front 1 Sensory neuron fibers are classified into four major groups primarily by: A. Neurotransmitter and origin | back 1 B. Size and function |
front 2 Largest diameter, proprioception: A. A-delta | back 2 D. A-alpha |
front 3 Proprioception, light touch, deep touch A. A-delta | back 3 C. A-beta |
front 4 Pain, cold temperature, itch A. A-delta | back 4 A. A-delta |
front 5 Smallest diameter, warm temperature, itch A. A-delta | back 5 B. C |
front 6 Compared with smaller unmyelinated fibers, larger myelinated fibers generally conduct: A. More slowly | back 6 B. More rapidly |
front 7 The cell bodies of primary sensory neurons are located in the: A. Ventral horn | back 7 B. Dorsal root ganglion |
front 8 Primary sensory neurons are termed pseudounipolar because they have: A. Two dendrites, no axon | back 8 C. One process splitting in two |
front 9 In a pseudounipolar sensory neuron, one process extends peripherally while the other projects into the: A. Cerebellar cortex | back 9 B. Spinal cord gray matter |
front 10 A band of numbness across the chest corresponds to sensory loss from one spinal root level. This region is called a: A. Myotome | back 10 C. Dermatome |
front 11 The primary axons of the posterior column pathway are best described as: A. Small, unmyelinated pain fibers | back 11 B. Large, myelinated sensory fibers |
front 12 Posterior column fibers first enter the spinal cord through the: A. Ventral root | back 12 C. Dorsal root |
front 13 After entering the spinal cord, first-order posterior column axons ascend in which location before synapsing? A. Contralateral lateral funiculus | back 13 B. Ipsilateral posterior column |
front 14 A lesion interrupts first-order posterior column fibers before they synapse. These axons normally ascend to the: A. Thalamus in pons | back 14 C. Medulla nuclei |
front 15 Which statement correctly describes the organization of the posterior column pathway? A. One tract, one nucleus | back 15 B. Two tracts, two nuclei |
front 16 Sensory fibers carrying proprioception from the lower limb ascend in which fasciculus? A. Fasciculus cuneatus | back 16 C. Fasciculus gracilis |
front 17 Which part of the posterior column contains fibers from the lower limbs and trunk? A. Lateral cuneate portion | back 17 B. Medial gracile portion |
front 18 A lesion damages the nucleus that receives posterior column input from the lower limbs. Which nucleus is affected? A. Nucleus cuneatus | back 18 C. Nucleus gracilis |
front 19 Fibers from the upper limb, upper trunk above T6, and neck ascend in the: A. Medial gracile fasciculus | back 19 B. Lateral cuneate fasciculus |
front 20 Posterior column fibers from the upper limb ultimately synapse on second-order neurons in the: A. Nucleus gracilis | back 20 C. Nucleus cuneatus |
front 21 A hemicord lesion damages the lateral portion of the posterior column at a cervical level. Which sensory region is most affected? A. Lower limb | back 21 B. Upper limb and neck |
front 22 After first-order posterior column fibers synapse in the caudal medulla, the second-order neurons cross the midline as the: A. External arcuate fibers | back 22 C. Internal arcuate fibers |
front 23 Once these second-order neurons decussate in the medulla, they ascend contralaterally as the: A. Medial lemniscus | back 23 A. Medial lemniscus |
front 24 A small lesion selectively damages the ventral portion of the medial lemniscus in the medulla. Which body region’s proprioceptive information is most likely affected? A. Face | back 24 D. Foot and lower limb |
front 25 A small lesion selectively damages the dorsal portion of the medial lemniscus in the medulla. Which body region’s proprioceptive information is most likely affected? A. Face | back 25 B. Upper limb |
front 26 A midbrain lesion damages the lateral portion of the medial lemniscus. Which sensory stream is most likely impaired? A. Facial touch | back 26 C. Lower limb proprioception |
front 27 In the midbrain, fibers from the upper limb are located in which part of the medial lemniscus? A. Medial portion | back 27 A. Medial portion |
front 28 The medial-lateral arrangement of body fibers in the pons and midbrain is best described as: A. Identical to spinal cord | back 28 B. Opposite the spinal cord |
front 29 Second-order neurons of the dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway synapse on third-order neurons in which thalamic nucleus? A. Ventral posterior medial | back 29 C. Ventral posterior lateral |
front 30 After synapsing in the VPL, body sensory fibers reach cortex by passing through the: A. Posterior limb, internal capsule | back 30 A. Posterior limb, internal capsule |
front 31 Thalamocortical somatosensory projections from the VPL terminate primarily in the: A. Precentral gyrus | back 31 D. Postcentral gyrus |
front 32 Most thalamocortical sensory fibers terminate in which cortical layer of primary somatosensory cortex? A. Layer II | back 32 D. Layer VI |
front 33 Touch sensation from the face reaches the thalamus primarily through the trigeminal lemniscus and then synapses in the: A. VPL nucleus | back 33 D. VPM nucleus |
front 34 A patient loses pain and temperature sensation after injury to the anterolateral pathway. Which tract is primarily involved? A. Dorsal spinocerebellar tract | back 34 C. Spinothalamic tract |
front 35 The primary afferents entering the spinothalamic pathway are best described as: A. Large, heavily myelinated fibers | back 35 B. Small, often unmyelinated fibers |
front 36 Which sensory modalities are primarily carried by the spinothalamic tract? A. Fine touch, vibration, proprioception | back 36 B. Pain, temperature, gross touch |
front 37 First-order spinothalamic fibers enter the spinal cord through the: A. Ventral root | back 37 C. Dorsal root |
front 38 After entering the spinal cord, spinothalamic primary afferents first synapse mainly in which regions? A. Lamina I and V | back 38 A. Lamina I and V |
front 39 A painful stimulus applied to the foot travels in fibers that may ascend or descend a few spinal segments before synapsing. These fibers are traveling in: A. Anterior white commissure | back 39 B. Lissauer tract |
front 40 Which statement best describes the crossing pattern of spinothalamic second-order neurons? A. They cross in medulla | back 40 C. They cross in anterior commissure |
front 41 A right lateral spinal cord lesion at T8 causes loss of left-sided pain and temperature beginning a few segments below the lesion. This occurs because spinothalamic fibers: A. Cross immediately at entry | back 41 B. Cross after 2–3 segments |
front 42 In the spinal cord, lower-limb pain and temperature fibers within the anterolateral white matter are located: A. Most medially | back 42 D. Most laterally |
front 43 In the spinothalamic tract, upper-limb fibers are located: A. Most medially | back 43 A. Most medially |
front 44 Most ascending spinothalamic fibers carrying body sensation synapse in which thalamic nucleus? A. VPM | back 44 B. VPL |
front 45 Some spinothalamic fibers terminate in the intralaminar nuclei of the thalamus, contributing especially to: A. Fine touch discrimination | back 45 B. Emotional arousal of pain |
front 46 Besides the intralaminar nuclei, some spinothalamic fibers also project to the: A. Mediodorsal nucleus | back 46 A. Mediodorsal nucleus |
front 47 After thalamic processing, spinothalamic sensory information ultimately projects to the: A. Precentral gyrus | back 47 C. Postcentral gyrus |
front 48 Besides the spinothalamic tract, which tract in the anterolateral column is most associated with the emotional and arousal aspects of pain? A. Dorsal spinocerebellar tract | back 48 B. Spinoreticular tract |
front 49 Fibers in the spinoreticular tract terminate primarily in the: A. Ventral posterior nucleus | back 49 D. Medullary-pontine reticular formation |
front 50 The medullary-pontine reticular formation projects mainly to which thalamic nuclei in this pain pathway? A. Geniculate nuclei | back 50 B. Intralaminar nuclei |
front 51 Unlike the spinothalamic tract, the spinoreticular tract does not project to cortex in a: A. Bilateral pattern | back 51 B. Somatotopic pattern |
front 52 Diffuse cortical projections from the spinoreticular system are thought to promote: A. Behavioral arousal | back 52 A. Behavioral arousal |
front 53 Which anterolateral tract projects to the periaqueductal gray matter and superior colliculus? A. Spinocerebellar tract | back 53 C. Spinomesencephalic tract |
front 54 The spinomesencephalic tract is most directly involved in: A. Position sense | back 54 B. Central pain modulation |
front 55 In the notes, the spinomesencephalic tract is summarized as helping to: A. Localize pain | back 55 C. Resolve pain |
front 56 Somatosensory information from primary cortex is conveyed next to the secondary somatosensory association cortex located in the: A. Sylvian fissure region | back 56 A. Sylvian fissure region |
front 57 The secondary somatosensory association cortex lies in the region called the: A. Uncus | back 57 C. Parietal operculum |
front 58 Further higher-order processing of somatosensory information occurs in the superior parietal lobule, which includes Brodmann areas: A. 9 and 10 | back 58 B. 5 and 7 |
front 59 Cortical sensory loss is most likely caused by lesions of the: A. Basal ganglia and association areas | back 59 C. Somatosensory cortex and association areas |
front 60 Gate control theory proposes that activation of which fibers can reduce pain at the dorsal horn? A. A-delta fibers | back 60 A. A-delta fibers |
front 61 Rubbing or flicking an injured area may lessen pain because nonpain sensory input can: A. Amplify spinothalamic firing | back 61 B. Reduce pain in dorsal horn |
front 62 The periaqueductal gray receives input from the hypothalamus, amygdala, and cortex in order to: A. Initiate voluntary movement | back 62 B. Modulate pain |
front 63 Descending pain inhibition from the periaqueductal gray reaches the dorsal horn through a relay in the: A. Red nucleus | back 63 C. Rostral ventral medulla |
front 64 In this descending pain-modulating system, the rostral ventral medulla uses which neurotransmitter to influence the dorsal horn? A. Serotonin | back 64 A. Serotonin |
front 65 The notes also state that the rostral ventral medulla responds to substance P by projecting which transmitter into the dorsal horn? A. Glycine | back 65 C. Norepinephrine |
front 66 An opioid analgesic reduces pain by acting on receptors distributed throughout which system? A. Corticospinal motor pathway | back 66 B. Pain modulation pathway |
front 67 Opiate receptors are present in many locations, but their highest concentrations are found on the: A. Thalamus and cortex | back 67 D. Peripheral nerves and dorsal horn |
front 68 Which set contains only endogenous opiates? A. Serotonin, dynorphin, glutamate | back 68 C. Enkephalin, endorphin, dynorphin |
front 69 Enkephalins and dynorphins are specifically noted to be present in the dorsal horn and also in the: A. RVM and periaqueductal gray | back 69 A. RVM and periaqueductal gray |
front 70 Which endogenous opioid is specifically associated with the hypothalamus rather than being listed directly in the dorsal horn? A. Dynorphin | back 70 D. Endorphin |
front 71 The hypothalamic location of endorphin is relevant because the hypothalamus is connected to the: A. Ventral posterior nucleus | back 71 B. Periaqueductal gray matter |
front 72 The thalamus is part of which major brain division? A. Mesencephalon | back 72 D. Diencephalon |
front 73 Relative to the midbrain, the thalamus is located: A. Rostral | back 73 A. Rostral |
front 74 Which structure lies ventral to the thalamus? A. Epithalamus | back 74 B. Hypothalamus |
front 75 Nearly all pathways that project to the cerebral cortex do so by first synapsing in the: A. Thalamus | back 75 A. Thalamus |
front 76 In addition to sensory pathways, which motor-related systems relay information to the cerebrum through the thalamus? A. Corticospinal and spinothalamic systems | back 76 B. Cerebellum and basal ganglia |
front 77 Thalamic nuclei generally receive strong feedback from the: A. Cortical areas they supply | back 77 A. Cortical areas they supply |
front 78 Thalamic nuclei involved in motor and sensory projection are most often: A. Bilateral and diffuse | back 78 B. Localized |
front 79 _____ Nuclei= relays inputs from many pathways to the cortex in reciporical fashion. includes medial, lateral, and anteiror nuclear groups | back 79 Relay |
front 80 _____ Nuclei= within the internal medullary lamina of the thalamus and is involved with relay of inputs from the basal ganglia to widespread cortical locations and is involved in relay of ARAS which promotes alertness | back 80 Intralaminar |
front 81 _____ Nucleus= located in sheet lateral to thalamus within its
capsule and has a mainly inihibitory role within the
thalamus relaying thalamic inputs back to the thalamus
and | back 81 Reticular |
front 82 A patient with a lesion in a major somatosensory pathway reports abnormal tingling despite objective sensory loss. This symptom is best described as: A. Dysarthria | back 82 B. Paresthesia |
front 83 A patient reports numbness, tingling, and a tight band-like sensation around the limb. Which lesion location best matches this symptom pattern? A. Posterior column | back 83 A. Posterior column |
front 84 A lesion of the anterolateral column is most likely to produce which abnormal sensory complaint? A. Tight band-like numbness | back 84 C. Sharp, burning pain |
front 85 A patient develops severe contralateral pain after a thalamic stroke. This syndrome is called: A. Brown-Séquard syndrome | back 85 D. Dejerine-Roussy syndrome |
front 86 Flexing the neck causes an electric shock-like sensation running down the back and into both arms. This finding is called: A. Romberg sign | back 86 C. Lhermitte sign |
front 87 A patient has pain and numbness radiating down the lateral leg in a dermatomal pattern, and the pain worsens when the nerve root is stretched. This is most consistent with: A. Mononeuropathy | back 87 B. Radiculopathy |
front 88 Which statement best describes symptoms from a peripheral nerve lesion compared with radiculopathy? A. They never cause numbness | back 88 C. They produce symptoms in the nerve’s region |
front 89 An unpleasant, abnormal sensory experience that is not simply decreased sensation is termed: A. Dysesthesia | back 89 A. Dysesthesia |
front 90 Pain produced by a stimulus that is normally not painful is called: A. Hyperpathia | back 90 B. Allodynia |
front 91 A pinprick that is mildly painful in most people causes an exaggerated painful response in a patient with central sensitization. This is best termed: A. Hyperpathia or hyperalgesia | back 91 A. Hyperpathia or hyperalgesia |
front 92 Decreased sensation on neurologic examination is termed: A. Hypalgesia | back 92 B. Hypesthesia |
front 93 The most common cause of spinal cord dysfunction is: A. Intrinsic demyelination | back 93 C. Extrinsic compression |
front 94 A patient with spinal cord dysfunction is expected to develop both motor and sensory deficits beginning: A. At unrelated random levels | back 94 B. At the same general level |
front 95 Immediately after a traumatic spinal cord injury, a patient has flaccid paralysis, absent deep tendon reflexes, hypotension, and loss of sphincter tone. This phase is called: A. Neuroleptic rigidity | back 95 B. Spinal shock |
front 96 As spinal shock resolves over time, which pattern is most likely to emerge? A. Hyperreflexia and spasticity | back 96 A. Hyperreflexia and spasticity |
front 97 An older patient with long-standing cervical spondylosis develops progressive spinal cord dysfunction over months. This presentation is most consistent with: A. Acute myelitis | back 97 B. Chronic myelopathy |
front 98 Degenerative disorders of the spine can produce both upper and lower motor neuron signs because they may compress both the: A. Cerebellum and brainstem | back 98 D. Nerve roots and cord |
front 99 A patient has metastatic spinal cord compression but is still walking. What is the most important management principle from the notes? A. Decompress immediately | back 99 A. Decompress immediately |
front 100 When a compressive spinal tumor is detected and removed before the patient loses ambulation, the expected outcome is best summarized as: A. Most still lose walking | back 100 B. Most keep walking ability |
front 101 The most common site of metastatic tumor causing spinal cord compression is the: A. Epidural space | back 101 A. Epidural space |
front 102 Spinal cord infarction most commonly results from occlusion of which vessel? A. Posterior spinal artery | back 102 D. Anterior spinal artery |
front 103 Occlusion of the anterior spinal artery most classically produces: A. Brown-Séquard syndrome | back 103 C. Anterior cord syndrome |
front 104 Watershed infarcts are infarcts occurring in tissue located: A. Between arterial territories | back 104 A. Between arterial territories |
front 105 Which region is specifically identified as a vulnerable watershed zone in the spinal cord? A. Cervicomedullary junction | back 105 C. Mid-thoracic cord |
front 106 A vascular defect that can be difficult to diagnose yet may cause transient episodes of spinal cord dysfunction is: A. Cavernous malformation | back 106 D. Spinal dural AVM |
front 107 Myelitis is best defined as: A. Inflammation of spinal cord | back 107 A. Inflammation of spinal cord |
front 108 A patient develops rapidly progressive spinal cord dysfunction with fever, elevated WBC count, and bright T2 signal abnormalities on spinal MRI. Which cause is specifically listed in the material? A. Epidural lipomatosis | back 108 C. Epidural abscess |
front 109 If myelitis is not treated immediately, the major feared consequence is: A. Only transient numbness | back 109 B. Irreversible spinal damage |
front 110 A 61-year-old man cannot identify a key placed in his left hand with eyes closed, but pinprick, vibration, and crude touch are largely preserved. The lesion is most likely in the: A. Right primary somatosensory cortex | back 110 A. Right primary somatosensory cortex |
front 111 A patient with a right parietal cortical lesion is most likely to have which sensory deficit pattern? A. Ipsilateral pain and temperature loss | back 111 B. Contralateral sensory deficit predominance |
front 112 Which sensory modalities are often most affected by a lesion of the primary somatosensory cortex? A. Pain and temperature | back 112 C. Discriminatory touch and proprioception |
front 113 A patient has intact primary sensation but cannot recognize numbers traced on the palm and ignores simultaneous stimulation on the affected side. This pattern is most consistent with: A. Cortical sensory loss | back 113 A. Cortical sensory loss |
front 114 A small infarct of the left VPL nucleus would most likely cause: A. Ipsilateral body sensory loss | back 114 B. Contralateral body sensory loss |
front 115 A thalamic lesion extends beyond the VPL/VPM into adjacent structures. Which additional finding may occur? A. Aphasia or neglect | back 115 C. Hemiplegia or hemianopia |
front 116 A lesion of the thalamic somatosensory radiation is most likely to produce sensory loss plus: A. Hemiparesis from corticospinal involvement | back 116 A. Hemiparesis from corticospinal involvement |
front 117 Sensory deficits from lesions of the VPL/VPM nuclei are most often noticed by patients in the: A. Trunk and proximal legs | back 117 B. Hands and face |
front 118 A dorsolateral brainstem infarct causes loss of pain and temperature on the left face and right body. The lesion is most likely in the: A. Right medial medulla | back 118 C. Left lateral pons or medulla |
front 119 The crossed sensory findings in a lateral pontine or lateral medullary lesion are due to involvement of the: A. Medial lemniscus and VPL | back 119 B. Trigeminal nucleus and spinothalamic tract |
front 120 A lesion of the medial medulla involving the medial lemniscus would most likely cause: A. Contralateral vibration and proprioception loss | back 120 A. Contralateral vibration and proprioception loss |
front 121 A diabetic patient reports gradually progressive numbness in both feet that later involves the hands, in a symmetric distal pattern. This is most characteristic of: A. Brown-Sequard syndrome | back 121 D. Distal symmetrical polyneuropathy |
front 122 “Glove and stocking” sensory loss most strongly localizes to the: A. Primary sensory cortex | back 122 B. Nerve roots or peripheral nerves |
front 123 A complete transverse lesion of the thoracic spinal cord would interrupt: A. Only sensory pathways below lesion | back 123 C. All sensory and motor pathways below lesion |
front 124 Which of the following is a recognized cause of a transverse cord lesion? A. Migraine aura | back 124 C. Transverse myelitis |
front 125 del | back 125 del |
front 126 In Brown-Sequard syndrome, ipsilateral upper motor neuron weakness results from damage to the: A. Lateral corticospinal tract | back 126 A. Lateral corticospinal tract |
front 127 In Brown-Sequard syndrome, contralateral pain loss is caused by damage to the: A. Posterior column | back 127 C. Anterolateral column |
front 128 A patient with spinal cord hemisection has ipsilateral loss of vibration, light touch, and proprioception below the lesion. The damaged structure is the: A. Anterolateral system | back 128 B. Posterior column |
front 129 Which of the following is a recognized cause of Brown-Sequard syndrome? A. Penetrating injury | back 129 A. Penetrating injury |
front 130 A 29-year-old man develops a spinal cord injury in the cervical region. He loses pain and temperature sensation over both shoulders and arms in a “cape-like” pattern, but other sensory findings are initially limited. Which spinal cord syndrome best explains this pattern? A. Anterior cord syndrome | back 130 C. Central cord syndrome |
front 131 Which of the following is a common cause of central cord syndrome? A. B12 deficiency | back 131 C. Spinal contusion |
front 132 A 55-year-old man has loss of vibration sense and proprioception below a spinal cord lesion. Pain and temperature are preserved. Which syndrome is most likely? A. Posterior cord syndrome | back 132 A. Posterior cord syndrome |
front 133 A patient with untreated vitamin deficiency develops progressive loss of vibration and joint position sense. A large lesion later produces upper motor neuron signs. Which syndrome best matches this presentation? A. Central cord syndrome | back 133 B. Posterior cord syndrome |
front 134 A patient cannot feel pain or temperature below a spinal cord lesion, but vibration and proprioception remain intact. He also develops bowel and bladder incontinence. Which syndrome is most likely? A. Posterior cord syndrome | back 134 C. Anterior cord syndrome |
front 135 Which cause is classically associated with anterior cord syndrome? A. Tertiary syphilis | back 135 C. Anterior spinal artery infarct |
front 136 Sensory information from the rectum, bladder, and genitals enters the spinal cord through which roots? A. T11-L1 | back 136 C. S2-S4 |
front 137 Sensory signals from the rectum, bladder, and genitals reach higher centers through: A. Dorsal columns only | back 137 D. Both somatosensory pathways |
front 138 Voluntary somatic motor fibers that control the pelvic floor arise primarily from: A. Anterior horn at S2-S4 | back 138 A. Anterior horn at S2-S4 |
front 139 The sphincteromotor nucleus of Onuf primarily controls the: A. Detrusor and trigone | back 139 B. Urethral and anal sphincters |
front 140 Parasympathetic outflow to the pelvis arises from the: A. Intermediolateral column T11-L2 | back 140 D. Sacral nuclei at S2-S4 |
front 141 Sympathetic outflow to the pelvis arises mainly from the: A. Intermediolateral column T11-S2 | back 141 A. Intermediolateral column T11-S2 |
front 142 For a central nervous system lesion to reliably impair bowel, bladder, or sexual function, it usually must be: A. Unilateral and cortical | back 142 C. Bilateral |
front 143 Normal bladder emptying is best described as being under: A. Reflex control only | back 143 B. Voluntary control |
front 144 During normal filling, conscious awareness of bladder fullness depends on sensation reaching the: A. Sensory cortex | back 144 A. Sensory cortex |
front 145 The conscious initiation of voiding begins with activation of the: A. Lateral hypothalamus | back 145 D. Medial frontal micturition centers |
front 146 Which structure is the main regulator coordinating the voiding program once micturition is initiated? A. Onuf nucleus | back 146 C. Pontine micturition center |
front 147 Voluntary relaxation of the external sphincter during urination first helps by: A. Activating sympathetics | back 147 B. Inhibiting internal sphincter sympathetics |
front 148 During normal voiding, parasympathetic activation causes the: A. Detrusor to contract | back 148 A. Detrusor to contract |
front 149 Once urination begins, continued sensation of urine flow mainly: A. Inhibits detrusor contraction | back 149 D. Maintains the voiding reflex |
front 150 When urine flow stops, bladder emptying normally ends because the: A. Pontine center is destroyed | back 150 B. Detrusor relaxes via urethral reflex |
front 151 A patient with bilateral frontal lobe damage urinates automatically when the bladder fills and is unaware of fullness. The damaged area most likely is the: A. Sacral parasympathetic nuclei | back 151 C. Medial frontal micturition centers |
front 152 Bilateral lesions of the medial frontal micturition centers typically cause: A. Overflow retention only | back 152 D. Reflex incontinence without awareness |
front 153 Which condition is a recognized cause of bilateral medial frontal micturition center damage? A. Hydrocephalus | back 153 A. Hydrocephalus |
front 154 A spinal cord lesion below the pontine micturition center but above the conus medullaris first produces which bladder state? A. Spastic bladder | back 154 C. Atonic bladder |
front 155 Weeks after a spinal cord lesion below the pontine micturition center and above the conus medullaris, the bladder most often becomes: A. Permanently areflexic | back 155 B. Hyperreflexive and spastic |
front 156 A patient with an early flaccid neurogenic bladder has marked urinary retention. Which additional finding is most expected in the more severe form? A. Sacral anesthesia only | back 156 C. Bladder distention |
front 157 In a less severe atonic bladder, the patient voids incompletely. Which measurement would be increased? A. Bladder compliance | back 157 B. Post-void residual volume |
front 158 A patient with a spastic neurogenic bladder feels sudden urgency even when the bladder contains only a small amount of urine. What is the main problem? A. Detrusor-sphincter dyssynergia | back 158 A. Detrusor-sphincter dyssynergia |
front 159 In a hyperreflexive bladder, the abnormal urgency is mainly caused by: A. Internal sphincter fibrosis | back 159 B. Detrusor spasms at low volume |
front 160 A hyperreflexive bladder is also called a: A. Atonic bladder | back 160 C. Spastic bladder |
front 161 Which of the following can cause either an atonic bladder or a hyperreflexive bladder? A. Cataracts | back 161 B. Spinal tumors |
front 162 Multiple sclerosis can cause which bladder problem? A. Only stress incontinence | back 162 D. Atonic or hyperreflexive bladder |
front 163 Trauma involving the nervous system can lead to: A. Only spastic bladder | back 163 C. Atonic or spastic bladder |
front 164 Peripheral neuropathies usually cause which bladder pattern? A. Flaccid more than spastic | back 164 A. Flaccid more than spastic |
front 165 In peripheral neuropathy, flaccid bladder commonly occurs because of loss of: A. Sympathetic flow to trigone | back 165 B. Parasympathetic flow to detrusor |
front 166 A patient with diabetic neuropathy develops urinary dribbling from an overfilled bladder. Which diagnosis best fits? A. Stress incontinence | back 166 C. Overflow incontinence |
front 167 Which condition is classically associated with flaccid neurogenic bladder from peripheral nerve involvement? A. Hydrocephalus | back 167 B. Diabetic neuropathy |
front 168 Which lower spinal condition can cause a flaccid bladder? A. Temporal lobe seizure | back 168 C. Cauda equina syndrome |
front 169 A large lumbar disc herniation most commonly causes which bladder pattern if sacral pathways are affected? A. Spastic bladder | back 169 B. Flaccid bladder |
front 170 Parasympathetic stimulation of GI motility proximal to the descending colon is supplied mainly by: A. CN III | back 170 D. CN X |
front 171 Bowel dysfunction of neurological origin can result from damage to which locations? A. Only frontal cortex | back 171 D. Brain, cord, or sacral roots |
front 172 Sensation from the genitals is carried mainly by the: A. Obturator nerve | back 172 B. Pudendal nerve |
front 173 Genital sensory fibers enter the spinal cord primarily at: A. L1-L2 | back 173 C. S2-S4 |
front 174 del | back 174 del |
front 175 In females, parasympathetic stimulation causes Bartholin glands to: A. Stop secreting mucus | back 175 B. Secrete mucus |
front 176 In females, vaginal secretions are stimulated mainly by: A. Sympathetics | back 176 A. Sympathetics |
front 177 In both sexes, erection is primarily mediated by: A. Sympathetics | back 177 B. Parasympathetics |
front 178 In males, ejaculation is primarily mediated by a: A. Parasympathetic skin reflex | back 178 B. Sympathetic reflex |
front 179 During male ejaculation, which muscle type contracts along the reproductive tract? A. Cardiac muscle | back 179 C. Smooth muscle |
front 180 Which of the following can also contribute to sexual dysfunction besides spinal cord disease? A. Peripheral nerve disease | back 180 A. Peripheral nerve disease |
front 181 Syringomyelia is best defined as a: A. Brainstem aneurysm | back 181 B. Fluid-filled spinal cavity |
front 182 Which of the following is a recognized cause of syringomyelia? A. Congenital abnormalities | back 182 A. Congenital abnormalities |
front 183 Posttraumatic syringomyelia is best described as: A. Immediate spinal hemorrhage | back 183 B. Delayed sequela of SCI |