Print Options

Card layout: ?

← Back to notecard set|Easy Notecards home page

Instructions for Side by Side Printing
  1. Print the notecards
  2. Fold each page in half along the solid vertical line
  3. Cut out the notecards by cutting along each horizontal dotted line
  4. Optional: Glue, tape or staple the ends of each notecard together
  1. Verify Front of pages is selected for Viewing and print the front of the notecards
  2. Select Back of pages for Viewing and print the back of the notecards
    NOTE: Since the back of the pages are printed in reverse order (last page is printed first), keep the pages in the same order as they were after Step 1. Also, be sure to feed the pages in the same direction as you did in Step 1.
  3. Cut out the notecards by cutting along each horizontal and vertical dotted line
To print: Ctrl+PPrint as a list

180 notecards = 45 pages (4 cards per page)

Viewing:

Phys 22

front 1

A patient develops acute moderate cardiac failure after myocardial injury. Which immediate hemodynamic pattern is most expected?

A. Increased output, venous unloading
B. Decreased output, venous damming
C. Increased output, arterial pooling
D. Decreased output, arterial dilation

back 1

B. Decreased output, venous damming

front 2

Early compensation for acute heart failure by the sympathetic nervous system produces which two major responses?

A. Increased contractility, vasoconstriction
B. Bradycardia, venodilation
C. Decreased afterload, natriuresis
D. Increased diuresis, vasodilation

back 2

A. Increased contractility, vasoconstriction

front 3

Which reflex is one of the major mechanisms that strongly stimulates sympathetic activity in acute heart failure?

A. Bainbridge reflex
B. Oculocardiac reflex
C. Baroreceptor reflex
D. Cushing triad

back 3

C. Baroreceptor reflex

front 4

Which additional mechanism can strongly activate the sympathetic nervous system in worsening heart failure?

A. Chemoreceptor reflex
B. Frank-Starling mechanism
C. Hering-Breuer reflex
D. Diving reflex

back 4

A. Chemoreceptor reflex

front 5

Severe circulatory compromise from heart failure can activate which powerful sympathetic response?

A. Bezold-Jarisch reflex
B. CNS ischemic response
C. Vasovagal response
D. Pupillary reflex

back 5

B. CNS ischemic response

front 6

In chronic heart failure, reduced cardiac output and blood pressure cause the kidneys to retain:

A. bicarbonate and calcium
B. glucose and phosphate
C. sodium and water
D. potassium and urea

back 6

C. sodium and water

front 7

Moderate fluid retention in chronic heart failure can be:

A. always harmful
B. beneficial
C. never compensatory
D. unrelated to output

back 7

B. beneficial

front 8

Excess fluid retention in heart failure can directly cause all of the following except:

A. pulmonary edema
B. peripheral edema
C. increased cardiac workload
D. improved cardiac reserve

back 8

D. improved cardiac reserve

front 9

Excessive ventricular stretching from fluid retention tends to:

A. strengthen the myocardium
B. increase coronary flow only
C. weaken the heart
D. prevent pulmonary edema

back 9

C. weaken the heart

front 10

In compensated heart failure, which statement is most accurate?

A. Pumping returns fully normal, reserves reduced
B. Cardiac reserves normalize
C. Output remains depressed, reserves reduced
D. Edema cannot occur

back 10

C. Output remains depressed, reserves reduced

front 11

Which best defines decompensated heart failure?

A. Normal output restored by SNS
B. No compensation can normalize output
C. Renal perfusion is excessive
D. Pumping exceeds metabolic demand

back 11

B. No compensation can normalize output

front 12

Decompensated heart failure can become fatal largely because the kidneys receive insufficient blood flow to:

A. filter proteins
B. secrete renin
C. activate vitamin D
D. excrete necessary fluid

back 12

D. excrete necessary fluid

front 13

The approximate cardiac output required to maintain normal fluid balance is:

A. 2 L/min
B. 3.5 L/min
C. 5 L/min
D. 7 L/min

back 13

C. 5 L/min

front 14

A patient with severe pulmonary edema from heart failure is most likely to have which auscultatory finding?

A. Wheezes
B. Rales
C. Pleural rub
D. Silent lungs

back 14

B. Rales

front 15

Severe pulmonary edema in heart failure commonly causes:

A. dysphagia
B. hemoptysis
C. dyspnea
D. stridor

back 15

C. dyspnea

front 16

Which is a major treatment option for decompensated heart failure?

A. Loop diuretic
B. Calcium channel blocker
C. Thiazide
D. Acetazolamide

back 16

A. Loop diuretic

front 17

Another major treatment option for decompensated heart failure is:

A. digoxin
B. atropine
C. adenosine
D. lidocaine

back 17

A. digoxin

front 18

In a normal heart, digitalis has what effect on contractile strength?

A. Large increase always
B. Little effect
C. Marked depression
D. Stops contraction

back 18

B. Little effect

front 19

In chronic heart failure, digitalis may increase myocardial contractile strength by approximately:

A. 10-20%
B. 25-40%
C. 50-100%
D. 150-200%

back 19

C. 50-100%

front 20

The primary cellular effect of digitalis that improves contraction is increased intracellular:

A. potassium
B. chloride
C. magnesium
D. calcium

back 20

D. calcium

front 21

Digitalis increases intracellular calcium largely by inhibiting the:

A. L-type calcium channel
B. sodium-potassium ATPase
C. ryanodine receptor
D. funny current channel

back 21

B. sodium-potassium ATPase

front 22

Inhibition of the sodium-potassium pump by digitalis raises intracellular sodium, which then reduces activity of the:

A. sodium-calcium exchanger
B. sodium-hydrogen exchanger
C. SERCA pump
D. potassium leak channel

back 22

A. sodium-calcium exchanger

front 23

In the failing heart, digitalis is especially useful because the sarcoplasmic reticulum cannot:

A. form gap junctions
B. accumulate normal calcium
C. generate ATP
D. repolarize membranes

back 23

B. accumulate normal calcium

front 24

Which type of heart failure is more common?

A. Right-sided failure
B. Equal frequency
C. Left-sided failure
D. Isolated biventricular failure

back 24

C. Left-sided failure

front 25

Left-sided heart failure tends to increase mean pulmonary filling pressure because blood shifts from the systemic to the:

A. coronary circulation
B. pulmonary circulation
C. portal circulation
D. lymphatic system

back 25

B. pulmonary circulation

front 26

The most important problem in left-sided heart failure is:

A. ascites
B. hepatomegaly
C. peripheral cyanosis
D. pulmonary edema

back 26

D. pulmonary edema

front 27

Cardiogenic shock is best defined as circulatory shock caused by:

A. systemic vasodilation
B. inadequate cardiac pumping
C. excessive renal diuresis
D. adrenal insufficiency

back 27

B. inadequate cardiac pumping

front 28

A major vicious-cycle feature of cardiogenic shock is that reduced blood pressure lowers:

A. cerebral venous drainage
B. coronary blood supply
C. portal vein flow
D. pulmonary venous tone

back 28

B. coronary blood supply

front 29

In cardiogenic shock with ventricular deterioration, the classic drug treatment is:

A. digoxin
B. mannitol
C. heparin
D. verapamil

back 29

A. digoxin

front 30

If cardiogenic shock is associated with coronary thrombosis, which treatment may be used?

A. insulin infusion
B. methimazole
C. streptokinase or tPA
D. protamine sulfate

back 30

C. streptokinase or tPA

front 31

Another revascularization option for clot-related cardiogenic shock is:

A. valve commissurotomy
B. coronary artery bypass graft
C. carotid endarterectomy
D. pacemaker insertion

back 31

B. coronary artery bypass graft

front 32

Severe acute cardiac failure often causes what change in peripheral capillary pressure?

A. Increased markedly
B. Decreased
C. Unchanged always
D. Becomes pulsus paradoxus

back 32

B. Decreased

front 33

Which develops first in acute left-sided heart failure?

A. Peripheral edema
B. Ascites
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Anasarca

back 33

C. Pulmonary edema

front 34

A patient with compensated heart failure feels stable at rest. Which hidden limitation still remains?

A. Increased cardiac reserves
B. Depressed cardiac reserves
C. Normal renal perfusion
D. No sympathetic tone

back 34

B. Depressed cardiac reserves

front 35

Which combination best fits decompensated rather than compensated heart failure?

A. Normal output, no edema
B. Full recovery, normal reserves
C. Severe edema, inadequate renal flow
D. Improved pumping, stable balance

back 35

C. Severe edema, inadequate renal flow

front 36

A patient with congestive heart failure develops worsening fluid retention. Which renal-hemodynamic pattern is most expected?

A. Increased GFR, suppressed RAAS
B. Decreased GFR, activated RAAS
C. Increased GFR, reduced aldosterone
D. Normal GFR, absent SNS tone

back 36

B. Decreased GFR, activated RAAS

front 37

In congestive heart failure, RAAS activation most directly increases secretion of:

A. Insulin
B. Thyroxine
C. Aldosterone
D. Glucagon

back 37

C. Aldosterone

front 38

Which additional neurohumoral response commonly accompanies congestive heart failure?

A. Sympathetic activation
B. Parasympathetic dominance
C. Suppressed catecholamines
D. Decreased renin release

back 38

A. Sympathetic activation

front 39

Atrial natriuretic peptide is released primarily when the:

A. Ventricles become ischemic
B. Atrial walls are stretched
C. Aortic valve closes
D. AV node depolarizes

back 39

B. Atrial walls are stretched

front 40

ANP helps protect against congestive symptoms of heart failure by increasing renal:

A. Potassium retention
B. Glucose reabsorption
C. Salt and water excretion
D. Calcium secretion

back 40

C. Salt and water excretion

front 41

A patient with acute pulmonary edema from left-sided heart failure receives a bedside intervention that traps blood in the veins of the limbs to reduce left-heart workload. This intervention is:

A. Intra-aortic balloon pump
B. Limb tourniquets
C. Trendelenburg positioning
D. Carotid massage

back 41

B. Limb tourniquets

front 42

Which drug may be given in pulmonary edema specifically to increase the strength of cardiac contraction?

A. Digoxin
B. Furosemide
C. Morphine
D. Nitroglycerin

back 42

A. Digoxin

front 43

Which of the following is one of the four main treatments for pulmonary edema due to left-sided heart failure?

A. Hypertonic saline
B. Fluid bolus
C. Oxygen supplementation
D. β-blocker loading

back 43

C. Oxygen supplementation

front 44

The purpose of oxygen supplementation in pulmonary edema is best described as:

A. Raising preload rapidly, vasodilation
B. Reducing deterioration, vasodilation
C. Increasing renal sodium retention, vasodilation
D. Enhancing atrial stretch, vasodilation

back 44

B. Reducing deterioration, vasodilation

front 45

Cardiac reserve is best defined as the maximum percentage by which cardiac output can increase:

A. Below normal
B. Above normal
C. During systole only
D. During diastole only

back 45

B. Above normal

front 46

Normal cardiac reserve is approximately:

A. 50-100%
B. 100-200%
C. 300-400%
D. 500-600%

back 46

C. 300-400%

front 47

Cardiac reserve is usually how in patients with heart failure?

A. Increased
B. Unchanged
C. Diminished
D. Inverted

back 47

C. Diminished

front 48

The best test to diagnose low cardiac reserve is an:

A. Exercise test
B. Resting spirometry
C. Tilt table test
D. EEG

back 48

A. Exercise test

front 49

A patient with low cardiac reserve is most likely to show which combination during exertion?

A. Bradycardia, edema, confusion
B. Increased heart rate, dyspnea, fatigue
C. Decreased heart rate, cyanosis, syncope
D. Normal heart rate, weakness, cough

back 49

B. Increased heart rate, dyspnea, fatigue

front 50

Normal cardiac output is closest to:

A. 2 L/min
B. 3.5 L/min
C. 5 L/min
D. 8 L/min

back 50

C. 5 L/min

front 51

Normal right atrial pressure is closest to:

A. 0 mmHg
B. 4 mmHg
C. 8 mmHg
D. 12 mmHg

back 51

A. 0 mmHg

front 52

During an acute heart attack, right atrial pressure typically:

A. Decreases below zero
B. Rises to about 4 mmHg
C. Remains fixed at zero
D. Falls with venous pooling

back 52

B. Rises to about 4 mmHg

front 53

Decompensation in heart failure occurs because cardiac output never rises to the critical level needed to reestablish:

A. Coronary vasodilation
B. Normal AV conduction
C. Normal renal fluid excretion
D. Normal ventricular hypertrophy

back 53

C. Normal renal fluid excretion

front 54

The critical cardiac output needed to restore normal renal fluid balance is:

A. 2 L/min
B. 3 L/min
C. 4 L/min
D. 5 L/min

back 54

D. 5 L/min

front 55

After effective digitalis therapy, it takes several days for venous return to decrease because of increased:

A. Hemorrhage
B. Diuresis
C. Vasoconstriction
D. Bradycardia

back 55

B. Diuresis

front 56

On a Guyton-style heart failure graph, a point exactly at the critical cardiac output needed for normal fluid balance represents:

A. Cardiogenic shock
B. Acute MI
C. Compensated heart failure
D. Decompensated failure

back 56

C. Compensated heart failure

front 57

Beriberi heart disease is associated with greatly increased venous return because systemic vascular resistance is:

A. Increased
B. Diminished
C. Unchanged
D. Variable only

back 57

B. Diminished

front 58

The vitamin deficiency classically associated with beriberi heart disease is:

A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin B6
C. Vitamin B12
D. Vitamin C

back 58

A. Vitamin B1

front 59

In beriberi, despite high venous return, cardiac output may fall because the heart is:

A. Hypercontractile
B. Electrically blocked
C. Weakened
D. Severely hypertrophied

back 59

C. Weakened

front 60

An arteriovenous fistula overloads the heart primarily because it causes excessive:

A. Afterload
B. Venous return
C. Coronary resistance
D. Atrial refractoriness

back 60

B. Venous return

front 61

In the presence of a large arteriovenous fistula, total peripheral vascular resistance is expected to:

A. Increase
B. Stay unchanged
C. Decrease
D. Oscillate only

back 61

C. Decrease

front 62

In an arteriovenous fistula, venous return typically:

A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. Stops
D. Normalizes

back 62

B. Increases

front 63

A major hemodynamic consequence of arteriovenous fistula is increased:

A. Cardiac output and right atrial pressure
B. Pulmonary resistance and wedge pressure
C. Left atrial standstill and bradycardia
D. Coronary thrombosis and afterload

back 63

A. Cardiac output and right atrial pressure

front 64

Immediately after myocardial infarction, the pumping ability of the heart is:

A. Enhanced
B. Preserved
C. Depressed
D. Variable

back 64

C. Depressed

front 65

After MI, the immediate hemodynamic pattern includes reduced cardiac output and:

A. Reduced venous pressure
B. Damming of venous blood
C. Marked arterial vasodilation
D. Increased cardiac reserve

back 65

B. Damming of venous blood

front 66

Venous damming after MI leads most directly to increased:

A. Intracranial pressure
B. Right atrial pressure
C. Oncotic pressure
D. Oxygen extraction

back 66

B. Right atrial pressure

front 67

Which pairing is correct?

A. ANP — sodium retention
B. Beriberi — increased SVR
C. AV fistula — decreased venous return
D. CHF — sympathetic activation

back 67

D. CHF — sympathetic activation

front 68

A patient has a massive myocardial infarction with a sharp drop in cardiac output. Which reflex is activated by the resulting fall in arterial pressure?

A. Chemoreceptor reflex
B. Baroreceptor reflex
C. Stretch reflex
D. Bainbridge reflex

back 68

B. Baroreceptor reflex

front 69

The baroreceptor reflex in severe post-MI low-output states is triggered by:

A. Diminished arterial pressure
B. Increased venous pressure
C. Elevated right atrial pressure
D. Increased pulse pressure

back 69

A. Diminished arterial pressure

front 70

Within seconds after a major MI with very low cardiac output, the reflex response is to:

A. Suppress sympathetics, increase vagal tone
B. Increase both autonomic limbs
C. Stimulate sympathetics, inhibit parasympathetics
D. Inhibit sympathetics, inhibit parasympathetics

back 70

C. Stimulate sympathetics, inhibit parasympathetics

front 71

In the early compensatory response after MI, sympathetic stimulation mainly helps the surviving myocardium by:

A. Depressing normal muscle activity
B. Stimulating intact myocardium
C. Blocking AV conduction
D. Reducing coronary extraction

back 71

B. Stimulating intact myocardium

front 72

Increased venous tone after MI raises the:

A. Ejection fraction
B. Mean systemic filling pressure
C. Pulmonary diffusion capacity
D. Coronary sinus pressure

back 72

B. Mean systemic filling pressure

front 73

Raising mean systemic filling pressure has what effect on blood flow from the veins back to the heart?

A. Greatly increases it
B. Slightly decreases it
C. Abolishes it
D. Makes it pulsatile only

back 73

A. Greatly increases it

front 74

Immediately after MI, the expected hemodynamic pair is:

A. Decreased RA pressure, increased CO
B. Increased RA pressure, increased CO
C. Increased RA pressure, decreased CO
D. Decreased RA pressure, decreased CO

back 74

C. Increased RA pressure, decreased CO

front 75

In the semichronic stage after MI, the kidneys mainly respond with:

A. Fluid excretion
B. Fluid retention
C. Glucose wasting
D. Protein retention

back 75

B. Fluid retention

front 76

If cardiac output falls extremely low, roughly below 50% to 60% of normal, severe renal hypoperfusion may cause:

A. Polyuria
B. Glycosuria
C. Anuria
D. Hematuria

back 76

C. Anuria

front 77

Renal fluid retention after MI directly causes an increase in:

A. Blood volume and venous return
B. Afterload and heart rate
C. Coronary resistance
D. Pulmonary compliance

back 77

A. Blood volume and venous return

front 78

Moderate renal fluid retention in cardiac failure increases the:

A. Mean systemic filling pressure
B. Ventricular refractory period
C. Pulmonary capillary membrane
D. Atrial conduction time

back 78

A. Mean systemic filling pressure

front 79

Moderate fluid retention also causes the veins to:

A. Contract
B. Distend
C. Calcify
D. Spasm

back 79

B. Distend

front 80

Venous distention from moderate fluid retention tends to ______ venous resistance.

A. increase
B. abolish
C. reduce
D. not change

back 80

C. reduce

front 81

The overall effect of moderate renal fluid retention in heart failure is to ______ venous return.

A. decrease
B. normalize instantly
C. block
D. increase

back 81

D. increase

front 82

Moderate fluid retention in cardiac failure is generally:

A. beneficial
B. lethal
C. irrelevant
D. maladaptive only

back 82

A. beneficial

front 83

In severe cardiac failure, excessive fluid retention is generally:

A. beneficial
B. neutral
C. detrimental
D. anti-edematous

back 83

C. detrimental

front 84

During recovery after myocardial infarction, the undamaged myocardium tends to:

A. atrophy
B. hypertrophy
C. calcify
D. fibrose completely

back 84

B. hypertrophy

front 85

Another adaptive change after MI is formation of new ______ blood supply around the infarct border.

A. portal
B. lymphatic
C. coronary sinus
D. collateral

back 85

D. collateral

front 86

Which sequence best summarizes the three stages after an acute moderate heart attack?

A. Renal retention, hypertrophy, sympathetic loss
B. Immediate damage, sympathetic compensation, chronic recovery/fluid retention
C. Sympathetic compensation, infarction, renal failure
D. Chronic dilation, acute recovery, vagal rebound

back 86

B. Immediate damage, sympathetic compensation, chronic recovery/fluid retention

front 87

In compensated heart failure, maximal pumping ability of the partly recovered heart is:

A. supranormal
B. normal
C. still depressed
D. absent

back 87

C. still depressed

front 88

In compensated heart failure, cardiac output may be normal at rest, but the right atrial pressure is usually:

A. slightly increased
B. markedly negative
C. exactly zero
D. decreased

back 88

A. slightly increased

front 89

The slightly increased right atrial pressure in compensated heart failure helps maintain:

A. coronary perfusion
B. normal cardiac output
C. normal ejection fraction
D. normal arterial oxygen

back 89

B. normal cardiac output

front 90

A patient with compensated heart failure becomes dyspneic with heavy exercise because:

A. RA pressure falls too low
B. the heart cannot increase pumping enough
C. the kidneys immediately fail
D. vagal tone becomes excessive

back 90

B. the heart cannot increase pumping enough

front 91

The major functional reserve reduced in compensated heart failure is the:

A. pulmonary reserve
B. renal reserve
C. cardiac reserve
D. metabolic reserve

back 91

C. cardiac reserve

front 92

Failure of the heart to pump enough blood for the kidneys to excrete the needed fluid is a major cause of:

A. compensated heart failure
B. decompensated heart failure
C. isolated right heart strain
D. primary valvular stenosis

back 92

B. decompensated heart failure

front 93

Decompensated heart failure commonly leads to severe:

A. bradycardia and bradypnea
B. edema and death
C. hypertension and renal collapse
D. erythrocytosis and heart collapse

back 93

B. edema and death

front 94

Which statement best distinguishes compensated from decompensated heart failure?

A. Compensated HF has no renal role
B. Decompensated HF maintains normal fluid balance
C. Compensated HF has normal reserve
D. Decompensated HF cannot sustain renal excretion

back 94

D. Decompensated HF cannot sustain renal excretion

front 95

In the first minute after an acute moderate MI, the dominant compensation is:

A. renal sodium retention
B. sympathetic activation
C. myocardial hypertrophy
D. collateral vessel growth

back 95

B. sympathetic activation

front 96

Which combination best fits beneficial compensation in moderate cardiac failure?

A. Moderate fluid retention, increased venous return
B. Severe edema, reduced renal flow
C. Increased vagal tone, lower contractility
D. Distended veins, higher venous resistance

back 96

A. Moderate fluid retention, increased venous return

front 97

In decompensated heart failure, the fundamental renal problem is failure of the heart to pump enough:

A. oxygen
B. blood
C. lymph
D. plasma

back 97

B. blood

front 98

Because renal perfusion is inadequate in decompensated heart failure, the kidneys fail to:

A. filter glucose
B. excrete enough fluid
C. secrete potassium
D. retain sodium

back 98

B. excrete enough fluid

front 99

In decompensated heart failure, cardiac output remains ______ normal, promoting ongoing renal fluid retention.

A. above
B. equal to
C. below
D. independent of

back 99

C. below

front 100

Continued renal fluid retention in decompensated heart failure most directly causes increased:

A. blood volume and RA pressure
B. GFR and urine output
C. contractility and reserve
D. aortic pressure and EF

back 100

A. blood volume and RA pressure

front 101

Heart failure that progressively worsens because compensation cannot restore adequate output is called:

A. compensated failure
B. isolated right failure
C. acute valvular failure
D. decompensated failure

back 101

D. decompensated failure

front 102

A classic clinical feature of decompensated heart failure is progressive:

A. edema
B. bradycardia
C. cyanosis
D. hypertension

back 102

A. edema

front 103

Lung auscultation in decompensated heart failure commonly reveals bubbling:

A. wheezes
B. rales
C. stridor
D. rubs

back 103

B. rales

front 104

The “air hunger” symptom in decompensated heart failure is:

A. orthopnea
B. pleurisy
C. dyspnea
D. hemoptysis

back 104

C. dyspnea

front 105

A standard treatment combination for decompensated heart failure includes:

A. digoxin and diuretic
B. insulin and nitrate
C. adenosine and steroid
D. atropine and β-blocker

back 105

A. digoxin and diuretic

front 106

In this setting, digitalis is used mainly to:

A. slow renal filtration
B. strengthen cardiac pumping
C. dilate pulmonary veins
D. suppress aldosterone

back 106

B. strengthen cardiac pumping

front 107

Diuretics help decompensated heart failure mainly by:

A. increasing fluid retention
B. reducing edema
C. increasing SVR
D. depressing contractility

back 107

B. reducing edema

front 108

Digitalis increases intracellular calcium primarily by first inhibiting the:

A. calcium ATPase
B. sodium-calcium exchanger
C. sodium-potassium pump
D. funny current channel

back 108

C. sodium-potassium pump

front 109

Inhibition of the sodium-potassium pump by digitalis raises intracellular sodium, which slows the:

A. sodium-calcium exchanger
B. chloride-bicarbonate pump
C. calcium ATPase
D. potassium leak channel

back 109

A. sodium-calcium exchanger

front 110

The final ionic change that strengthens contraction with digitalis is increased intracellular:

A. potassium
B. chloride
C. calcium
D. magnesium

back 110

C. calcium

front 111

Isolated left-sided heart failure causes increased mean ______ filling pressure.

A. systemic
B. pulmonary
C. portal
D. coronary

back 111

B. pulmonary

front 112

Left-sided failure raises pulmonary filling pressure because blood backs up into the:

A. kidneys
B. systemic veins
C. lungs
D. liver

back 112

C. lungs

front 113

Pulmonary edema is likely when pulmonary capillary pressure rises above about:

A. 14 mm Hg
B. 21 mm Hg
C. 28 mm Hg
D. 35 mm Hg

back 113

C. 28 mm Hg

front 114

Average pulmonary capillary pressure is closest to:

A. 7 mm Hg
B. 14 mm Hg
C. 21 mm Hg
D. 28 mm Hg

back 114

A. 7 mm Hg

front 115

Low cardiac output from acute MI causing inadequate tissue perfusion is:

A. septic shock
B. hypovolemic shock
C. cardiogenic shock
D. neurogenic shock

back 115

C. cardiogenic shock

front 116

Cardiogenic shock worsens progressively in part because reduced arterial pressure lowers:

A. cerebral venous return
B. coronary blood supply
C. portal resistance
D. lymphatic drainage

back 116

B. coronary blood supply

front 117

Reduced coronary perfusion during cardiogenic shock causes:

A. stronger contraction
B. further myocardial weakening
C. immediate renal recovery
D. pulmonary vasodilation

back 117

B. further myocardial weakening

front 118

In a healthy heart, cardiac deterioration begins at ______ coronary arterial pressures than in a heart with major coronary blockage.

A. higher
B. equal
C. more variable
D. lower

back 118

D. lower

front 119

In a heart with major coronary vessel blockage, deterioration may begin when coronary pressure falls to about:

A. 20–30 mm Hg
B. 45 mm Hg
C. 80–90 mm Hg
D. 120–130 mm Hg

back 119

C. 80–90 mm Hg

front 120

In cardiogenic shock with ventricular damage, a classic medication used to prevent worsening deterioration is:

A. digoxin
B. lidocaine
C. atropine
D. nitroprusside

back 120

A. digoxin

front 121

Blood transfusion in cardiogenic shock is used mainly to increase:

A. potassium excretion and arterial pressure
B. blood and arterial pressure
C. vagal tone and arterial pressure
D. ventricular compliance and arterial pressure

back 121

B. blood and arterial pressure

front 122

Raising arterial pressure in cardiogenic shock helps by improving:

A. coronary perfusion
B. atrial depolarization
C. pulmonary compliance
D. venous capacitance

back 122

A. coronary perfusion

front 123

If cardiogenic shock is caused by coronary thrombosis, another treatment is:

A. clot removal
B. insulin infusion
C. dialysis
D. adenosine

back 123

A. clot removal

front 124

In acute heart failure, aortic pressure typically ______ while right atrial pressure ______.

A. increases, decreases
B. decreases, increases
C. decreases, decreases
D. increases, increases

back 124

B. decreases, increases

front 125

Acute cardiac failure does not immediately cause:

A. pulmonary edema
B. decreased aortic pressure
C. immediate peripheral edema
D. increased RA pressure

back 125

C. immediate peripheral edema

front 126

Severe acute cardiac failure often causes a ______ in peripheral capillary pressure rather than a rise.

A. plateau
B. surge
C. fall
D. delay

back 126

C. fall

front 127

Because peripheral capillary pressure initially falls in acute heart failure, immediate peripheral edema is:

A. prominent
B. absent
C. unilateral
D. hemorrhagic

back 127

B. absent

front 128

Over the long term, cardiac failure causes ______ peripheral capillary pressure because of renal fluid retention.

A. decreased
B. oscillating
C. increased
D. normalized

back 128

C. increased

front 129

In chronic heart failure, renal fluid retention is the major reason peripheral edema eventually develops. The key organ driving this is the:

A. liver
B. spleen
C. lungs
D. kidneys

back 129

D. kidneys

front 130

Long-term cardiac failure causes a ______ glomerular filtration rate and a ______ urine output.

A. increased, increased
B. decreased, decreased
C. increased, decreased
D. decreased, increased

back 130

B. decreased, decreased

front 131

One mechanism for the reduced GFR in long-term heart failure is:

A. dilation of afferent arterioles
B. increased renal venous oxygen
C. reduced arterial pressure
D. decreased aldosterone

back 131

C. reduced arterial pressure

front 132

Another mechanism contributing to reduced GFR in long-term heart failure is:

A. constriction of afferent arterioles
B. dilation of efferent arterioles only
C. increased renal plasma flow
D. reduced sympathetic tone

back 132

A. constriction of afferent arterioles

front 133

In long-term cardiac failure, reduced renal perfusion commonly causes activation of the:

A. kallikrein-kinin system
B. renin-angiotensin system
C. complement cascade
D. fibrinolytic pathway

back 133

B. renin-angiotensin system

front 134

Activation of the renin-angiotensin system in long-term heart failure promotes increased renal reabsorption of:

A. glucose and phosphate
B. calcium and chloride
C. water and salt
D. urea and potassium

back 134

C. water and salt

front 135

Long-term heart failure often causes increased secretion of:

A. cortisol
B. aldosterone
C. insulin
D. thyroxine

back 135

B. aldosterone

front 136

Increased aldosterone contributes to peripheral edema primarily because sodium retention secondarily increases:

A. bicarbonate loss
B. calcium excretion
C. water retention
D. protein synthesis

back 136

C. water retention

front 137

Long-term cardiac failure is associated with ______ of the sympathetic nervous system.

A. activation
B. suppression
C. denervation
D. exhaustion

back 137

A. activation

front 138

Sympathetic activation can worsen edema by constricting afferent arterioles and thereby:

A. increasing GFR
B. decreasing GFR
C. increasing filtration fraction
D. increasing renal plasma flow

back 138

B. decreasing GFR

front 139

Sympathetic stimulation increases tubular salt and water reabsorption in part by activating:

A. beta-2 receptors
B. muscarinic receptors
C. alpha receptors
D. nicotinic receptors

back 139

C. alpha receptors

front 140

Another way sympathetic activation promotes edema is by stimulating:

A. calcitonin release and beta receptors
B. renin and angiotensin II
C. ANP secretion and alpha receptors
D. NO release and angiotensin II

back 140

B. renin and angiotensin II

front 141

Sympathetic activation also promotes fluid retention by stimulating release of:

A. ADH
B. prolactin
C. glucagon
D. ANP

back 141

A. ADH

front 142

Atrial natriuretic peptide is released when the atrial walls become:

A. calcified
B. constricted
C. stretched
D. ischemic

back 142

C. stretched

front 143

In severe heart failure, blood levels of ANP may rise approximately:

A. 1- to 2-fold
B. 5- to 10-fold
C. 10- to 20-fold
D. 40 to 50-fold

back 143

B. 5- to 10-fold

front 144

ANP levels rise in severe heart failure mainly because the atria are:

A. underfilled
B. ischemic
C. stretched by pressure
D. denervated

back 144

C. stretched by pressure

front 145

ANP acts on the kidneys to greatly ______ excretion of salt and water.

A. decrease
B. increase
C. normalize
D. delay

back 145

B. increase

front 146

ANP serves an important protective role in heart failure by helping prevent:

A. arrhythmias
B. valve calcification
C. congestive symptoms
D. myocardial rupture

back 146

C. congestive symptoms

front 147

Acute progressive pulmonary edema may occur in a patient with longstanding heart failure after an event that further depresses:

A. right atrial function
B. left ventricular function
C. AV nodal conduction
D. renal tubular function

back 147

B. left ventricular function

front 148

In this setting, reduced blood oxygen levels in peripheral tissues trigger:

A. vasoconstriction
B. fibrinolysis
C. vasodilation
D. bradycardia

back 148

C. vasodilation

front 149

Peripheral vasodilation during acute progressive pulmonary edema tends to increase:

A. venous return
B. renal filtration
C. systemic resistance
D. coronary thrombosis

back 149

A. venous return

front 150

Increased venous return in this situation further raises pulmonary capillary pressure and thereby:

A. improves oxygenation
B. reduces edema formation
C. worsens pulmonary edema
D. lowers atrial pressure

back 150

C. worsens pulmonary edema

front 151

This sequence of worsening hypoxemia, vasodilation, venous return, and edema represents a:

A. compensatory reflex
B. protective adaptation
C. closed-loop recovery
D. vicious cycle

back 151

D. vicious cycle

front 152

A patient with longstanding heart failure develops sudden severe pulmonary edema after extreme emotional stress. Which mechanism best explains the rapid progression?

A. Hypoxemia causes vasodilation
B. ANP suppresses salt loss
C. Hyperoxia increases preload
D. ADH falls abruptly

back 152

A. Hypoxemia causes vasodilation

front 153

An emergency bedside maneuver to reduce left-heart workload in acute pulmonary edema is:

A. carotid massage
B. limb tourniquets
C. Trendelenburg position
D. abdominal binder

back 153

B. limb tourniquets

front 154

Rapidly acting diuretics help acute progressive pulmonary edema by causing rapid:

A. sodium infusion
B. arterial vasospasm
C. fluid loss
D. platelet inhibition

back 154

C. fluid loss

front 155

Giving pure oxygen in this setting mainly helps reverse:

A. hyperkalemia
B. oxygen desaturation
C. renal ischemia
D. aldosterone release

back 155

B. oxygen desaturation

front 156

Oxygen therapy also helps reduce further progression by countering peripheral:

A. vasodilation
B. thrombosis
C. fibrosis
D. bradycardia

back 156

A. vasodilation

front 157

A rapidly acting cardiotonic drug such as digitalis is used here primarily to:

A. lower venous tone
B. strengthen the heart
C. inhibit ANP release
D. suppress diuresis

back 157

B. strengthen the heart

front 158

Which of the following is one of the four major acute treatments for progressive pulmonary edema in longstanding heart failure?

A. pure oxygen
B. fluid bolus
C. beta-blocker loading
D. vasopressin infusion

back 158

A. pure oxygen

front 159

Which mechanism does not promote edema in long-term heart failure?

A. increased aldosterone
B. ANP-mediated natriuresis
C. sympathetic activation
D. angiotensin activation

back 159

B. ANP-mediated natriuresis

front 160

In severe heart failure, atrial stretch is most directly caused by blood:

A. moving rapidly into capillaries
B. backing up from ventricles
C. bypassing the lungs
D. pooling in arteries only

back 160

B. backing up from ventricles

front 161

Which treatment list best matches acute progressive pulmonary edema in chronic heart failure?

A. tourniquets, diuretic, oxygen, digitalis
B. insulin, dialysis, oxygen, aspirin
C. nitrates, heparin, atropine, bicarbonate
D. steroids, calcium, fluids, lidocaine

back 161

A. tourniquets, diuretic, oxygen, digitalis

front 162

The dyspnea seen with low cardiac reserve is mainly due to:

A. excess oxygen delivery
B. insufficient tissue perfusion
C. airway obstruction
D. increased hemoglobin

back 162

B. insufficient tissue perfusion

front 163

Muscle fatigue in low cardiac reserve is best explained by:

A. glycogen depletion
B. muscle ischemia
C. electrolyte excess
D. increased lactate clearance

back 163

B. muscle ischemia

front 164

An acute myocardial infarction most immediately causes the cardiac output curve to:

A. shift upward
B. flatten only
C. disappear
D. shift downward

back 164

D. shift downward

front 165

Within approximately how many seconds after MI do sympathetic reflexes become very active?

A. 5 seconds
B. 15 seconds
C. 60 seconds
D. 30 seconds

back 165

D. 30 seconds

front 166

Early sympathetic activation after MI tends to:

A. lower cardiac output and venous return
B. raise cardiac output and venous return
C. suppress both curves
D. affect only arterial pressure

back 166

B. raise cardiac output and venous return

front 167

Over the next days to weeks after MI, cardiac output and venous return curves rise further mainly due to:

A. valve replacement and renal retention
B. reduced preload and renal retention
C. myocardial recovery and renal retention
D. vagal dominance and renal retention

back 167

C. myocardial recovery and renal retention

front 168

Renal retention of salt and water after MI increases the:

A. ejection fraction
B. mean systemic filling pressure
C. coronary resistance
D. pulmonary compliance

back 168

B. mean systemic filling pressure

front 169

In decompensated heart failure, the ______ curve fails to reach the critical level.

A. venous return
B. pulmonary pressure
C. cardiac output
D. arterial oxygen

back 169

C. cardiac output

front 170

Because the cardiac output curve never reaches the critical level in decompensation, the kidneys continue to:

A. excrete excess fluid
B. retain fluid
C. normalize GFR
D. increase filtration

back 170

B. retain fluid

front 171

Continued renal retention in decompensated heart failure progressively increases the:

A. stroke volume
B. arterial compliance
C. heart rate
D. venous return curve

back 171

C. heart rate

front 172

Treatment of decompensated heart failure with digitalis primarily causes the ______ curve to rise.

A. venous return
B. cardiac output
C. pulmonary resistance
D. renal filtration

back 172

B. cardiac output

front 173

When digitalis raises cardiac output to the critical level, the kidneys respond by:

A. retaining more sodium
B. decreasing filtration
C. eliminating more fluid
D. increasing aldosterone

back 173

C. eliminating more fluid

front 174

An arteriovenous fistula can lead to which type of heart failure?

A. low-output
B. right-sided only
C. diastolic only
D. high-output

back 174

D. high-output

front 175

The mechanism of heart failure in an arteriovenous fistula is:

A. reduced contractility
B. excessive venous return
C. coronary occlusion
D. valve stenosis

back 175

B. excessive venous return

front 176

In arteriovenous fistula–induced heart failure, the intrinsic pumping ability of the heart is:

A. depressed
B. absent
C. normal
D. hypercontractile

back 176

C. normal

front 177

Beriberi heart disease is another cause of:

A. low-output failure
B. obstructive shock
C. restrictive cardiomyopathy
D. high-output failure

back 177

D. high-output failure

front 178

In beriberi, weakening of the heart leads to decreased blood flow to the:

A. lungs
B. brain
C. kidneys
D. liver

back 178

C. kidneys

front 179

Reduced renal perfusion in beriberi causes the kidneys to:

A. excrete excess fluid
B. retain fluid
C. reduce sodium reabsorption
D. increase GFR

back 179

B. retain fluid

front 180

Fluid retention in beriberi contributes to an increase in:

A. venous return
B. pulmonary diffusion
C. arterial elasticity
D. cardiac reserve

back 180

A. venous return