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Nutrition 7

front 1

Must follow ____ free diet in celiac disease

back 1

gluten

front 2

Diet rich in whole ____ can be useful across spectrum of most GI symptoms

back 2

grains

front 3

Carb digestion requires ____ to convert starches into disaccharides

back 3

amylase

front 4

____ absorbed through diffusion or active transport

back 4

Monosaccharides

front 5

Symptoms:
o Bloating
o Abdominal pain
o Flatulence
o Borborygmi
o Nausea
o Diarrhea
o Cons0pa0on

back 5

Lactose Intolerance

front 6

The most common form of carbohydrate malabsorption worldwide is:
A. Fructose intolerance
B. Lactose intolerance
C. Sucrase deficiency
D. Glucose-galactose malabsorption

back 6

B. Lactose intolerance

front 7

Lactose intolerance affects approximately what proportion of the world population?
A. 10–15%
B. 25–30%
C. 45–50%
D. 70–75%

back 7

D. 70–75%

front 8

Lactose must be hydrolyzed by lactase into:
A. Fructose and galactose
B. Glucose and galactose
C. Glucose and fructose
D. Maltose and glucose

back 8

B. Glucose and galactose

front 9

The primary biochemical defect in most lactose intolerance is:
A. Sucrase deficiency
B. Pancreatic lipase deficiency
C. Suboptimal lactase activity
D. Glucose transporter loss

back 9

C. Suboptimal lactase activity

front 10

A teenager reports bloating and diarrhea after ice cream but tolerates small amounts of yogurt. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Celiac disease
B. Lactose intolerance
C. Tropical sprue
D. Pancreatic insufficiency

back 10

B. Lactose intolerance

front 11

Which test can help confirm lactose intolerance?
A. D-xylose absorption test
B. Schilling test
C. Lactose hydrogen breath test
D. Fecal occult blood test

back 11

C. Lactose hydrogen breath test

front 12

Another accepted test for confirming lactose intolerance is:
A. Lactose tolerance test
B. Secretin stimulation test
C. Sweat chloride test
D. Urea breath test

back 12

A. Lactose tolerance test

front 13

Lactase production typically changes with age by:
A. Increasing after puberty
B. Remaining constant lifelong
C. Falling with age
D. Rising in older adults

back 13

C. Falling with age

front 14

Reduced lactase production is most appropriately described as:
A. Always normal in infancy
B. Usually normal in infants
C. Pathologic in adults usually
D. Pathologic in infants sometimes

back 14

D. Pathologic in infants sometimes

front 15

In most teens and adults, decreased lactase production is:
A. Usually normal
B. Always pathologic
C. Due to pancreatitis
D. Due to infection

back 15

A. Usually normal

front 16

Which factor increases predisposition to lactose intolerance?
A. High protein intake
B. Genetic predisposition
C. Vitamin D excess
D. Low fiber intake

back 16

B. Genetic predisposition

front 17

Severity of lactose intolerance symptoms is often most related to:
A. Daily fat intake
B. Lactose dose consumed
C. Meal temperature
D. Protein source eaten

back 17

B. Lactose dose consumed

front 18

A major nutritional goal in lactose malabsorption is prevention of:
A. Iron overload
B. Secondary bone disease
C. Hyperphosphatemia
D. Folate deficiency

back 18

B. Secondary bone disease

front 19

To help prevent skeletal complications, patients with lactose issues are encouraged to:
A. Avoid all supplements
B. Restrict calcium entirely
C. Use calcium supplementation
D. Take iron daily

back 19

C. Use calcium supplementation

front 20

Even with lactose malabsorption, dietary guidance encourages:
A. No dairy ever
B. Three low-fat dairy servings
C. Only high-fat dairy
D. Total carbohydrate avoidance

back 20

B. Three low-fat dairy servings

front 21

Which dairy products may improve tolerance because they contain lactic acid bacteria?
A. Heavy cream products
B. Sweetened condensed milk
C. Fermented dairy products
D. Butter-based products

back 21

C. Fermented dairy products

front 22

Which food is most likely to be better tolerated in lactose malabsorption?
A. Yogurt
B. Whey powder
C. Buttermilk
D. Non-fat milk solids

back 22

A. Yogurt

front 23

Some patients with lactose intolerance may benefit from:
A. Probiotics
B. Loop diuretics
C. Bile acid resins
D. Pancrelipase

back 23

A. Probiotics

front 24

A patient with lactose malabsorption wants to maintain calcium intake while limiting symptoms. The best recommendation is:
A. Avoid all fortified foods
B. Use calcium-fortified foods
C. Eliminate calcium completely
D. Take phosphate binders

back 24

B. Use calcium-fortified foods

front 25

If supplementation is needed for lactose intolerance, the notes recommend:
A. 250 mg calcium daily
B. 500 mg calcium twice weekly
C. 1000 mg calcium daily
D. 2000 mg calcium twice daily

back 25

C. 1000 mg calcium daily

front 26

A patient avoids milk but tolerates fermented cheese. The best explanation is:
A. Cheese lacks protein
B. Cheese contains lactase
C. Lactic acid bacteria help
D. Calcium blocks lactose uptake

back 26

C. Lactic acid bacteria help

front 27

Who has this diet?

Encouraged to consume 6-11 servings whole grain or enriched gluten-free grains and 3 servings gluten-free dairy foods per day

back 27

celiac disease

front 28

Perform LFT, serum iron and ferri0n, RBC folate, vitamin B12, calcium, Vitamin D tests ordered for what patients?

back 28

celiac disease

front 29

Symptoms:
o Weight loss
o Failure to thrive
o Osteomalacia
o Bone pain
o Infertility
o Dysmenorrhea
o Amenorrhea

back 29

fat malabsorption

front 30

Associated with _____
o Poor quality of sleep
o Regular use of NSAIDs
o Heavy alcohol intake
o Irregular dietary habits
o H pylori

back 30

GERD

front 31

Foods that can cause _____
o Spicy foods
o Acidic foods
o High fat foods
o Chocolate
o Mint
o Caffeine

back 31

GERD

front 32

A 24-year-old woman has chronic diarrhea, bloating, and iron deficiency anemia that worsens after bread and pasta. Which dietary antigen most likely drives her disease?
A. Casein
B. Gliadin
C. Lactose
D. Albumin

back 32

B. Gliadin

front 33

A patient with suspected celiac disease undergoes endoscopy. Which biopsy pattern most strongly supports the diagnosis?
A. Goblet cell hyperplasia
B. Transmural granulomas
C. Pseudopolyps with crypt abscesses
D. Villous atrophy with crypt hyperplasia

back 33

D. Villous atrophy with crypt hyperplasia

front 34

Celiac disease is defined by chronic inflammation involving which site?
A. Small bowel mucosa
B. Gastric antrum
C. Colonic submucosa
D. Pancreatic ducts

back 34

A. Small bowel mucosa

front 35

A patient has positive celiac serologies. What is the most appropriate next diagnostic step?
A. Lactose breath test
B. Gluten challenge only
C. Small bowel biopsy
D. Stool elastase testing

back 35

C. Small bowel biopsy

front 36

Which serologic pair is most appropriate when screening for celiac disease?
A. ANA and RF
B. TTG and EMA
C. ASCA and pANCA
D. AMA and ANCA

back 36

B. TTG and EMA

front 37

A patient with untreated celiac disease is most likely to have which deficiency pattern?
A. Iron, folate, and B12
B. Copper, zinc, and vitamin C
C. Vitamin K and niacin
D. Vitamin E and selenium

back 37

A. Iron, folate, and B12

front 38

Longstanding untreated celiac disease may contribute to which skeletal complication?
A. Gout and nephrolithiasis
B. Osteopetrosis and sclerosis
C. Hyperparathyroid bone disease
D. Osteoporosis or osteomalacia

back 38

D. Osteoporosis or osteomalacia

front 39

Which intake pattern is specifically associated with many gluten-free diets?
A. Excessive medium-chain triglycerides
B. Increased fermented dairy intake
C. Concentrated sweets and soft drinks
D. Markedly increased dietary fiber

back 39

C. Concentrated sweets and soft drinks

front 40

Nutritional monitoring is important in celiac disease because most gluten-free products are:
A. Non-fortified
B. Protein-enriched
C. Lactose-free
D. Iron-overloaded

back 40

A. Non-fortified

front 41

Beyond malabsorption, untreated celiac disease may also present with:
A. Nephrotic syndrome
B. Portal vein thrombosis
C. Hyperaldosteronism
D. Infertility

back 41

D. Infertility

front 42

Which laboratory abnormality may occur in untreated celiac disease?
A. Hyperamylasemia
B. Elevated transaminases
C. Severe hypercalcemia
D. Marked polycythemia

back 42

B. Elevated transaminases

front 43

A patient with celiac disease develops gait instability without weakness. Which neurologic manifestation is specifically associated with this disorder?
A. Hemiballismus
B. Aphasia
C. Ataxia
D. Myoclonus

back 43

C. Ataxia

front 44

Which patient is at highest risk for celiac disease?
A. Patient with nephrotic syndrome
B. Patient with hereditary spherocytosis
C. Patient with chronic pancreatitis
D. Patient with type 1 diabetes

back 44

D. Patient with type 1 diabetes

front 45

Which additional condition is specifically listed as a high-risk setting for celiac disease?
A. Turner syndrome
B. Klinefelter syndrome
C. Marfan syndrome
D. Neurofibromatosis

back 45

A. Turner syndrome

front 46

Which family history most strongly increases pretest probability for celiac disease?
A. Relative with colon cancer
B. Relative with ulcerative colitis
C. Relative with celiac disease
D. Relative with gallstones

back 46

C. Relative with celiac disease

front 47

Which broad comorbidity category should prompt increased suspicion for celiac disease?
A. Plasma cell dyscrasias
B. Autoimmune endocrinopathies
C. Chronic hemolytic disorders
D. Inherited myopathies

back 47

B. Autoimmune endocrinopathies

front 48

Which disorder is best classified as a protein malabsorption syndrome in this context?
A. Celiac disease
B. Lactose intolerance
C. Achalasia
D. Diverticulosis

back 48

A. Celiac disease

front 49

A patient asks which foods should be removed to treat celiac disease. What is the core dietary target?
A. High-fructose foods
B. Dairy products
C. Gluten-containing wheat products
D. High-fat meats

back 49

C. Gluten-containing wheat products

front 50

Which statement best explains why micronutrient deficiencies may persist even after adopting a gluten-free diet?
A. Gluten-free foods block absorption
B. Many products lack fortification
C. Gliadin remains in vegetables
D. EMA antibodies destroy vitamins

back 50

B. Many products lack fortification

front 51

A patient with bulky, greasy, foul-smelling stools most likely has which type of malabsorption syndrome?
A. Protein malabsorption
B. Fat malabsorption
C. Iron malabsorption
D. Carbohydrate malabsorption

back 51

B. Fat malabsorption

front 52

Fat malabsorption often occurs when there is impaired:
A. Luminal transport of digested products
B. Colonic sodium absorption
C. Hepatic glycogen storage
D. Gastric acid secretion

back 52

A. Luminal transport of digested products

front 53

A patient with diffuse small-intestinal injury develops fat malabsorption. Which mechanism best explains this?
A. Excess pancreatic bicarbonate
B. Increased gastric emptying
C. Widespread mucosal injury
D. Isolated esophageal dysmotility

back 53

C. Widespread mucosal injury

front 54

Which disorder can cause fat malabsorption through widespread mucosal injury?
A. Celiac disease
B. Achalasia
C. Appendicitis
D. Diverticulosis

back 54

A. Celiac disease

front 55

Which inflammatory disorder is specifically listed as a cause of fat malabsorption?
A. Chronic gastritis
B. Peptic ulcer disease
C. Ulcerative proctitis
D. Inflammatory bowel disease

back 55

D. Inflammatory bowel disease

front 56

Small-bowel bacterial overgrowth may cause fat malabsorption primarily because it can:
A. Raise lactase activity
B. Injure absorptive mucosa
C. Stimulate pancreatic lipase
D. Increase micelle formation

back 56

B. Injure absorptive mucosa

front 57

A patient with chronic pancreatitis develops greasy stools. The most direct cause is:
A. Villous hyperplasia
B. Excess bile salt synthesis
C. Lipase deficiency
D. Accelerated gastric emptying

back 57

C. Lipase deficiency

front 58

Fat malabsorption in cystic fibrosis most commonly reflects:
A. Excess gastric acid
B. Colonic inflammation
C. Lactase deficiency
D. Maldigestion

back 58

D. Maldigestion

front 59

A patient with cholestatic disease develops steatorrhea despite normal pancreatic enzymes. The best explanation is:
A. Lack of emulsification
B. Crypt hyperplasia
C. Increased intestinal motility
D. Renal vitamin wasting

back 59

A. Lack of emulsification

front 60

Which condition can cause steatorrhea because of bile salt deficiency?
A. Achalasia
B. Gastroparesis
C. Cholestatic biliary disease
D. Hiatal hernia

back 60

C. Cholestatic biliary disease

front 61

Which mechanism best distinguishes maldigestion from mucosal fat malabsorption?
A. Impaired enterocyte turnover
B. Defective intraluminal breakdown
C. Autoimmune villous destruction
D. Reduced intestinal surface area

back 61

B. Defective intraluminal breakdown

front 62

Fat malabsorption can also be seen in which wasting syndrome?
A. HIV wasting
B. Marfan syndrome
C. Turner syndrome
D. Nephrotic syndrome

back 62

A. HIV wasting

front 63

A patient with chronic steatorrhea is most at risk for deficiency of:
A. Water-soluble vitamins
B. Vitamin B12 alone
C. Iron and copper
D. Fat-soluble vitamins

back 63

D. Fat-soluble vitamins

front 64

To increase caloric intake in fat malabsorption, the diet can be supplemented with:
A. Long-chain triglycerides
B. Complex starch polymers
C. Medium-chain triglycerides
D. Branched-chain amino acids

back 64

C. Medium-chain triglycerides

front 65

Medium-chain triglycerides are especially useful because they do not require:
A. Enteropeptidase activation
B. Bile salts or micelles
C. Colonic fermentation
D. Intrinsic factor binding

back 65

B. Bile salts or micelles

front 66

The caloric content of medium-chain triglycerides is approximately:
A. 115 calories per teaspoon
B. 60 calories per teaspoon
C. 200 calories per tablespoon
D. 40 calories per gram

back 66

A. 115 calories per teaspoon

front 67

A patient with pancreatic insufficiency and fat malabsorption should receive:
A. Gluten restriction
B. Calcium carbonate
C. Bile acid sequestrants
D. Pancreatic enzyme supplementation

back 67

D. Pancreatic enzyme supplementation

front 68

Which patient most clearly has steatorrhea from maldigestion rather than mucosal injury?
A. Untreated celiac disease
B. Bacterial overgrowth syndrome
C. Chronic pancreatitis
D. Crohn ileitis flare

back 68

C. Chronic pancreatitis

front 69

Based on population data, GERD affects approximately what proportion of people?
A. About 2%
B. About 8%
C. Up to 20%
D. Nearly 50%

back 69

C. Up to 20%

front 70

Which risk factor from history is most strongly associated with GERD?
A. Obesity
B. High protein intake
C. Low sodium diet
D. Increased hydration

back 70

A. Obesity

front 71

Which mechanism best explains why obesity increases GERD risk?
A. Reduced gastric acid output
B. Increased bile salt secretion
C. Increased intestinal transit
D. Increased intra-abdominal pressure

back 71

D. Increased intra-abdominal pressure

front 72

In addition to elevated intra-abdominal pressure, obesity promotes GERD by increasing:
A. Pyloric contraction
B. LES relaxation
C. salivary bicarbonate
D. duodenal motility

back 72

B. LES relaxation

front 73

Which dietary feature most likely contributes to his GERD?
A. High saturated fat intake
B. High lean protein intake
C. High water content
D. High calcium intake

back 73

A. High saturated fat intake

front 74

High-fat meals worsen GERD in part because they:
A. Increase fiber fermentation
B. reduce pepsin secretion
C. delay gastric emptying
D. block intestinal glucose uptake

back 74

C. delay gastric emptying

front 75

A patient asks which dietary change may help lower reflux risk over time. Which recommendation is most supported by the material provided?
A. Increase saturated fat intake
B. Increase dietary fiber intake
C. Eliminate all carbohydrates
D. Drink more acidic beverages

back 75

B. Increase dietary fiber intake

front 76

these foods _____ gastric acid secretions: coffee, tea, colas, alcohol

back 76

increase

front 77

these foods are poorly tolerated in _____ _____ disease:
o coffee
o orange juice
o fried foods
o spicy foods
o fruits

back 77

peptic ulcer

front 78

A patient with epigastric pain is found to have a duodenal ulcer. Most gastric and duodenal ulcers are primarily caused by:
A. Excess pancreatic enzyme release
B. Gastric mucosal damage
C. Colonic bacterial overgrowth
D. Distal ileal ischemia

back 78

B. Gastric mucosal damage

front 79

A patient with chronic dyspepsia develops a gastric ulcer after years of daily analgesic use. Which pair includes the most common causative agents of peptic ulcer disease?
A. Alcohol and caffeine
B. Bile salts and stress
C. Steroids and tobacco
D. H pylori and NSAIDs

back 79

D. H pylori and NSAIDs

front 80

A college student develops 2 days of watery diarrhea after a viral illness. Most cases of diarrhea are due to:
A. Self-limited infection
B. Pancreatic insufficiency
C. Chronic malabsorption
D. Endocrine neoplasia

back 80

A. Self-limited infection

front 81

A patient reports loose stools for more than 4 weeks. This is best classified as:
A. Secretory diarrhea
B. Acute dysentery
C. Chronic diarrhea
D. Functional constipation

back 81

C. Chronic diarrhea

front 82

Chronic diarrhea affects approximately what proportion of the population?
A. Less than 1%
B. Up to 5%
C. About 15%
D. Nearly 25%

back 82

B. Up to 5%

front 83

A patient develops diarrhea after drinking milkshakes and eating ice cream. Which malabsorptive disorder best explains this?
A. Chronic pancreatitis
B. Bile salt deficiency
C. Peptic ulcer disease
D. Lactose intolerance

back 83

D. Lactose intolerance

front 84

A patient with chronic diarrhea, iron deficiency, and villous injury most likely has which malabsorptive cause?
A. Celiac disease
B. Achalasia
C. Diverticulosis
D. Appendicitis

back 84

A. Celiac disease

front 85

A patient with chronic diarrhea and intestinal inflammation has transmural bowel disease. Which listed malabsorptive disorder can cause diarrhea?
A. Peptic ulcer disease
B. Cholelithiasis
C. Inflammatory bowel disease
D. Gastroparesis

back 85

C. Inflammatory bowel disease

front 86

A patient develops diarrhea after ingesting a nonabsorbed solute. This mechanism is most consistent with:
A. Exudative diarrhea
B. Osmotic diarrhea
C. Motility diarrhea
D. Infectious dysentery

back 86

B. Osmotic diarrhea

front 87

A patient chewing large amounts of sugar-free gum develops diarrhea. Which substance most likely caused it?
A. Lactase
B. Gliadin
C. Butyrate
D. Sorbitol

back 87

D. Sorbitol

front 88

A patient taking a saline cathartic develops osmotic diarrhea. Which ingested agent best fits this mechanism?
A. Magnesium sulfate
B. Calcium citrate
C. Sodium bicarbonate
D. Potassium chloride

back 88

A. Magnesium sulfate

front 89

Ingestion of which poorly absorbed substance may also cause osmotic diarrhea?
A. Inulin
B. Cellulose
C. Phosphate
D. Casein

back 89

C. Phosphate

front 90

A patient with diarrhea feels worse after increasing bran cereal and other roughage. Which fiber type is most likely aggravating symptoms?
A. Fermentable fiber
B. Insoluble fiber
C. Viscous fiber
D. Soluble fiber

back 90

B. Insoluble fiber

front 91

A patient with diarrhea is advised to increase a fiber type that forms a gel within the intestinal lumen. Which is most likely to help?
A. Wheat bran fiber
B. Corn hull fiber
C. Insoluble cereal fiber
D. Soluble fiber

back 91

D. Soluble fiber

front 92

Which dietary approach is most consistent with using functional foods to help diarrhea?
A. Live active cultures
B. High saturated fat
C. Added simple sugars
D. Strict lactose loading

back 92

A. Live active cultures

front 93

Which recommendation best matches the provided material for helping some patients with diarrhea?
A. Eliminate all bacteria
B. Avoid fermented foods
C. Use yogurt or probiotics
D. Increase insoluble fiber

back 93

C. Use yogurt or probiotics

front 94

Which exposure is a classic peptic ulcer risk factor?
A. NSAID overuse
B. Excess soluble fiber
C. Probiotic intake
D. Sugar alcohol avoidance

back 94

A. NSAID overuse

front 95

A patient with a newly diagnosed duodenal ulcer has no NSAID exposure. Which organism is a common causative agent?
A. Giardia lamblia
B. Clostridioides difficile
C. Escherichia coli
D. H pylori

back 95

D. H pylori

front 96

Definition=less than 2-3 bowel movements per week

back 96

conspitation

front 97

Dietary sources of ______ fats include fatty fish, walnuts, soy, flaxseed, canola oil, and in small amounts, certain leafy greens

back 97

omega-3

front 98

Which demographic pattern is most associated with constipation risk?
A. Young men
B. Older women
C. Adolescent boys
D. Middle-aged men

back 98

B. Older women

front 99

A patient has constipation due to impaired stool propulsion within the colon, without medication or endocrine triggers. This is best classified as:
A. Functional diarrhea
B. Osmotic constipation
C. Secondary constipation
D. Primary constipation

back 99

D. Primary constipation

front 100

A patient develops constipation after starting an anticholinergic medication for bladder symptoms. This mechanism is most consistent with:
A. Secondary constipation
B. Colonic pseudo-obstruction
C. Primary constipation
D. Pelvic floor trauma

back 100

A. Secondary constipation

front 101

Which outpatient recommendation is most appropriate for uncomplicated constipation?
A. Abruptly double daily fiber
B. Restrict all oral fluids
C. Increase fluids and fiber gradually
D. Begin bowel rest immediately

back 101

C. Increase fluids and fiber gradually

front 102

Inflammatory bowel disease is best defined as including:
A. Celiac disease and IBS
B. Crohn disease and ulcerative colitis
C. Diverticulitis and colitis
D. Gastritis and enteritis

back 102

B. Crohn disease and ulcerative colitis

front 103

A patient with patchy transmural intestinal inflammation has disease involving the terminal ileum and perianal region. Which disorder can affect any part of the digestive tract?
A. Crohn disease
B. Ulcerative colitis
C. Microscopic colitis
D. Celiac disease

back 103

A. Crohn disease

front 104

A patient has continuous inflammatory disease limited to the large intestine. Which diagnosis best fits disease confined to the colon?
A. Crohn disease
B. Celiac sprue
C. Ulcerative colitis
D. Tropical sprue

back 104

C. Ulcerative colitis

front 105

Which nutritional problem is common in IBD?
A. Protein malnutrition
B. Iron overload
C. Hypervitaminosis D
D. Copper toxicity

back 105

A. Protein malnutrition

front 106

Which cytokine profile most directly contributes to protein malnutrition in inflammatory bowel disease?
A. IL-4, IL-5, IL-13
B. IFN-beta, IL-2, IL-12
C. IL-10, TGF-beta, IL-22
D. IL-1, IL-6, TNF-alpha

back 106

D. IL-1, IL-6, TNF-alpha

front 107

Beyond cytokine effects, which intestinal change contributes to malnutrition in inflammatory bowel disease?
A. Increased gastric acid output
B. Accelerated bile synthesis
C. Decreased absorptive surface area
D. Enhanced colonic fermentation

back 107

C. Decreased absorptive surface area

front 108

A patient undergoes ileal resection for Crohn disease and later develops fat malabsorption. Which deficiency most directly explains this complication?
A. Lactase deficiency
B. Bile salt deficiency
C. Intrinsic factor deficiency
D. Pancreatic amylase deficiency

back 108

B. Bile salt deficiency

front 109

A patient with IBD is treated with prednisone for a severe flare. Which metabolic effect is expected?
A. Reduced calcium absorption
B. Increased calcium absorption
C. Decreased protein breakdown
D. Enhanced bile recycling

back 109

A. Reduced calcium absorption

front 110

High intake of which dietary fat is associated with increased risk of ulcerative colitis?
A. Oleic acid
B. Alpha-linolenic acid
C. Palmitic acid
D. Linoleic acid

back 110

D. Linoleic acid

aka omega-6

front 111

The increased ulcerative colitis risk associated with linoleic acid is partly due to its conversion into:
A. Eicosapentaenoic acid
B. Arachidonic acid
C. Docosahexaenoic acid
D. Lactic acid

back 111

B. Arachidonic acid

front 112

Which dietary pattern most increases linoleic acid exposure?
A. Fruit, rice, legumes
B. Yogurt, oats, beans
C. Red meat, oils, margarine
D. Fish, eggs, potatoes

back 112

C. Red meat, oils, margarine

front 113

Which dietary pattern is associated with increased ulcerative colitis risk?
A. High soluble fiber intake
B. High fermented dairy intake
C. High calcium-fortified intake
D. High animal protein intake

back 113

D. High animal protein intake

front 114

A patient is hospitalized, placed on bowel rest, and is not expected to resume oral repletion for 7 days. Which nutritional support should be considered?
A. Total parenteral nutrition
B. Clear liquid diet
C. Lactose restriction
D. Fiber supplementation

back 114

A. Total parenteral nutrition

front 115

_____ show promise as an adjunctive treatment for mild-to-moderate ulcerative colitis

back 115

Probiotics

front 116

______ are specialized, non-digestible plant fibers that pass through the small intestine undigested to reach the colon. There, they act as fuel, selectively stimulating the growth of beneficial gut bacteria to improve digestive and overall health.

back 116

Prebiotics

front 117

A patient with active inflammatory bowel disease has ongoing diarrhea and malabsorption. Which diet is most appropriate to help control symptoms?
A. Low fat, low fiber, low lactose
B. High fat, high fiber, low lactose
C. Low protein, high fiber, low fat
D. High lactose, low fat, low fiber

back 117

A. Low fat, low fiber, low lactose

front 118

A patient with inflammatory bowel disease reports worsening cramping after large meals. Which feeding pattern is most appropriate?
A. One large evening meal
B. Alternate-day feeding
C. Small, frequent feedings
D. Liquid-only weekends

back 118

C. Small, frequent feedings

front 119

A patient with inflammatory bowel disease develops urgent diarrhea soon after certain beverages. Which trigger pair is most likely?
A. Water and tea
B. Milk and juice
C. Broth and soup
D. Alcohol and caffeine

back 119

D. Alcohol and caffeine

front 120

A patient with chronic diarrhea asks which sweetener type commonly causes bloating and loose stools. Which is most likely?
A. Sugar alcohols
B. Table sugar
C. Corn starch
D. Glucose syrup

back 120

A. Sugar alcohols

front 121

A patient with active inflammatory bowel disease and complications is losing weight. How should caloric intake generally change?
A. Decrease to reduce stooling
B. Increase to meet higher needs
C. Remain unchanged
D. Stop calories temporarily

back 121

B. Increase to meet higher needs

front 122

A severely malnourished patient with inflammatory bowel disease is starting nutrition support. What is the safest initial approach?
A. Begin aggressive refeeding
B. Start a high-fat diet
C. Add fiber immediately
D. Begin cautiously to avoid refeeding

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D. Begin cautiously to avoid refeeding

front 123

A patient with active inflammatory bowel disease is started on prednisone during a flare. How should protein intake generally change?
A. Increase, especially with prednisone
B. Decrease during steroid therapy
C. Stay unchanged during flares
D. Restrict until diarrhea resolves

back 123

A. Increase, especially with prednisone

front 124

A patient with inflammatory bowel disease develops nausea, constipation, and abdominal cramping after starting supplementation. Which supplement is most likely responsible?
A. Folate
B. Vitamin D
C. Oral iron
D. Calcium carbonate

back 124

C. Oral iron

front 125

A patient with iron deficiency from inflammatory bowel disease is not responding well to oral iron alone. What addition may improve absorption?
A. Magnesium
B. Ascorbic acid
C. Vitamin K
D. Zinc sulfate

back 125

B. Ascorbic acid

front 126

Ascorbic acid helps oral iron therapy mainly by:
A. Binding intestinal bile salts
B. Slowing gastric emptying
C. Chelating dietary oxalate
D. Converting ferric to ferrous

back 126

D. Converting ferric to ferrous

front 127

A patient with inflammatory bowel disease asks where orally administered iron is mainly absorbed. Which site is most relevant?
A. Duodenum
B. Jejunum
C. Ileum
D. Colon

back 127

A. Duodenum

front 128

A patient with inflammatory bowel disease is treated with sulfasalazine. Which supplement should routinely be considered?
A. Vitamin C
B. Potassium
C. Folate
D. Vitamin A

back 128

C. Folate

front 129

A patient with Crohn disease is treated with methotrexate. Which additional supplement is typically recommended?
A. Iron
B. Folate
C. Zinc
D. Riboflavin

back 129

B. Folate

front 130

Which deficiency pattern is especially common in both children and adults with inflammatory bowel disease?
A. Vitamin K excess
B. Copper overload
C. Vitamin E toxicity
D. Vitamin D deficiency

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D. Vitamin D deficiency

front 131

A patient with Crohn disease has a narrowed bowel segment and intermittent obstructive symptoms. Which diet is most appropriate?
A. Low-fiber diet
B. High-fiber diet
C. Raw vegetable diet
D. Seed-enriched diet

back 131

A. Low-fiber diet

front 132

Which dietary approach should generally be avoided in a patient with Crohn disease and bowel strictures?
A. Small, frequent meals
B. Low-lactose intake
C. Personalized food choices
D. Fiber-rich diet

back 132

D. Fiber-rich diet

front 133

A patient with fat malabsorption is using medium-chain triglyceride oil. How should it be introduced?
A. In small amounts at a time
B. In large bolus servings
C. Only with insoluble fiber
D. Only during fasting periods

back 133

A. In small amounts at a time

front 134

A patient with Crohn disease undergoes ileal resection and later develops kidney stones. Which stone type is most likely?
A. Struvite
B. Uric acid
C. Cystine
D. Calcium oxalate

back 134

D. Calcium oxalate

front 135

A patient with Crohn disease has undergone ileal resection and diverting ileostomy. What postoperative problem increases the risk of the typical kidney stones seen in this setting?
A. Lactase deficiency
B. Pancreatic enzyme excess
C. Reduced gastric acid
D. Bile salt malabsorption

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D. Bile salt malabsorption

front 136

characterized by abdominal pain, altered bowel motility, and bloating or abdominal distension

back 136

IBS

front 137

Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS) is a common, chronic functional disorder of the ____ ____ causing chronic abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea or constipation

back 137

large intestine

front 138

_____ malabsorption may precipitate symptoms of IBS

back 138

Carbohydrate

front 139

A patient undergoing colon evaluation is found to have diverticulosis. Which location is most commonly involved?
A. Sigmoid colon
B. Transverse colon
C. Ascending colon
D. Rectum

back 139

A. Sigmoid colon

front 140

An older adult is counseled about diverticulosis risk. Which age-related change is recognized as a contributing factor?
A. Pancreatic fibrosis
B. Changes in the colonic wall
C. Esophageal dysmotility
D. Hepatic steatosis

back 140

B. Changes in the colonic wall

front 141

A patient with diverticulosis asks about a proposed mechanism behind the formation of diverticula. Which process is implicated?
A. Reduced bile production
B. Excess gastric acid secretion
C. Increased colonic intraluminal pressure
D. Accelerated small-bowel transit

back 141

C. Increased colonic intraluminal pressure

front 142

Which additional colonic abnormality may contribute to diverticulosis?
A. Villous atrophy
B. Lactase deficiency
C. Bile salt wasting
D. Motor dysfunction

back 142

D. Motor dysfunction

front 143

A patient wants to reduce future diverticulosis risk through diet. Which pattern is most associated with increased risk?
A. Inadequate fiber intake
B. High calcium intake
C. Increased omega-3 intake
D. Frequent fermented dairy intake

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A. Inadequate fiber intake

front 144

A patient asks who is more likely to develop diverticulosis over time. Which factor increases risk?
A. High protein intake
B. Older age
C. Daily yogurt use
D. Regular hydration

back 144

B. Older age

front 145

Which food pattern best supports dietary treatment of diverticulosis?
A. Refined grains and processed meats
B. Full-liquid diet only
C. High-fat dairy and sweets
D. Whole grains, fruits, vegetables

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D. Whole grains, fruits, vegetables

front 146

A patient with diverticulosis wants one practical long-term plan. Which is best?
A. Reduce fluids and fiber
B. Use bowel rest indefinitely
C. Emphasize fiber-rich foods and hydration
D. Rely mainly on high-protein foods

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C. Emphasize fiber-rich foods and hydration

front 147

Which counseling statement best reflects management of uncomplicated diverticulosis?
A. Treatment centers on lactose restriction
B. Management requires pancreatic enzymes
C. Therapy focuses on reducing omega-6 fats
D. Diet and hydration are key measures

back 147

D. Diet and hydration are key measures

front 148

______ is the presence of small, harmless pouches (diverticula) in the colon wall, while ______ occurs when these pouches become inflamed or infected, causing symptoms like fever and severe abdominal pain

back 148

Diverticulosis

diverticulitis

front 149

Biopsy showing hepatic steatosis with minimal inflammation. Which subtype is most consistent with this finding?
A. Alcoholic hepatitis
B. Nonalcoholic fatty liver
C. Fulminant hepatic failure
D. Nonalcoholic steatohepatitis

back 149

B. Nonalcoholic fatty liver

front 150

Biopsy findings of steatosis, inflammation, hepatocyte ballooning, and fibrosis. Which subtype best fits?
A. Cholestatic liver disease
B. Alcoholic fatty liver
C. Nonalcoholic fatty liver
D. Nonalcoholic steatohepatitis

back 150

D. Nonalcoholic steatohepatitis

front 151

A patient with fatty liver disease asks which subtype has greater risk of progression to advanced cirrhosis and end-stage liver disease. Which is most concerning?
A. Nonalcoholic steatohepatitis
B. Nonalcoholic fatty liver
C. Gilbert syndrome
D. Isolated cholestasis

back 151

A. Nonalcoholic steatohepatitis

front 152

Which associated condition pattern is most consistent with nonalcoholic fatty liver disease?
A. Hyperthyroidism and asthma
B. COPD and nephrolithiasis
C. Obesity and type 2 diabetes
D. Celiac disease and anemia

back 152

C. Obesity and type 2 diabetes

front 153

A clinician is counseling a patient newly diagnosed with nonalcoholic fatty liver disease. Which overall weight-loss approach is most appropriate?
A. Gradual weight loss
B. Rapid crash dieting
C. Prolonged fasting
D. High-fat bulking diet

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A. Gradual weight loss

front 154

A patient with nonalcoholic fatty liver disease asks which dietary change is part of treatment. Which recommendation is most appropriate?
A. Increase saturated fat intake
B. Eliminate all carbohydrates
C. Increase sugar-sweetened drinks
D. Reduce calorie and fat intake

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D. Reduce calorie and fat intake

front 155

A patient with nonalcoholic fatty liver disease wants a nutrition change beyond reducing fat intake. Which additional recommendation is most appropriate?
A. Restrict all plant foods
B. Increase dietary fiber
C. Avoid physical activity
D. Increase alcohol intake

back 155

B. Increase dietary fiber

front 156

A patient with nonalcoholic fatty liver disease asks which lifestyle intervention should accompany dietary treatment. Which is most appropriate?
A. Strict bed rest
B. Night-only eating
C. Increase physical activity
D. High-protein overfeeding

back 156

C. Increase physical activity

front 157

A patient with biopsy-proven nonalcoholic steatohepatitis asks which histologic feature helps distinguish it from simple fatty liver. Which finding supports steatohepatitis?
A. Iron deposition only
B. Bile duct loss
C. Portal vein thrombosis
D. Cellular ballooning

back 157

D. Cellular ballooning

front 158

A patient with simple nonalcoholic fatty liver asks how it differs from steatohepatitis. Which statement is most accurate?
A. It has minimal inflammation
B. It always causes cirrhosis
C. It requires alcohol use
D. It is marked by ballooning fibrosis

back 158

A. It has minimal inflammation

front 159

A patient with advanced cirrhosis has marked muscle wasting and poor oral intake. Why is protein-calorie malnutrition clinically important in liver disease?
A. It mainly causes constipation
B. It reliably improves prognosis
C. It is a negative prognostic factor
D. It only affects early disease

back 159

C. It is a negative prognostic factor

front 160

Which complication is associated with poor nutritional status in cirrhosis?
A. Hepatorenal syndrome
B. Nephrotic syndrome
C. Acute pancreatitis
D. Diverticulosis

back 160

A. Hepatorenal syndrome

front 161

Which additional complication is linked to protein-calorie malnutrition in cirrhosis?
A. Achalasia
B. Celiac sprue
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Refractory ascites

back 161

D. Refractory ascites

front 162

A patient with cirrhosis and worsening nutritional status is at increased risk for which major bleeding complication?
A. Mallory-Weiss tear
B. Variceal hemorrhage
C. Hemorrhoids
D. Ischemic colitis

back 162

B. Variceal hemorrhage

front 163

A patient with decompensated cirrhosis has severe malnutrition. Which infectious complication is associated with poor nutritional status?
A. Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
B. Viral gastroenteritis
C. Clostridioides difficile colitis
D. Acute cholangitis

back 163

A. Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

front 164

A patient with cirrhosis asks about everyday dietary choices to support liver health. Which recommendation is most appropriate?
A. Emphasize sweets over grains
B. Avoid all carbohydrates
C. Increase whole grains and limit sweets
D. Eliminate all dietary fat

back 164

C. Increase whole grains and limit sweets

front 165

A patient with cirrhosis has anorexia and significant malnutrition. Which nutritional strategy is most appropriate?
A. Restrict calories until appetite returns
B. Increase calories with energy-dense foods
C. Avoid fat completely
D. Limit meals to once daily

back 165

B. Increase calories with energy-dense foods

front 166

A patient with cirrhosis but no encephalopathy is worried about protein intake. Which guidance is most appropriate?
A. Protein should always be avoided
B. Protein should stay very low
C. Protein is never needed
D. Adequate protein is needed to prevent catabolism

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D. Adequate protein is needed to prevent catabolism

front 167

A patient with cirrhosis develops acute hepatic encephalopathy. How should protein intake be handled during this period?
A. Protein should be increased sharply
B. Protein should remain unchanged
C. Temporary protein restriction may be used
D. Protein must be eliminated indefinitely

back 167

C. Temporary protein restriction may be used

front 168

A patient with cirrhosis and acute encephalopathy is having protein adjusted. Which principle is most appropriate?
A. Avoid making protein excessively low
B. Remove all oral nutrition
C. Use sweets as the main calories
D. Start raw seafood for protein

back 168

A. Avoid making protein excessively low

front 169

A patient with cirrhosis asks which food should be specifically avoided because of infection risk. Which is most important to avoid?
A. Whole grains
B. Cooked legumes
C. Refined cereals
D. Raw shellfish

back 169

D. Raw shellfish

front 170

A patient with cirrhosis develops clinically significant ascites. Which dietary approach is most appropriate?
A. High-sodium intake
B. Sodium restriction with fluid limitation
C. High-fiber loading only
D. Unlimited fluids for renal support

back 170

B. Sodium restriction with fluid limitation

front 171

A middle-aged woman presents with biliary colic and is found to have gallstones. Which mechanism most directly contributes to cholelithiasis?
A. Lithogenic bile and gallbladder stasis
B. Pancreatic lipase excess
C. Small-bowel villous atrophy
D. Colonic motor dysfunction

back 171

A. Lithogenic bile and gallbladder stasis

front 172

A patient with symptomatic gallstones asks which stone type is most common overall. Which is the best answer?
A. Pigment stones
B. Calcium oxalate stones
C. Cholesterol stones
D. Uric acid stones

back 172

C. Cholesterol stones

front 173

A pregnant patient asks why her clinician is more concerned about gallstones during pregnancy. Which statement is most accurate?
A. Pregnancy lowers bile cholesterol
B. Pregnancy is a risk factor
C. Pregnancy prevents gallbladder stasis
D. Pregnancy reduces biliary crystallization

back 173

B. Pregnancy is a risk factor

front 174

An older patient with obesity develops recurrent postprandial right upper quadrant pain and is found to have gallstones. Which additional factor is a recognized risk factor?
A. Male sex
B. High dietary fiber
C. Young age
D. Female sex

back 174

D. Female sex

front 175

A patient loses weight rapidly on a very restrictive diet and then develops gallstones. Which statement best explains this association?
A. Rapid weight loss increases risk
B. Weight loss prevents crystallization
C. Weight loss improves gallbladder emptying
D. Weight loss lowers biliary stasis

back 175

A. Rapid weight loss increases risk

front 176

A patient with new gallstones asks which dietary pattern likely contributed most. Which is the best answer?
A. High polyunsaturated fat intake
B. High saturated fat and refined sugars
C. High whole-grain intake
D. High monounsaturated fat intake

back 176

B. High saturated fat and refined sugars

front 177

Which additional contributor is specifically associated with increased gallstone risk?
A. Certain medications
B. Probiotic use
C. Calcium supplementation
D. Soluble fiber intake

back 177

A. Certain medications

front 178

Lower gallstone risk?
A. Trans fats and monounsaturated fats
B. Polyunsaturated and monounsaturated fats
C. Hydrogenated and monounsaturated fats
D. Short-chain saturated and monounsaturated fats

back 178

B. Polyunsaturated and monounsaturated fats

front 179

fat female forty fertile fair

back 179

gallstones

front 180

Bowel rest is often indicated with gradual diet advancement in (Diverticulitis/Diverticulosis)

back 180

Diverticulitis