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Phys 65

front 1

On the epithelial surface of most of the gastrointestinal tract, the billions of single-cell mucous glands are called:

A. Chief cells
B. Paneth cells
C. Goblet cells
D. Parietal cells

back 1

C. Goblet cells

front 2

In the small intestine, epithelial pits formed by invagination are known as:

A. Gastric rugae
B. Crypts of Lieberkühn
C. Peyer patches
D. Plicae circulares

back 2

B. Crypts of Lieberkühn

front 3

Large numbers of deep tubular glands are especially found in the:

A. Esophagus and ileum
B. Colon and rectum
C. Jejunum and ileum
D. Stomach and upper duodenum

back 3

D. Stomach and upper duodenum

front 4

The presence of food in one GI segment usually causes glands of that region and nearby regions to secrete:

A. Minimal acidic fluid
B. Moderate to large juices
C. Only alkaline mucus
D. Highly concentrated enzymes

back 4

B. Moderate to large juices

front 5

Which local stimulus can activate the enteric nervous system to promote glandular secretion?

A. Tactile stimulation
B. Hypoxemia
C. Systemic fever
D. Portal congestion

back 5

A. Tactile stimulation

front 6

Which local factor is specifically listed as a trigger of enteric reflex secretion?

A. Hypoglycemia
B. Gut wall distention
C. Hypercapnia
D. Venous stasis

back 6

B. Gut wall distention

front 7

Which of the following is another listed epithelial stimulus for local glandular activation?

A. Chemical irritation
B. Protein malnutrition
C. Dehydration
D. Bile obstruction

back 7

A. Chemical irritation

front 8

The nutrient material used to form glandular secretions first enters which part of the secretory cell?

A. Apical membrane
B. Nuclear envelope
C. Cell base
D. Tight junction

back 8

C. Cell base

front 9

Nutrient material for secretion reaches glandular cells directly from blood in the:

A. Lacteals
B. Capillaries
C. Venules
D. Lymph nodes

back 9

B. Capillaries

front 10

Many mitochondria are concentrated near the base of glandular cells primarily to generate:

A. NADPH
B. cAMP
C. GTP
D. ATP

back 10

D. ATP

front 11

The organic secretory substances are synthesized primarily in the:

A. Lysosome
B. Peroxisome
C. Endoplasmic reticulum
D. Plasma membrane

back 11

C. Endoplasmic reticulum

front 12

ATP and nutrient-derived substrates are used for synthesis in the endoplasmic reticulum and:

A. Golgi complex
B. Nucleolus
C. Centrosome
D. Mitochondrial matrix

back 12

A. Golgi complex

front 13

In the Golgi complex, secretory materials are modified, concentrated, and packaged into:

A. Ribosomal subunits
B. Secretory vesicles
C. Secondary lysosomes
D. Endocytic vacuoles

back 13

B. Secretory vesicles

front 14

Before release, secretory vesicles are stored in which region of the cell?

A. Basal cytoplasm
B. Around nucleus
C. Lateral borders
D. Apical end

back 14

D. Apical end

front 15

Nervous or hormonal signals cause glandular cells to release stored vesicle contents by:

A. Pinocytosis
B. Transcytosis
C. Exocytosis
D. Osmosis

back 15

C. Exocytosis

front 16

Mucus is composed mainly of water, electrolytes, and:

A. Bile pigments
B. Glycoproteins
C. Phospholipids
D. Steroid hormones

back 16

B. Glycoproteins

front 17

The ability of mucus to coat surfaces effectively depends in part on its tendency to adhere:

A. Loosely to epithelium
B. Tightly to particles
C. Only to bacteria
D. Only to lipids

back 17

B. Tightly to particles

front 18

Which physical property of mucus most directly allows luminal particles to slide easily along epithelium?

A. High surface tension
B. Low slippage resistance
C. High osmotic pressure
D. Low bicarbonate content

back 18

B. Low slippage resistance

front 19

In the colon, mucus most directly helps bowel movements by causing fecal particles to:

A. Dissolve into chyme
B. Repel one another
C. Adhere to one another
D. Undergo fermentation

back 19

C. Adhere to one another

front 20

A patient with impaired mucus quality develops increased luminal enzyme injury. Which normal mucus property is most protective here?

A. Strong enzyme resistance
B. High protein absorption
C. Acid generation
D. Rapid emulsification

back 20

A. Strong enzyme resistance

front 21

Mucus commonly contains which ion that helps neutralize acids?

A. Chloride
B. Potassium
C. Bicarbonate
D. Phosphate

back 21

C. Bicarbonate

front 22

Which set correctly lists the four principal salivary glands named in this material?

A. Parotid, buccal, pyloric, Brunner
B. Sublingual, gastric, buccal, cecal
C. Parotid, submandibular, sublingual, buccal
D. Parotid, hepatic, buccal, pancreatic

back 22

C. Parotid, submandibular, sublingual, buccal

front 23

Saliva contains a serous secretion with which starch-digesting enzyme?

A. Pepsin
B. Ptyalin
C. Trypsin
D. Maltase

back 23

B. Ptyalin

front 24

Ptyalin is best classified as a:

A. Lipase
B. Protease
C. α-amylase
D. Nuclease

back 24

C. α-amylase

front 25

The mucus component of saliva contains which substance primarily responsible for lubrication and protection?

A. Elastin
B. Mucin
C. Actin
D. Keratin

back 25

B. Mucin

front 26

Which salivary gland secretes almost entirely a serous product?

A. Sublingual
B. Buccal
C. Submandibular
D. Parotid

back 26

D. Parotid

remember serous is enzyme-rich, watery. mucus is protein-rich, thick

front 27

Which glands secrete both serous secretion and mucus?

A. Parotid and buccal
B. Submandibular and sublingual
C. Parotid and sublingual
D. Buccal and parotid

back 27

B. Submandibular and sublingual

front 28

A biopsy from a GI secretory cell shows intense protein synthesis followed by packaging and concentration of product before release. Which organelle pair is most responsible?

A. Nucleus and lysosome
B. ER and Golgi
C. Mitochondria and peroxisome
D. Cytosol and centrosome

back 28

B. ER and Golgi

front 29

A local meal-induced reflex increases secretion in a GI segment and nearby regions. This response is most directly attributed to activation of the:

A. Sympathetic chain
B. Enteric nervous system
C. Vagus nerve
D. Adrenal medulla

back 29

B. Enteric nervous system

front 30

A protective surface secretion forms a thin film over food and mucosa while resisting enzymatic digestion. Which secretion is being described?

A. Bile
B. Saliva
C. Mucus
D. Pancreatic juice

back 30

C. Mucus

front 31

Which salivary glands secrete only mucus?

A. Parotid glands
B. Buccal glands
C. Submandibular glands
D. Sublingual glands

back 31

B. Buccal glands

front 32

The salivary secretion process is best described as a two-stage operation involving:

A. Acini, then salivary ducts
B. Ducts, then acini
C. Acini, then crypts
D. Ducts, then alveoli

back 32

A. Acini, then salivary ducts

front 33

Salivary flow helps protect the oral cavity primarily by washing away pathogenic:

A. Fungi
B. Protozoa
C. Viruses
D. Bacteria

back 33

D. Bacteria

front 34

Besides microorganisms, saliva also helps remove which material that supports bacterial metabolism?

A. Bile salts
B. Food particles
C. Desquamated enamel
D. Pancreatic enzymes

back 34

B. Food particles

front 35

Saliva often contains significant amounts of which protective factor that can destroy oral bacteria?

A. Histamine
B. Pepsin
C. Antibodies
D. Gastrin

back 35

C. Antibodies

front 36

In the absence of salivation, oral tissues most commonly become:

A. Hyperkeratotic and painless
B. Ulcerated and infected
C. Calcified and pale
D. Hemorrhagic and fibrotic

back 36

B. Ulcerated and infected

front 37

Salivary glands are controlled mainly by which division of the autonomic nervous system?

A. Sympathetic
B. Parasympathetic
C. Enteric
D. Somatic

back 37

B. Parasympathetic

front 38

The main central origins of salivary parasympathetic output are the superior and inferior salivatory nuclei in the:

A. Midbrain
B. Cerebral cortex
C. Brain stem
D. Hypothalamus

back 38

C. Brain stem

front 39

The salivatory nuclei are located near the junction of the:

A. Midbrain and thalamus
B. Medulla and pons
C. Pons and midbrain
D. Medulla and spinal cord

back 39

B. Medulla and pons

front 40

Which stimulus can excite the salivatory nuclei?

A. Taste from tongue
B. Retinal light input
C. Auditory input
D. Muscle stretch reflexes

back 40

A. Taste from tongue

front 41

Which additional stimulus can excite the salivatory nuclei?

A. Tactile oral stimulation
B. Elevated serum calcium
C. Cold skin exposure
D. Visual food cues only

back 41

A. Tactile oral stimulation

front 42

Tactile stimuli reaching the salivatory nuclei arise from the tongue and other areas of the mouth and:

A. Esophagus
B. Larynx
C. Pharynx
D. Trachea

back 42

C. Pharynx

front 43

Salivation directly causes what vascular response in salivary glands?

A. Venous constriction
B. Arteriolar dilation
C. Capillary collapse
D. Lymphatic spasm

back 43

B. Arteriolar dilation

front 44

The vascular effect of salivation primarily serves to increase gland:

A. Fibrosis
B. Innervation
C. Nutrition
D. Drainage

back 44

C. Nutrition

front 45

The stomach mucosa contains two important types of tubular glands called:

A. Brunner and Lieberkühn
B. Oxyntic and pyloric
C. Parotid and pyloric
D. Mucous and acinar

back 45

B. Oxyntic and pyloric

front 46

Oxyntic glands are also known as:

A. Salivary glands
B. Gastric glands
C. Brunner glands
D. Duodenal glands

back 46

B. Gastric glands

front 47

Which secretion is produced by oxyntic glands?

A. Bile
B. Trypsin
C. Hydrochloric acid
D. Secretin

back 47

C. Hydrochloric acid

front 48

Oxyntic glands also secrete which zymogen?

A. Pepsin
B. Pepsinogen
C. Trypsinogen
D. Proelastase

back 48

B. Pepsinogen

front 49

Which additional product is secreted by oxyntic glands?

A. Intrinsic factor
B. Cholecystokinin
C. Bicarbonate only
D. Enteropeptidase

back 49

A. Intrinsic factor

front 50

Oxyntic glands also secrete:

A. Mucus
B. Bile salts
C. Lipase
D. Gastrin

back 50

A. Mucus

front 51

Pyloric glands secrete mainly which substance?

A. Acid
B. Mucus
C. Pepsinogen
D. Histamine

back 51

B. Mucus

front 52

The hormone secreted by pyloric glands is:

A. Secretin
B. Somatostatin
C. Gastrin
D. Histamine

back 52

C. Gastrin

front 53

The mucus from pyloric glands mainly protects the pyloric mucosa from:

A. Bile reflux
B. Stomach acid
C. Pancreatic enzymes
D. Bacterial toxins

back 53

B. Stomach acid

front 54

Oxyntic glands are located primarily in the:

A. Cardia and pylorus
B. Body and fundus
C. Antrum and pylorus
D. Jejunum and ileum

back 54

B. Body and fundus

front 55

Pyloric glands are located mainly in the:

A. Fundus
B. Body
C. Antral region
D. Cardia

back 55

C. Antral region

front 56

Which cell type in oxyntic glands secretes mainly mucus?

A. Parietal cells
B. Mucous neck cells
C. Chief cells
D. ECL cells

back 56

B. Mucous neck cells

front 57

Peptic cells are also called:

A. Enterochromaffin cells
B. Chief cells
C. Mucous cells
D. Oxyntic cells

back 57

B. Chief cells

front 58

Peptic cells secrete large quantities of:

A. Pepsin
B. Pepsinogen
C. Gastrin
D. Histamine

back 58

B. Pepsinogen

front 59

Parietal cells are also called:

A. Chief cells
B. Mucous cells
C. Oxyntic cells
D. Enteric cells

back 59

C. Oxyntic cells

front 60

Parietal cells secrete hydrochloric acid and:

A. Gastrin
B. Histamine
C. Mucin
D. Intrinsic factor

back 60

B. Histamine

front 61

The main driving force for hydrochloric acid secretion by parietal cells is the:

A. Sodium-calcium exchanger
B. Hydrogen-potassium pump
C. Chloride-bicarbonate exchanger
D. Sodium-potassium pump

back 61

B. Hydrogen-potassium pump

front 62

A major component of the gastric barrier that limits acid backleak is:

A. Acidic mucus
B. Alkaline mucus
C. Histamine film
D. Pepsin layer

back 62

B. Alkaline mucus

front 63

Another key component preventing gastric acid backleak is:

A. Gap junctions
B. Desmosomes
C. Tight junctions
D. Hemidesmosomes

back 63

C. Tight junctions

front 64

Parasympathetic acetylcholine stimulates peptic cells to secrete:

A. Histamine
B. Pepsinogen
C. Gastrin
D. Bicarbonate

back 64

B. Pepsinogen

front 65

Parasympathetic acetylcholine stimulates parietal cells to secrete:

A. Hydrochloric acid
B. Pepsinogen
C. Gastrin
D. Mucin

back 65

A. Hydrochloric acid

front 66

Parasympathetic acetylcholine stimulates mucous cells to secrete:

A. Histamine
B. Intrinsic factor
C. Mucus
D. Gastrin

back 66

C. Mucus

front 67

Which two mediators strongly stimulate parietal cell acid secretion?

A. Gastrin and histamine
B. Secretin and CCK
C. Acetylcholine and somatostatin
D. Pepsin and gastrin

back 67

A. Gastrin and histamine

front 68

Pepsinogen is converted to active pepsin after contact with:

A. Gastrin
B. Histamine
C. Hydrochloric acid
D. Intrinsic factor

back 68

C. Hydrochloric acid

front 69

Parietal cells closely associate with which neighboring cell type?

A. Goblet cells
B. Enterochromaffin-like cells
C. Paneth cells
D. Chief cells

back 69

B. ECL cells

front 70

The primary function of Enterochromaffin-like cells is secretion of:

A. Gastrin
B. Pepsinogen
C. Histamine
D. Somatostatin

back 70

C. Histamine

front 71

A patient has impaired pepsinogen release from peptic cells despite normal gastric acidity. Loss of which signal would most directly explain this finding?

A. Secretin
B. Acetylcholine
C. Histamine
D. Gastrin

back 71

B. Acetylcholine

front 72

Pepsinogen secretion by peptic cells is stimulated by acetylcholine and by:

A. Acid in stomach
B. Fat in duodenum
C. Alkaline mucus
D. Bile in jejunum

back 72

A. Acid in stomach

front 73

Which sequence correctly lists the phases of gastric secretion?

A. Gastric, cephalic, intestinal
B. Cephalic, gastric, intestinal
C. Intestinal, cephalic, gastric
D. Cephalic, intestinal, gastric

back 73

B. Cephalic, gastric, intestinal

front 74

A diner begins salivating and secreting gastric juice while chewing, before any swallowed food arrives. This is the:

A. Intestinal phase
B. Gastric phase
C. Cephalic phase
D. Interdigestive phase

back 74

C. Cephalic phase

front 75

The cephalic phase occurs before food enters the:

A. Duodenum
B. Stomach
C. Jejunum
D. Colon

back 75

B. Stomach

front 76

A physiology lab infuses a meal directly into the stomach. Which phase of gastric secretion is now dominant?

A. Intestinal
B. Cephalic
C. Basal
D. Gastric

back 76

D. Gastric

front 77

The gastric phase is initiated when what enters the stomach?

A. Bile
B. Acid
C. Food
D. Enzymes

back 77

C. Food

front 78

Food entering the upper small intestine, especially the duodenum, triggers which phase of gastric secretion?

A. Gastric
B. Cephalic
C. Intestinal
D. Fasting

back 78

C. Intestinal

front 79

The intestinal phase is associated especially with food in the:

A. Ileum
B. Duodenum
C. Cecum
D. Esophagus

back 79

B. Duodenum

front 80

Trypsin and chymotrypsin digest proteins mainly into:

A. Monosaccharides
B. Free fatty acids
C. Individual amino acids
D. Peptides

back 80

D. Peptides

front 81

Which statement best describes the action of trypsin and chymotrypsin?

A. Release all free amino acids
B. Form peptides of varying sizes
C. Hydrolyze only dipeptides
D. Split triglycerides completely

back 81

B. Form peptides of varying sizes

front 82

Which enzyme can split some peptides into individual amino acids?

A. Elastase
B. Enterokinase
C. Carboxypolypeptidase
D. Pepsin

back 82

C. Carboxypolypeptidase

front 83

A patient lacks the enzyme that activates trypsinogen at the intestinal surface after chyme contacts mucosa. Which enzyme is deficient?

A. Carboxypolypeptidase
B. Enterokinase
C. Chymotrypsin
D. Secretin

back 83

B. Enterokinase

front 84

Enterokinase is secreted by the:

A. Intestinal mucosa
B. Gastric mucosa
C. Pancreatic acini
D. Hepatic canaliculi

back 84

A. Intestinal mucosa

front 85

Enterokinase release occurs when chyme comes into contact with the:

A. Hepatic duct
B. Pancreatic duct
C. Intestinal mucosa
D. Gastric antrum

back 85

C. Intestinal mucosa

front 86

Which set contains the three major stimuli for pancreatic secretion?

A. Histamine, gastrin, pepsin
B. Acetylcholine, CCK, secretin
C. Motilin, gastrin, bile
D. Somatostatin, CCK, pepsin

back 86

B. Acetylcholine, CCK, secretin

front 87

Which pancreatic stimulus is released from parasympathetic vagal endings?

A. Cholecystokinin
B. Secretin
C. Acetylcholine
D. Gastrin

back 87

C. Acetylcholine

front 88

Cholecystokinin is secreted by the mucosa of the:

A. Colon and rectum
B. Duodenum and upper jejunum
C. Stomach and pylorus
D. Ileum and cecum

back 88

B. Duodenum and upper jejunum

front 89

Secretin is secreted by the mucosa of the:

A. Duodenum and jejunum
B. Esophagus and stomach
C. Ileum and colon
D. Fundus and antrum

back 89

A. Duodenum and jejunum

front 90

Highly acidic food entering the small intestine most directly stimulates release of:

A. Gastrin
B. Histamine
C. Secretin
D. Motilin

back 90

C. Secretin

front 91

Acetylcholine and CCK act primarily on which pancreatic cells?

A. Acinar cells
B. Kupffer cells
C. Ductal cells
D. Stellate cells

back 91

A. Acinar cells

front 92

Stimulation of pancreatic acinar cells by acetylcholine and CCK leads to secretion of large quantities of:

A. Bicarbonate-rich water
B. Digestive enzymes
C. Intrinsic factor
D. Acidic mucus

back 92

B. Digestive enzymes

front 93

Secretin primarily stimulates which pancreatic tissue?

A. Islet tissue
B. Acinar epithelium
C. Ductal epithelium
D. Stromal tissue

back 93

C. Ductal epithelium

front 94

Secretin causes secretion of a pancreatic fluid with high bicarbonate and low:

A. Potassium
B. Sodium
C. Calcium
D. Chloride

back 94

D. Chloride

front 95

Secretin is released from which cells?

A. I cells
B. S cells
C. G cells
D. D cells

back 95

B. S cells

front 96

Release of CCK from I cells is promoted by proteoses, peptones, and:

A. Short-chain acids
B. Medium-chain acids
C. Long-chain fatty acids
D. Branched-chain amino acids

back 96

C. Long-chain fatty acids

front 97

Bile serves as an excretory route for bilirubin and:

A. Glucose
B. Cholesterol
C. Urea
D. Lactate

back 97

B. Cholesterol

front 98

The initial portion of bile is secreted by the:

A. Cholangiocytes
B. Hepatocytes
C. Kupffer cells
D. Stellate cells

back 98

B. Hepatocytes

front 99

After secretion from hepatocytes, bile first flows in the:

A. Canaliculi
B. Central veins
C. Lacteals
D. Sinusoids

back 99

A. Canaliculi

front 100

Bile in canaliculi flows toward the:

A. Portal vein
B. Interlobular septa
C. Central lobule
D. Gallbladder fundus

back 100

B. Interlobular septa

front 101

Canaliculi empty into terminal bile ducts, which then drain into the hepatic duct and:

A. Pancreatic duct
B. Cystic duct
C. Common bile duct
D. Thoracic duct

back 101

C. Common bile duct

front 102

Most gallbladder absorption is driven primarily by active transport of:

A. Chloride
B. Bicarbonate
C. Potassium
D. Sodium

back 102

D. Sodium

front 103

A patient undergoes vagotomy. Which pancreatic stimulus is most directly reduced?

A. Secretin
B. Acetylcholine
C. Cholecystokinin
D. Enterokinase

back 103

B. Acetylcholine

front 104

A meal rich in partially digested protein and long-chain fatty acids enters the small intestine. Which hormone rises most directly?

A. CCK
B. Motilin
C. Secretin
D. Gastrin

back 104

A. CCK

front 105

The most abundant solutes secreted in bile are:

A. Bile salts
B. Cholesterol esters
C. Phospholipids
D. Bilirubin conjugates

back 105

A. Bile salts

front 106

Effective gallbladder emptying requires gallbladder contraction plus simultaneous relaxation of the:

A. Ileocecal valve
B. Pyloric sphincter
C. Lower esophageal sphincter
D. Sphincter of Oddi

back 106

D. Sphincter of Oddi

front 107

The most potent stimulus for gallbladder contraction is:

A. Secretin
B. Gastrin
C. Acetylcholine
D. CCK

back 107

D. CCK

front 108

Small quantities of bile salts lost in feces are replaced continuously by the liver in a process referred to here as:

A. Biliary diversion
B. Enterohepatic circulation
C. Cholestatic recycling
D. Portal recirculation

back 108

B. Enterohepatic circulation

front 109

Brunner’s glands are best described as:

A. Compound mucous glands
B. Serous acinar glands
C. Endocrine gastric glands
D. Pancreatic duct glands

back 109

A. Compound mucous glands

front 110

Brunner’s glands are located primarily in the wall of the:

A. Distal ileum
B. Gastric antrum
C. First duodenal centimeters
D. Ascending colon

back 110

C. First duodenal centimeters

front 111

Brunner’s glands are inhibited by:

A. Parasympathetic activity
B. Sympathetic stimulation
C. CCK release
D. Vagal efferents

back 111

B. Sympathetic stimulation

front 112

In a highly anxious patient, persistent inhibition of Brunner’s glands would most directly predispose to:

A. Jejunal volvulus
B. Duodenal bulb ulcers
C. Ileal strictures
D. Colonic polyps

back 112

B. Duodenal bulb ulcers

front 113

Crypts of Lieberkühn in the small intestine are:

A. Deep gastric tubules
B. Mucosal venous lakes
C. Small epithelial pits
D. Lymphoid nodules

back 113

C. Small epithelial pits

front 114

In the small intestine, crypts of Lieberkühn are located over:

A. Only proximal duodenum
B. Only terminal ileum
C. Peyer patch surfaces
D. Entire small-intestinal surface

back 114

D. Entire small-intestinal surface

front 115

The surfaces of both crypts and villi are covered by epithelium containing goblet cells and:

A. Paneth cells
B. Chief cells
C. Enterocytes
D. Parietal cells

back 115

C. Enterocytes

front 116

Intestinal goblet cells primarily secrete:

A. Pepsinogen
B. Mucus
C. Bicarbonate
D. Histamine

back 116

B. Mucus

front 117

The main function of goblet-cell secretion in the small intestine is to:

A. Acidify luminal contents
B. Activate pancreatic enzymes
C. Lubricate and protect
D. Absorb amino acids

back 117

C. Lubricate and protect

front 118

Enterocytes in the small intestine secrete large quantities of:

A. Water
B. Mucin
C. Pepsin
D. Bile salts

back 118

A. Water

front 119

Enterocytes also reabsorb water, electrolytes, and:

A. Bacterial toxins
B. Gastric acid
C. Intrinsic factor
D. Digestive end products

back 119

D. Digestive end products

front 120

Cells deep in the crypts of Lieberkühn continually undergo:

A. Meiosis
B. Apoptosis
C. Mitosis
D. Endocytosis

back 120

C. Mitosis

front 121

The ongoing cell division in deep crypt cells helps replace the:

A. Muscularis externa
B. Villus epithelium
C. Submucosal plexus
D. Serosal mesothelium

back 121

B. Villus epithelium

front 122

Deep crypt epithelial cells also contribute to formation of new:

A. Bile acids
B. Tight junctions
C. Hormones
D. Digestive enzymes

back 122

D. Digestive enzymes

front 123

The large-intestinal mucosa contains many crypts of Lieberkühn but lacks:

A. Goblet cells
B. Muscularis mucosae
C. Villi
D. Mucus glands

back 123

C. Villi

front 124

Colonic mucus protects the intestinal wall from intense:

A. Acid secretion
B. Bacterial activity
C. Enzyme release
D. Bile precipitation

back 124

B. Bacterial activity

front 125

The barrier protecting the colonic wall from fecal acids is formed by mucus plus the:

A. Osmolarity of chyme
B. Viscosity of bile
C. Motility of haustra
D. Alkalinity of secretion

back 125

D. Alkalinity of secretion

front 126

Mucus and alkaline secretion in the colon prevent fecal acids from:

A. Entering the portal vein
B. Activating pancreatic juice
C. Attacking the intestinal wall
D. Digesting dietary starch

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C. Attacking the intestinal wall

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During bacterial enteritis, an irritated colonic segment secretes extra:

A. Water and electrolytes
B. Mucus and bile salts
C. Pepsin and acid
D. Protein and glucose

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A. Water and electrolytes

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In enteritis, the diarrhea described is beneficial mainly because it:

A. Increases bile recycling
B. Washes away irritants
C. Suppresses villus mitosis
D. Concentrates fecal bicarbonate

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B. Washes away irritants

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Which finding best identifies large intestine?

A. Many villi, no crypts
B. Brunner glands present
C. Crypts without villi
D. Goblet cells absent

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C. Crypts without villi

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A pharmacologist gives a strong CCK antagonist before a fatty meal. Which response is most likely reduced?

A. Gallbladder contraction
B. Brunner inhibition
C. Crypt cell mitosis
D. Colonic mucus release

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A. Gallbladder contraction