Print Options

Card layout: ?

← Back to notecard set|Easy Notecards home page

Instructions for Side by Side Printing
  1. Print the notecards
  2. Fold each page in half along the solid vertical line
  3. Cut out the notecards by cutting along each horizontal dotted line
  4. Optional: Glue, tape or staple the ends of each notecard together
  1. Verify Front of pages is selected for Viewing and print the front of the notecards
  2. Select Back of pages for Viewing and print the back of the notecards
    NOTE: Since the back of the pages are printed in reverse order (last page is printed first), keep the pages in the same order as they were after Step 1. Also, be sure to feed the pages in the same direction as you did in Step 1.
  3. Cut out the notecards by cutting along each horizontal and vertical dotted line
To print: Ctrl+PPrint as a list

70 notecards = 18 pages (4 cards per page)

Viewing:

Biochem 43

front 1

A bleeding patient has impaired platelet attachment to exposed subendothelium despite a normal platelet count. Which protein is most directly deficient?

A. von Willebrand factor
B. Protein C cofactor
C. Antithrombin III
D. Tissue plasminogen activator

back 1

A. von Willebrand factor

front 2

A deep vascular laceration exposes tissue factor to circulating blood. Which pair is ultimately generated downstream?

A. Plasmin and protein C
B. Fibrinogen and prekallikrein
C. Albumin and ceruloplasmin
D. Thrombin and factor XIII

back 2

D. Thrombin and factor XIII

front 3

Which pair of coagulation proteins primarily serves as binding proteins?

A. II and X
B. V and VIII
C. VII and IX
D. XI and XII

back 3

B. V and VIII

front 4

A patient with severe chronic liver failure has reduced synthesis of the most important serum protein. Which protein is it?

A. Haptoglobin
B. Transferrin
C. Albumin
D. Ceruloplasmin

back 4

C. Albumin

front 5

A monoclonal spike on serum electrophoresis reflects proliferation of which immunoglobulin-secreting cell?

A. Plasma cell
B. Kupffer cell
C. Mast cell
D. Megakaryocyte

back 5

A. Plasma cell

front 6

Failure of which plasma system most directly impairs clearance of circulating antigen-antibody complexes?

A. Kallikrein system
B. Complement system
C. Fibrinolytic system
D. Contact pathway

back 6

B. Complement system

front 7

Which combination can activate complement in the way described here?

A. Heparin and platelet factor 4
B. Thrombin and fibrin monomers
C. Collagen and dense granules
D. Immune complexes and bacterial polysaccharides

back 7

D. Immune complexes and bacterial polysaccharides

front 8

The major serine protease inhibitor of human plasma is:

A. C1 esterase inhibitor
B. Alpha-2 macroglobulin
C. α1-antitrypsin
D. Tissue factor inhibitor

back 8

C. α1-antitrypsin

front 9

Which amino acid residue is necessary for α1-antitrypsin binding to proteases?

A. Methionine 358
B. Glycine 202
C. Lysine 72
D. Tyrosine 110

back 9

A. Methionine 358

front 10

Markedly decreased hepatic secretion of α1-antitrypsin is most likely due to:

A. Promoter methylation
B. Intron 1 deletion
C. Frameshift in exon 2
D. Point mutation in exon 5

back 10

D. Point mutation in exon 5

front 11

A patient develops antibodies against platelet glycoproteins with no discernible cause. Which diagnosis best fits?

A. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
B. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
C. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation

back 11

B. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

front 12

Which substance is characteristically stored in platelet electron-dense granules?

A. Platelet-derived growth factor
B. von Willebrand factor
C. Serotonin
D. Hydrolytic enzymes

back 12

C. Serotonin

front 13

Which molecule is a classic constituent of platelet α-granules?

A. Fibrinogen
B. ATP
C. Calcium
D. Serotonin

back 13

A. Fibrinogen

front 14

Platelet lysosomal granules characteristically contain:

A. ADP and ATP
B. Fibrinogen and vWF
C. Calcium and serotonin
D. Hydrolytic enzymes

back 14

D. Hydrolytic enzymes

front 15

Which set lists the three fundamental platelet mechanisms in coagulation?

A. Activation, inhibition, lysis
B. Adhesion, aggregation, secretion
C. Binding, cleavage, diffusion
D. Vasoconstriction, repair, lysis

back 15

B. Adhesion, aggregation, secretion

front 16

A patient lacking von Willebrand factor would rapidly clear which coagulation factor from plasma?

A. Factor V
B. Factor VII
C. Factor VIII
D. Factor XIII

back 16

C. Factor VIII

front 17

Binding of collagen to platelet glycoprotein GPIa most directly causes which change?

A. Disk-to-sphere transformation
B. Immediate plasmin formation
C. Complement complex assembly
D. vWF proteolytic cleavage

back 17

A. Disk-to-sphere transformation

front 18

Binding of subendothelial vWF to platelet GPIb most directly exposes binding sites for:

A. Collagen and thrombin
B. ADP and serotonin
C. Albumin and transferrin
D. Fibrinogen and vWF

back 18

D. Fibrinogen and vWF

front 19

An inherited mutation in platelet GPIb causes which disorder?

A. Glanzmann thrombasthenia
B. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
C. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura
D. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

back 19

B. Bernard-Soulier syndrome

front 20

Familial TTP is most closely associated with mutation of which enzyme?

A. Platelet cyclooxygenase
B. Factor VIII cofactor
C. vWF-specific metalloprotease
D. Platelet fibrinogen receptor

back 20

C. vWF-specific metalloprotease

front 21

ADP released from activated platelets most directly promotes further exposure of:

A. GPIIb/IIIa binding sites
B. Tissue factor molecules
C. Factor XIII cross-links
D. Lysosomal hydrolases

back 21

A. GPIIb/IIIa binding sites

front 22

The α and β peptides of fibrinogen are held together primarily by:

A. Ionic interactions
B. Hydrogen bonds
C. Ester linkages
D. Disulfide bonds

back 22

D. Disulfide bonds

front 23

A patient has an isolated defect in a coagulation enzyme class shared by factors VII, IX, X, XI, and prothrombin. Which class is affected?

A. Serine proteases
B. Calcium-binding cofactors
C. Fibrin cross-linkers
D. Platelet glycoproteins

back 23

A. Serine proteases

front 24

Which pair functions primarily as cofactor binding proteins within the coagulation cascade?

A. II and X
B. VII and IX
C. XI and XIII
D. V and VIII

back 24

D. V and VIII

front 25

In response to collagen and thrombin, activated platelets release which prominent vasoconstrictor pair?

A. ADP and fibrinogen
B. Serotonin and thromboxane A2
C. vWF and PDGF
D. ATP and calcium

back 25

B. Serotonin and thromboxane A2

front 26

A patient forms unstable clots that fail to become covalently cross-linked. Which factor normally acts as a Ca2+-dependent transglutaminase?

A. Factor V
B. Factor VIII
C. Factor XIII
D. Factor XI

back 26

C. Factor XIII

front 27

Which sequence best describes the key steps of the extrinsic pathway?

A. VII binds tissue factor, activates X
B. X binds collagen, activates IX
C. XI activates IX, then VIII
D. XII binds platelets, activates X

back 27

A. VII binds tissue factor, activates X

front 28

During fibrin stabilization, factor XIIIa catalyzes which reaction between fibrin monomers?

A. Hydrolysis of lysine-serine bonds
B. Oxidation of methionine residues
C. Transamidation of glutamine and lysine
D. Carboxylation of aspartate residues

back 28

C. Transamidation of glutamine and lysine

front 29

Which activated coagulation factor is the only enzyme in the cascade that is not a serine protease?

A. Factor XIIIa
B. Factor Xa
C. Factor VIIa
D. Thrombin

back 29

A. Factor XIIIa

front 30

A patient on a vitamin K antagonist will produce reduced amounts of which gamma-carboxylated factor set?

A. V, VIII, XI, XIII
B. I, V, VIII, XII
C. II, VII, IX, X
D. VIII, IX, XI, XII

back 30

C. II, VII, IX, X

front 31

Gamma-carboxyglutamate residues allow certain factors to form coordination complexes with Ca2+. Which pair is specifically listed?

A. Factor VII and IX
B. Factor X and prothrombin
C. Factor V and VIII
D. Factor XI and XIII

back 31

B. Factor X and prothrombin

front 32

Warfarin most directly impairs gamma-carboxylation of which anticoagulant pair in addition to clotting factors?

A. Protein C and protein S
B. Antithrombin and heparin cofactor
C. Plasminogen and fibrinogen
D. Thrombomodulin and tissue factor

back 32

A. Protein C and protein S

front 33

A mutation disrupts assembly of the prothrombinase complex by altering a cofactor that binds Xa and prothrombin. Which factor is affected?

A. Factor VIIIa
B. Factor XIIIa
C. Factor Va
D. Factor VIIa

back 33

C. Factor Va

front 34

Vitamin K is functionally active in which chemical form?

A. Quinone form
B. Hydroquinone form
C. Epoxide form
D. Aldehyde form

back 34

B. Hydroquinone form

front 35

The enzyme targeted by warfarin is best identified as:

A. Vitamin K epoxide reductase
B. Gamma-glutamyl carboxylase
C. Tissue factor protease
D. Thrombomodulin reductase

back 35

A. Vitamin K epoxide reductase

front 36

Which group is activated by thrombin in its prothrombotic regulatory role?

A. II, VII, X
B. VIII, IX, XIII
C. V, VIII, XI
D. Protein C, protein S, XII

back 36

C. V, VIII, XI

front 37

Which action directly promotes clot formation by thrombin?

A. Activating plasmin from plasminogen
B. Cleaving factor XIII to XIIIa
C. Inhibiting release of factor VIII
D. Destroying factors Va and VIIIa

back 37

B. Cleaving factor XIII to XIIIa

front 38

Thrombin produces antithrombotic effects after binding to:

A. von Willebrand factor
B. Antithrombin III
C. Heparan sulfate
D. Thrombomodulin

back 38

D. Thrombomodulin

front 39

Binding of thrombin to thrombomodulin leads to activation of which anticoagulant?

A. Protein S
B. Protein C
C. Factor V
D. Plasmin

back 39

B. Protein C

front 40

A neonate with a homozygous defect dies early from severe thrombotic disease. Deficiency of which pair is most consistent with this presentation?

A. Factors V and VIII
B. Factors IX and X
C. Protein C and protein S
D. Antithrombin and fibrinogen

back 40

C. Protein C and protein S

front 41

The activated protein C complex exerts anticoagulant effects by destroying which factors?

A. Va and VIIIa
B. VIIa and IXa
C. XIa and XIIIa
D. IIa and Xa

back 41

A. Va and VIIIa

front 42

A patient with inherited thrombophilia has factor V Leiden. Which amino acid substitution is classically present?

A. Glycine to serine
B. Lysine to methionine
C. Tyrosine to cysteine
D. Arginine to glutamine

back 42

D. Arginine to glutamine

front 43

A young adult with inherited thrombophilia develops a postoperative leg clot. Which condition is most strongly associated with Factor V Leiden?

A. Deep venous thrombosis
B. Hemophilia A bleeding
C. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
D. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

back 43

A. Deep venous thrombosis

front 44

Activity of thrombin is primarily restrained by which serpin?

A. Protein C
B. Antithrombin III
C. Alpha-2 antiplasmin
D. Tissue factor pathway inhibitor

back 44

B. Antithrombin III

front 45

Formation of the antithrombin III-thrombin complex involves which residue pair?

A. Serine on thrombin
B. Glutamine on thrombin
C. Lysine on thrombin
D. Tyrosine on thrombin

back 45

A. Serine on thrombin

front 46

Formation of the antithrombin III-thrombin complex involves which residue pair? (second pair)

A. Lysine on antithrombin
B. Arginine on antithrombin
C. Histidine on antithrombin
D. Cysteine on antithrombin

back 46

B. Arginine on antithrombin

front 47

Heparin accelerates antithrombin III activity by binding primarily to which residue on antithrombin III?

A. Lysine
B. Arginine
C. Serine
D. Glutamate

back 47

A. Lysine

front 48

The antithrombin III-heparin complex can directly inactivate which factor?

A. Factor VIIa
B. Activated protein C
C. Factor VIIIa
D. Factor Xa

back 48

D. Factor Xa

front 49

Which coagulation-related protein is not inactivated by the antithrombin III-heparin complex?

A. Factor IXa
B. Factor XIa
C. Factor VIIa
D. Factor Xa

back 49

C. Factor VIIa

front 50

Healthy endothelial cells reduce platelet aggregation by synthesizing which pair?

A. TXA2 and serotonin
B. PGI2 and nitric oxide
C. ADP and thrombin
D. Fibrinogen and vWF

back 50

B. PGI2 and nitric oxide

front 51

Which enzyme directly cleaves fibrin during fibrinolysis?

A. Plasmin
B. Thrombin
C. Kallikrein
D. Factor XIIIa

back 51

A. Plasmin

front 52

In addition to suppressing coagulation, activated protein C promotes fibrinolysis by stimulating release of:

A. Thrombomodulin
B. von Willebrand factor
C. Tissue plasminogen activator
D. Platelet factor 4

back 52

C. Tissue plasminogen activator

front 53

Circulating plasmin is rapidly neutralized by which inhibitor?

A. Alpha-1 antitrypsin
B. Alpha-2 antiplasmin
C. Antithrombin III
D. Protein S

back 53

B. Alpha-2 antiplasmin

front 54

A boy with hemarthroses has classic hemophilia A. Which factor is deficient?

A. Factor IX
B. Factor VIII
C. Factor XI
D. Factor XIII

back 54

B. Factor VIII

front 55

A patient with hemophilia B most likely has a mutation in which factor?

A. Factor V
B. Factor VIII
C. Factor IX
D. Factor X

back 55

C. Factor IX

front 56

A point mutation R98W in VKORC1 is associated with which disorder?

A. Hemophilia B
B. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
C. Glanzmann thrombasthenia
D. VKCFD2

back 56

D. VKCFD2

front 57

Clopidogrel and ticagrelor inhibit platelet aggregation by blocking which receptor?

A. GPIIb/IIIa receptor
B. PAR-1 receptor
C. P2Y12 receptor
D. GPIb receptor

back 57

C. P2Y12 receptor

front 58

A patient with severe hypoalbuminemia develops dependent edema despite normal cardiac function. Which plasma protein role is most directly impaired?

A. Maintaining plasma oncotic pressure
B. Cross-linking fibrin polymers
C. Activating platelet P2Y12 receptors
D. Cleaving fibrin during lysis

back 58

A. Maintaining plasma oncotic pressure

front 59

A patient with thrombocytopenia continues to ooze from a small vascular injury. Which normal platelet function is most immediately lost?

A. Mechanical plug formation
B. Fibrin monomer degradation
C. Vitamin K regeneration
D. Gamma-carboxylation of factors

back 59

A. Mechanical plug formation

front 60

Platelets become activated after binding to a site of vascular injury. What is the most important immediate consequence?

A. Reduced local vasoconstriction
B. Increased platelet aggregation
C. Decreased fibrinogen binding
D. Inhibition of thrombin formation

back 60

B. Increased platelet aggregation

front 61

At the site of endothelial injury, circulating fibrinogen most directly binds to:

A. Resting erythrocyte membranes
B. Activated platelets
C. Soluble albumin complexes
D. Endothelial thrombomodulin

back 61

B. Activated platelets

front 62

Normal hemostasis requires tight regulation of clotting primarily to prevent:

A. Polycythemia and leukopenia
B. Thrombosis and bleeding
C. Hypertension and bradycardia
D. Acidosis and hypoxemia

back 62

B. Thrombosis and bleeding

front 63

The clotting cascade is best described as a sequence of events leading to activation of:

A. Plasmin
B. Fibrinogen
C. Thrombin
D. Albumin

back 63

C. Thrombin

front 64

A patient has impaired conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin during clot formation. Which enzyme is most directly deficient?

A. Thrombin
B. Plasmin
C. Protein C
D. Antithrombin III

back 64

A. Thrombin

front 65

A newly formed soft clot fails to become a stable hard clot. Which thrombin-dependent process is most likely defective?

A. Platelet serotonin release
B. Fibrin cross-linking
C. Protein S degradation
D. Plasminogen activation

back 65

B. Fibrin cross-linking

front 66

Proteins C and S act together to regulate coagulation after being activated by:

A. Fibrinogen
B. Heparin
C. Thrombin
D. Plasmin

back 66

C. Thrombin

front 67

To assemble clotting complexes on activated platelets, certain factors require gamma-carboxyglutamate residues primarily to bind:

A. Sodium and fibrin
B. Calcium and membranes
C. Albumin and collagen
D. Plasmin and heparin

back 67

B. Calcium and membranes

front 68

Antithrombin III is best classified as which type of regulatory molecule?

A. Serine protease inhibitor
B. Platelet adhesion receptor
C. Vitamin K reductase
D. Fibrin cross-linking enzyme

back 68

A. Serine protease inhibitor

front 69

Which protease is uniquely capable of dissolving an established fibrin clot?

A. Thrombin
B. Factor Xa
C. Plasmin
D. Factor XIIIa

back 69

C. Plasmin

front 70

A boy with recurrent hemarthroses is missing an essential factor for thrombin activation. Which diagnosis best fits?

A. Hemophilia A
B. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
C. Factor V Leiden
D. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura

back 70

A. Hemophilia A