Slightly decreases it
C. Abolishes it
D. Makes it pulsatile only

back 67

A. Greatly increases it

front 68

If cardiac output falls extremely low, roughly below 50% to 60% of normal, severe renal hypoperfusion may cause:

A. Polyuria
B. Glycosuria
C. Anuria
D. Hematuria

back 68

C. Anuria

front 69

Renal fluid retention after MI directly causes an increase in:

A. Blood volume and venous return
B. Afterload and heart rate
C. Coronary resistance
D. Pulmonary compliance

back 69

A. Blood volume and venous return

front 70

Moderate renal fluid retention in cardiac failure increases the:

A. Mean systemic filling pressure
B. Ventricular refractory period
C. Pulmonary capillary membrane
D. Atrial conduction time

back 70

A. Mean systemic filling pressure

front 71

Moderate fluid retention also causes the veins to:

A. Contract
B. Distend
C. Calcify
D. Spasm

back 71

B. Distend

front 72

Venous distention from moderate fluid retention tends to ______ venous resistance.

A. increase
B. abolish
C. reduce
D. not change

back 72

C. reduce

Simple idea:

  • With moderate fluid retention → veins become distended (more filled)
  • When veins are more open/stretched:
    • Their radius increases
    • Resistance to flow drops

front 73

The overall effect of moderate renal fluid retention in heart failure is to ______ venous return.

A. decrease
B. normalize instantly
C. block
D. increase

back 73

D. increase

front 74

Moderate fluid retention in cardiac failure is generally:

A. beneficial
B. lethal
C. irrelevant
D. maladaptive only

back 74

A. beneficial

front 75

In severe cardiac failure, excessive fluid retention is generally:

A. beneficial
B. neutral
C. detrimental
D. anti-edematous

back 75

C. detrimental

front 76

During recovery after myocardial infarction, the undamaged myocardium tends to:

A. atrophy
B. hypertrophy
C. calcify
D. fibrose completely

back 76

B. hypertrophy

front 77

Another adaptive change after MI is formation of new ______ blood supply around the infarct border.

A. portal
B. lymphatic
C. coronary sinus
D. collateral

back 77

D. collateral

front 78

Which sequence best summarizes the three stages after an acute moderate heart attack?

A. Renal retention, hypertrophy, sympathetic loss
B. Immediate damage, sympathetic compensation, chronic recovery
C. Sympathetic compensation, infarction, renal failure
D. Chronic dilation, acute recovery, vagal rebound

back 78

B. Immediate damage, sympathetic compensation, chronic recovery

front 79

In compensated heart failure, maximal pumping ability of the partly recovered heart is:

A. supranormal
B. normal
C. still depressed
D. absent

back 79

C. still depressed

front 80

In compensated heart failure, cardiac output may be normal at rest, but the right atrial pressure is usually:

A. slightly increased
B. markedly negative
C. exactly zero
D. decreased

back 80

A. slightly increased

front 81

The slightly increased right atrial pressure in compensated heart failure helps maintain:

A. coronary perfusion
B. normal cardiac output
C. normal ejection fraction
D. normal arterial oxygen

back 81

B. normal cardiac output

front 82

A patient with compensated heart failure becomes dyspneic with heavy exercise because:

A. RA pressure falls too low
B. the heart cannot increase pumping enough
C. the kidneys immediately fail
D. vagal tone becomes excessive

back 82

B. the heart cannot increase pumping enough

front 83

The major functional reserve reduced in compensated heart failure is the:

A. pulmonary reserve
B. renal reserve
C. cardiac reserve
D. metabolic reserve

back 83

C. cardiac reserve

front 84

Decompensated heart failure commonly leads to severe:

A. bradycardia and bradypnea
B. edema and death
C. hypertension and renal collapse
D. erythrocytosis and heart collapse

back 84

B. edema and death

front 85

Which combination best fits beneficial compensation in moderate cardiac failure?

A. Moderate fluid retention, increased venous return
B. Severe edema, reduced renal flow
C. Increased vagal tone, lower contractility
D. Distended veins, higher venous resistance

back 85

A. Moderate fluid retention, increased venous return

front 86

In decompensated heart failure, the fundamental renal problem is failure of the heart to pump enough:

A. oxygen
B. blood
C. lymph
D. plasma

back 86

B. blood

front 87

Because renal perfusion is inadequate in decompensated heart failure, the kidneys fail to:

A. filter glucose
B. excrete enough fluid
C. secrete potassium
D. retain sodium

back 87

B. excrete enough fluid

front 88

Continued renal fluid retention in decompensated heart failure most directly causes increased:

A. blood volume and RA pressure
B. GFR and urine output
C. contractility and reserve
D. aortic pressure and EF

back 88

A. blood volume and RA pressure

front 89

Heart failure that progressively worsens because compensation cannot restore adequate output is called:

A. compensated failure
B. isolated right failure
C. acute valvular failure
D. decompensated failure

back 89

D. decompensated failure

front 90

A classic clinical feature of decompensated heart failure is progressive:

A. edema
B. bradycardia
C. cyanosis
D. hypertension

back 90

A. edema

front 91

Lung auscultation in decompensated heart failure commonly reveals bubbling:

A. wheezes
B. rales
C. stridor
D. rubs

back 91

B. rales

front 92

A standard treatment combination for decompensated heart failure includes:

A. digoxin and diuretic
B. insulin and nitrate
C. adenosine and steroid
D. atropine and β-blocker

back 92

A. digoxin and diuretic

front 93

In this setting, digitalis is used mainly to:

A. slow renal filtration
B. strengthen cardiac pumping
C. dilate pulmonary veins
D. suppress aldosterone

back 93

B. strengthen cardiac pumping

front 94

Diuretics help decompensated heart failure mainly by:

A. increasing fluid retention
B. reducing edema
C. increasing SVR
D. depressing contractility

back 94

B. reducing edema

front 95

Isolated left-sided heart failure causes increased mean ______ filling pressure.

A. systemic
B. pulmonary
C. portal
D. coronary

back 95

B. pulmonary

front 96

Left-sided failure raises pulmonary filling pressure because blood backs up into the:

A. kidneys
B. systemic veins
C. lungs
D. liver

back 96

C. lungs

front 97

Low cardiac output from acute MI causing inadequate tissue perfusion is:

A. septic shock
B. hypovolemic shock
C. cardiogenic shock
D. neurogenic shock

back 97

C. cardiogenic shock

front 98

Cardiogenic shock worsens progressively in part because reduced arterial pressure lowers:

A. cerebral venous return
B. coronary blood supply
C. portal resistance
D. lymphatic drainage

back 98

B. coronary blood supply

front 99

Reduced coronary perfusion during cardiogenic shock causes:

A. stronger contraction
B. further myocardial weakening
C. immediate renal recovery
D. pulmonary vasodilation

back 99

B. further myocardial weakening

front 100

In a healthy heart, cardiac deterioration begins at ______ coronary arterial pressures than in a heart with major coronary blockage.

A. higher
B. equal
C. more variable
D. lower

back 100

D. lower

front 101

In a heart with major coronary vessel blockage, deterioration may begin when coronary pressure falls to about:

A. 20–30 mm Hg
B. 45 mm Hg
C. 80–90 mm Hg
D. 120–130 mm Hg

back 101

C. 80–90 mm Hg

front 102

In cardiogenic shock with ventricular damage, a classic medication used to prevent worsening deterioration is:

A. digoxin
B. lidocaine
C. atropine
D. nitroprusside

back 102

A. digoxin

front 103

Blood transfusion in cardiogenic shock is used mainly to increase:

A. potassium excretion and arterial pressure
B. blood and arterial pressure
C. vagal tone and arterial pressure
D. ventricular compliance and arterial pressure

back 103

B. blood and arterial pressure

front 104

Raising arterial pressure in cardiogenic shock helps by improving:

A. coronary perfusion
B. atrial depolarization
C. pulmonary compliance
D. venous capacitance

back 104

A. coronary perfusion

front 105

If cardiogenic shock is caused by coronary thrombosis, another treatment is:

A. clot removal
B. insulin infusion
C. dialysis
D. adenosine

back 105

A. clot removal

front 106

In acute heart failure, aortic pressure typically ______ while right atrial pressure ______.

A. increases, decreases
B. decreases, increases
C. decreases, decreases
D. increases, increases

back 106

B. decreases, increases

front 107

Over the long term, cardiac failure causes ______ peripheral capillary pressure because of renal fluid retention.

A. decreased
B. oscillating
C. increased
D. normalized

back 107

C. increased

front 108

Long-term cardiac failure causes a ______ glomerular filtration rate and a ______ urine output.

A. increased, increased
B. decreased, decreased
C. increased, decreased
D. decreased, increased

back 108

B. decreased, decreased

front 109

One mechanism for the reduced GFR in long-term heart failure is:

A. dilation of afferent arterioles
B. increased renal venous oxygen
C. reduced arterial pressure
D. decreased aldosterone

back 109

C. reduced arterial pressure

front 110

Another mechanism contributing to reduced GFR in long-term heart failure is:

A. constriction of afferent arterioles
B. dilation of efferent arterioles only
C. increased renal plasma flow
D. reduced sympathetic tone

back 110

A. constriction of afferent arterioles

front 111

In long-term cardiac failure, reduced renal perfusion commonly causes activation of the:

A. kallikrein-kinin system
B. renin-angiotensin system
C. complement cascade
D. fibrinolytic pathway

back 111

B. renin-angiotensin system

front 112

Activation of the renin-angiotensin system in long-term heart failure promotes increased renal reabsorption of:

A. glucose and phosphate
B. calcium and chloride
C. water and salt
D. urea and potassium

back 112

C. water and salt

front 113

Long-term heart failure often causes increased secretion of:

A. cortisol
B. aldosterone
C. insulin
D. thyroxine

back 113

B. aldosterone

front 114

Increased aldosterone contributes to peripheral edema primarily because sodium retention secondarily increases:

A. bicarbonate loss
B. calcium excretion
C. water retention
D. protein synthesis

back 114

C. water retention

front 115

Long-term cardiac failure is associated with ______ of the sympathetic nervous system.

A. activation
B. suppression
C. denervation
D. exhaustion

back 115

A. activation

front 116

Sympathetic stimulation increases tubular salt and water reabsorption in part by activating:

A. beta-2 receptors
B. muscarinic receptors
C. alpha receptors
D. nicotinic receptors

back 116

C. alpha receptors

front 117

Another way sympathetic activation promotes edema is by stimulating:

A. calcitonin release and beta receptors
B. renin and angiotensin II
C. ANP secretion and alpha receptors
D. NO release and angiotensin II

back 117

B. renin and angiotensin II

front 118

Sympathetic activation also promotes fluid retention by stimulating release of:

A. ADH
B. prolactin
C. glucagon
D. ANP

back 118

A. ADH

front 119

Atrial natriuretic peptide is released when the atrial walls become:

A. calcified
B. constricted
C. stretched
D. ischemic

back 119

C. stretched

front 120

ANP levels rise in severe heart failure mainly because the atria are:

A. underfilled
B. ischemic
C. stretched by pressure
D. denervated

back 120

C. stretched by pressure

front 121

ANP acts on the kidneys to greatly ______ excretion of salt and water.

A. decrease
B. increase
C. normalize
D. delay

back 121

B. increase

front 122

ANP serves an important protective role in heart failure by helping prevent:

A. arrhythmias
B. valve calcification
C. congestive symptoms
D. myocardial rupture

back 122

C. congestive symptoms

front 123

Acute progressive pulmonary edema may occur in a patient with longstanding heart failure after an event that further depresses:

A. right atrial function
B. left ventricular function
C. AV nodal conduction
D. renal tubular function

back 123

B. left ventricular function

front 124

In this setting, reduced blood oxygen levels in peripheral tissues trigger:

A. vasoconstriction
B. fibrinolysis
C. vasodilation
D. bradycardia

back 124

C. vasodilation

front 125

Peripheral vasodilation during acute progressive pulmonary edema tends to increase:

A. venous return
B. renal filtration
C. systemic resistance
D. coronary thrombosis

back 125

A. venous return

front 126

Increased venous return in this situation further raises pulmonary capillary pressure and thereby:

A. improves oxygenation
B. reduces edema formation
C. worsens pulmonary edema
D. lowers atrial pressure

back 126

C. worsens pulmonary edema

front 127

This sequence of worsening hypoxemia, vasodilation, venous return, and edema represents a:

A. compensatory reflex
B. protective adaptation
C. closed-loop recovery
D. vicious cycle

back 127

D. vicious cycle

front 128

A patient with longstanding heart failure develops sudden severe pulmonary edema after extreme emotional stress. Which mechanism best explains the rapid progression?

A. Hypoxemia causes vasodilation
B. ANP suppresses salt loss
C. Hyperoxia increases preload
D. ADH falls abruptly

back 128

A. Hypoxemia causes vasodilation

front 129

An emergency bedside maneuver to reduce left-heart workload in acute pulmonary edema is:

A. carotid massage
B. limb tourniquets
C. Trendelenburg position
D. abdominal binder

back 129

B. limb tourniquets

front 130

Rapidly acting diuretics help acute progressive pulmonary edema by causing rapid:

A. sodium infusion
B. arterial vasospasm
C. fluid loss
D. platelet inhibition

back 130

C. fluid loss

front 131

Giving pure oxygen in this setting mainly helps reverse:

A. hyperkalemia
B. oxygen desaturation
C. renal ischemia
D. aldosterone release

back 131

B. oxygen desaturation

front 132

Oxygen therapy also helps reduce further progression by countering peripheral:

A. vasodilation
B. thrombosis
C. fibrosis
D. bradycardia

back 132

A. vasodilation

front 133

A rapidly acting cardiotonic drug such as digitalis is used here primarily to:

A. lower venous tone
B. strengthen the heart
C. inhibit ANP release
D. suppress diuresis

back 133

B. strengthen the heart

front 134

Which of the following is one of the four major acute treatments for progressive pulmonary edema in longstanding heart failure?

A. pure oxygen
B. fluid bolus
C. beta-blocker loading
D. vasopressin infusion

back 134

A. pure oxygen

front 135

Which mechanism does not promote edema in long-term heart failure?

A. increased aldosterone
B. ANP-mediated natriuresis
C. sympathetic activation
D. angiotensin activation

back 135

B. ANP-mediated natriuresis

front 136

In severe heart failure, atrial stretch is most directly caused by blood:

A. moving rapidly into capillaries
B. backing up from ventricles
C. bypassing the lungs
D. pooling in arteries only

back 136

B. backing up from ventricles

front 137

Which treatment list best matches acute progressive pulmonary edema in chronic heart failure?

A. tourniquets, diuretic, oxygen, digitalis
B. insulin, dialysis, oxygen, aspirin
C. nitrates, heparin, atropine, bicarbonate
D. steroids, calcium, fluids, lidocaine

back 137

A. tourniquets, diuretic, oxygen, digitalis

front 138

The dyspnea seen with low cardiac reserve is mainly due to:

A. excess oxygen delivery
B. insufficient tissue perfusion
C. airway obstruction
D. increased hemoglobin

back 138

B. insufficient tissue perfusion

front 139

Muscle fatigue in low cardiac reserve is best explained by:

A. glycogen depletion
B. muscle ischemia
C. electrolyte excess
D. increased lactate clearance

back 139

B. muscle ischemia

front 140

An acute myocardial infarction most immediately causes the cardiac output curve to:

A. shift upward
B. flatten only
C. disappear
D. shift downward

back 140

D. shift downward

front 141

Within approximately how many seconds after MI do sympathetic reflexes become very active?

A. 5 seconds
B. 15 seconds
C. 60 seconds
D. 30 seconds

back 141

D. 30 seconds

front 142

Renal retention of salt and water after MI increases the:

A. ejection fraction
B. mean systemic filling pressure
C. coronary resistance
D. pulmonary compliance

back 142

B. mean systemic filling pressure

front 143

In decompensated heart failure, the ______ curve fails to reach the critical level.

A. venous return
B. pulmonary pressure
C. cardiac output
D. arterial oxygen

back 143

C. cardiac output

front 144

Because the cardiac output curve never reaches the critical level in decompensation, the kidneys continue to:

A. excrete excess fluid
B. retain fluid
C. normalize GFR
D. increase filtration

back 144

B. retain fluid

front 145

Continued renal retention in decompensated heart failure progressively increases the:

A. stroke volume
B. arterial compliance
C. heart rate
D. venous return curve

back 145

C. heart rate

front 146

Treatment of decompensated heart failure with digitalis primarily causes the ______ curve to rise.

A. venous return
B. cardiac output
C. pulmonary resistance
D. renal filtration

back 146

B. cardiac output

front 147

When digitalis raises cardiac output to the critical level, the kidneys respond by:

A. retaining more sodium
B. decreasing filtration
C. eliminating more fluid
D. increasing aldosterone

back 147

C. eliminating more fluid

front 148

An arteriovenous fistula can lead to which type of heart failure?

A. low-output
B. right-sided only
C. diastolic only
D. high-output

back 148

D. high-output

front 149

The mechanism of heart failure in an arteriovenous fistula is:

A. reduced contractility
B. excessive venous return
C. coronary occlusion
D. valve stenosis

back 149

B. excessive venous return

front 150

In arteriovenous fistula–induced heart failure, the intrinsic pumping ability of the heart is:

A. depressed
B. absent
C. normal
D. hypercontractile

back 150

C. normal

front 151

Beriberi heart disease is another cause of:

A. low-output failure
B. obstructive shock
C. restrictive cardiomyopathy
D. high-output failure

back 151

D. high-output failure

front 152

In beriberi, weakening of the heart leads to decreased blood flow to the:

A. lungs
B. brain
C. kidneys
D. liver

back 152

C. kidneys

front 153

Reduced renal perfusion in beriberi causes the kidneys to:

A. excrete excess fluid
B. retain fluid
C. reduce sodium reabsorption
D. increase GFR

back 153

B. retain fluid

front 154

Fluid retention in beriberi contributes to an increase in:

A. venous return
B. pulmonary diffusion
C. arterial elasticity
D. cardiac reserve

back 154

A. venous return