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Path 17A

front 1

In esophageal atresia, the obstructed segment is replaced by a:
A. Thin non-canalized cord
B. Hypertrophied muscle ring
C. Necrotic fibrous band
D. Dilated mucosal pouch

back 1

A. Thin non-canalized cord

front 2

The main consequence of esophageal atresia is:
A. Functional obstruction
B. Mechanical obstruction
C. Vascular compression
D. Neuromuscular dysphagia

back 2

B. Mechanical obstruction

front 3

Esophageal atresia most commonly occurs near the:
A. Gastroesophageal junction
B. Cricopharyngeus muscle
C. Tracheal bifurcation
D. Distal stomach

back 3

C. Tracheal bifurcation

front 4

Esophageal atresia is usually associated with a fistula to the:
A. Bronchus or trachea
B. Pleural cavity only
C. Pharyngeal pouch only
D. Aortic arch

back 4

A. Bronchus or trachea

front 5

The most common form of congenital intestinal atresia is:
A. Jejunal atresia
B. Duodenal atresia
C. Ileal atresia
D. Imperforate anus

back 5

D. Imperforate anus

front 6

Imperforate anus results from failure of the:
A. Vitelline duct to regress
B. Cloacal diaphragm to involute
C. Tracheoesophageal septum to form
D. Urorectal septum to descend

back 6

B. Cloacal diaphragm to involute

front 7

Diaphragmatic hernia results when incomplete formation of the diaphragm allows:
A. Air into the mediastinum
B. Pleura into the abdomen
C. Abdominal viscera into thorax
D. Esophagus into the neck

back 7

C. Abdominal viscera into thorax

front 8

Omphalocele is best described as:
A. Failure of gut rotation
B. Ventral sac herniation
C. Diaphragmatic rupture
D. Acquired fascial defect

back 8

B. Ventral sac herniation

front 9

Omphalocele occurs because closure of the abdominal musculature is:
A. Delayed only
B. Excessive
C. Incomplete
D. Inflamed

back 9

C. Incomplete

front 10

Omphalocele is commonly associated with:
A. Other birth defects
B. Hirschsprung disease only
C. pyloric atresia only
D. Isolated reflux only

back 10

A. Other birth defects

front 11

The most frequent site of ectopic gastric mucosa is the:
A. Distal ileum
B. Upper third esophagus
C. Sigmoid colon
D. Gastric antrum

back 11

B. Upper third esophagus

front 12

Ectopic gastric mucosa in the upper esophagus is called:
A. Zenker patch
B. A ring
C. Inlet patch
D. B ring

back 12

C. Inlet patch

front 13

Gastric heterotopia refers to ectopic gastric mucosa in the:
A. Small bowel or colon
B. Distal esophagus only
C. Oral cavity only
D. Appendix only

back 13

A. Small bowel or colon

front 14

Gastric heterotopia may present with blood loss from:
A. Variceal rupture
B. Angiodysplasia
C. Hemorrhoids
D. Peptic ulcerations

back 14

D. Peptic ulcerations

front 15

A true diverticulum is a blind outpouching that:
A. Lacks luminal communication
B. Contains all three layers
C. Contains mucosa only
D. Always becomes inflamed

back 15

B. Contains all three layers

front 16

The most common true diverticulum is:
A. Zenker diverticulum
B. Sigmoid diverticulum
C. Meckel diverticulum
D. Traction diverticulum

back 16

C. Meckel diverticulum

front 17

Meckel diverticulum most commonly occurs in the:
A. Duodenum
B. Jejunum
C. Sigmoid colon
D. Ileum

back 17

D. Ileum

front 18

The most common site of acquired diverticula is the:
A. Transverse colon
B. Cecum
C. Ileum
D. Sigmoid colon

back 18

D. Sigmoid colon

front 19

Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is more common in:
A. Males
B. Females
C. Turner patients only
D. Premature infants only

back 19

A. Males

front 20

Which syndrome increases risk of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?
A. Marfan syndrome
B. Turner syndrome
C. Down syndrome
D. Noonan syndrome

back 20

B. Turner syndrome

front 21

Which trisomy is linked to hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?
A. Trisomy 13
B. Trisomy 21
C. Trisomy 18
D. Trisomy 16

back 21

C. Trisomy 18

front 22

Which antibiotic exposure in the first 2 weeks increases pyloric stenosis risk?
A. Gentamicin
B. Azithromycin
C. Amoxicillin
D. Metronidazole

back 22

B. Azithromycin

front 23

Another antibiotic linked to pyloric stenosis risk is:
A. Erythromycin
B. Vancomycin
C. Ceftriaxone
D. Doxycycline

back 23

A. Erythromycin

front 24

Hirschsprung disease is also called:
A. Congenital pyloric stenosis
B. Functional ileus syndrome
C. Congenital aganglionic megacolon
D. Distal colonic atresia

back 24

C. Congenital aganglionic megacolon

front 25

Hirschsprung disease results from abnormal migration or loss of:
A. Smooth muscle cells
B. Neural crest-derived ganglion cells
C. Enterochromaffin cells
D. Mesothelial cells

back 25

B. Neural crest-derived ganglion cells

front 26

Definitive diagnosis of Hirschsprung disease requires absence of:
A. Goblet cells
B. Paneth cells
C. Ganglion cells
D. Chief cells

back 26

C. Ganglion cells

front 27

Ganglion cells in Hirschsprung evaluation may be identified using stains for:
A. Creatine kinase
B. Acetylcholinesterase
C. Myeloperoxidase
D. Acid phosphatase

back 27

B. Acetylcholinesterase

front 28

Functional obstruction of the esophagus results from disruption of:
A. Coordinated peristalsis
B. LES blood flow
C. Mucosal regeneration
D. Gastric acid secretion

back 28

A. Coordinated peristalsis

front 29

Nutcracker esophagus is characterized by:
A. Absent lower sphincter tone
B. Distal perforation
C. High-amplitude distal contractions
D. Proximal web formation

back 29

C. High-amplitude distal contractions

front 30

Nutcracker esophagus reflects loss of coordination between the:
A. Mucosa and serosa
B. Circular and longitudinal muscle
C. Vagus and phrenic nerves
D. Upper and lower sphincters

back 30

B. Circular and longitudinal muscle

front 31

Zenker diverticulum results from impaired relaxation and spasm of the:
A. Lower esophageal sphincter
B. Pyloric sphincter
C. Cricopharyngeus muscle
D. Ileocecal valve

back 31

C. Cricopharyngeus muscle

front 32

Zenker diverticulum usually develops after age:
A. 20
B. 35
C. 40
D. 50

back 32

D. 50

front 33

A large Zenker diverticulum commonly causes:
A. Regurgitation and halitosis
B. Hematemesis and melena
C. Jaundice and pruritus
D. Tenesmus and fever

back 33

A. Regurgitation and halitosis

front 34

Esophageal stenosis is commonly caused by chronic GERD, irradiation, or:
A. Malrotation
B. Caustic injury
C. Vagotomy
D. Diverticulosis

back 34

B. Caustic injury

front 35

Patients with benign esophageal strictures generally maintain:
A. Appetite and weight
B. Hearing and vision
C. Posture and tone
D. Temperature and pulse

back 35

A. Appetite and weight

front 36

Malignant esophageal strictures are more often associated with:
A. Hyperphagia
B. Polyuria
C. Weight loss
D. Hematuria

back 36

C. Weight loss

front 37

Distal esophageal rings above the GE junction are called:
A. B rings
B. C rings
C. A rings
D. D rings

back 37

C. A rings

front 38

A rings are covered by:
A. Gastric cardia-type mucosa
B. Squamous mucosa
C. Intestinal metaplasia
D. Respiratory epithelium

back 38

B. Squamous mucosa

front 39

Rings at the squamocolumnar junction of the lower esophagus are:
A. A rings
B. Web rings
C. Traction rings
D. B rings

back 39

D. B rings

front 40

The undersurface of a B ring contains:
A. Colonic-type mucosa
B. Squamous mucosa only
C. Gastric cardia-type mucosa
D. Pancreatic acini

back 40

C. Gastric cardia-type mucosa

front 41

Achalasia is characterized by incomplete relaxation of the:
A. Upper esophageal sphincter
B. Lower esophageal sphincter
C. Pyloric sphincter
D. Ileocecal sphincter

back 41

B. Lower esophageal sphincter

front 42

In achalasia, LES tone is typically:
A. Decreased
B. Normal
C. Increased
D. Absent

back 42

C. Increased

front 43

A classic motility feature of achalasia is:
A. Hyperperistalsis
B. Aperistalsis
C. Reverse peristalsis only
D. Pylorospasm

back 43

B. Aperistalsis

front 44

Which symptom pattern best fits achalasia?
A. Dysphagia solids only
B. Dysphagia liquids only
C. Dysphagia to solids and liquids
D. Odynophagia with diarrhea

back 44

C. Dysphagia to solids and liquids

front 45

Another common achalasia symptom is:
A. Easy belching
B. Difficult belching
C. Hematochezia
D. Chronic cough only

back 45

B. Difficult belching

front 46

Primary achalasia results from degeneration of distal esophageal:
A. Inhibitory neurons
B. Skeletal myocytes
C. Epithelial stem cells
D. Goblet cells

back 46

A. Inhibitory neurons

front 47

Primary achalasia causes inability to relax the LES because of:
A. Muscular rupture
B. Inflammatory fibrosis only
C. Ganglion cell degeneration
D. Vagal hyperstimulation

back 47

C. Ganglion cell degeneration

front 48

Secondary achalasia may occur in:
A. Crohn disease
B. Chagas disease
C. Celiac disease
D. Ulcerative colitis

back 48

B. Chagas disease

front 49

In Chagas disease, secondary achalasia is caused by destruction of the:
A. Submucosal plexus only
B. Serosal mesothelium
C. Myenteric plexus
D. Muscularis mucosae

back 49

C. Myenteric plexus

front 50

Secondary achalasia in Chagas disease leads to failure of peristalsis and:
A. Esophageal dilatation
B. Gastric volvulus
C. Pyloric closure
D. Colonic ischemia

back 50

A. Esophageal dilatation

front 51

A patient has achalasia, alacrima, and ACTH-resistant adrenal insufficiency. This syndrome is:
A. Allgrove syndrome
B. MEN 2A
C. Cowden syndrome
D. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

back 51

A. Allgrove syndrome

front 52

Triple A syndrome is inherited in an:
A. Autosomal dominant pattern
B. Autosomal recessive pattern
C. X-linked recessive pattern
D. Mitochondrial pattern

back 52

B. Autosomal recessive pattern

front 53

Longitudinal mucosal tears near the gastroesophageal junction are called:
A. Boerhaave ruptures
B. Zenker diverticula
C. Mallory-Weiss tears
D. Schatzki rings

back 53

C. Mallory-Weiss tears

front 54

After forceful vomiting, a patient develops transmural rupture of the distal esophagus. This is:
A. Achalasia
B. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
C. Eosinophilic esophagitis
D. Boerhaave syndrome

back 54

D. Boerhaave syndrome

front 55

The most feared complication of Boerhaave syndrome is:
A. Barrett metaplasia
B. Severe mediastinitis
C. Tracheoesophageal fistula
D. Portal hypertension

back 55

B. Severe mediastinitis

front 56

In otherwise healthy individuals, infectious esophagitis is usually caused by:
A. Herpes simplex virus
B. Candida albicans
C. Cytomegalovirus
D. Adenovirus

back 56

A. Herpes simplex virus

front 57

Endoscopic “punched-out” esophageal ulcers most strongly suggest:
A. CMV infection
B. Reflux esophagitis
C. Eosinophilic esophagitis
D. Herpes simplex virus

back 57

D. Herpes simplex virus

front 58

The glands most prominent in the proximal and distal esophagus are the:
A. Mucosal glands only
B. Brunner glands
C. Submucosal glands
D. Oxyntic glands

back 58

C. Submucosal glands

front 59

Esophageal submucosal glands protect mucosa by secreting:
A. Mucin and bicarbonate
B. Pepsin and acid
C. Bile and phospholipids
D. Histamine and gastrin

back 59

A. Mucin and bicarbonate

front 60

LES relaxation contributing to GERD can be mediated by:
A. Sympathetic pathways
B. Vagal pathways
C. Phrenic pathways
D. Somatic reflex arcs

back 60

B. Vagal pathways

front 61

Which can trigger reflux-related LES relaxation?
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Gastric distention
D. Hypovolemia

back 61

C. Gastric distention

front 62

Hiatal hernia is defined by:
A. Distal esophageal ganglion loss
B. Gastric volvulus only
C. Diaphragmatic eventration
D. Stomach protrusion into thorax

back 62

D. Stomach protrusion into thorax

front 63

Symptoms of hiatal hernia most commonly resemble:
A. Achalasia
B. GERD
C. Boerhaave syndrome
D. Diffuse spasm

back 63

B. GERD

front 64

Most patients with eosinophilic esophagitis are:
A. Atopic
B. Heavy alcohol users
C. Chronically uremic
D. Immunocompromised

back 64

A. Atopic

front 65

The cardinal histologic feature of eosinophilic esophagitis is:
A. Basal ganglion loss
B. Villous blunting
C. Transmural neutrophils
D. Superficial intraepithelial eosinophils

back 65

D. Superficial intraepithelial eosinophils

front 66

Failure to improve with high-dose PPI favors:
A. GERD
B. Viral esophagitis
C. Eosinophilic esophagitis
D. Hiatal hernia

back 66

C. Eosinophilic esophagitis

front 67

Barrett esophagus is a complication of chronic GERD marked by:
A. Intestinal metaplasia
B. Smooth muscle hypertrophy
C. Squamous dysplasia only
D. Transmural ulceration

back 67

A. Intestinal metaplasia

front 68

The major concern in Barrett esophagus is increased risk of:
A. Squamous carcinoma
B. Adenocarcinoma
C. Leiomyosarcoma
D. Small cell carcinoma

back 68

B. Adenocarcinoma

front 69

Diagnosis of Barrett esophagus requires:
A. Positive fecal occult blood
B. Weight loss and dysphagia
C. Columnar mucosa above GEJ
D. Loss of ganglion cells

back 69

C. Columnar mucosa above GEJ

front 70

The most common benign esophageal tumor is:
A. Papilloma
B. Lipoma
C. Fibroma
D. Leiomyoma

back 70

D. Leiomyoma

front 71

Esophageal leiomyomas usually arise within the:
A. Esophageal wall
B. Mucosal surface
C. Lymphatic channels
D. Subserosal fat

back 71

A. Esophageal wall

front 72

Rising rates of esophageal adenocarcinoma are most linked to:
A. CMV esophagitis/Barrett
B. Obesity-related GERD/Barrett
C. Alcohol-related retching/Barrett
D. Congenital rings/Barrett

back 72

B. Obesity-related GERD/Barrett

front 73

Additional risk factors for esophageal adenocarcinoma include:
A. Asthma and eczema
B. Burns and trauma
C. Achalasia and alacrima
D. Tobacco and radiation

back 73

D. Tobacco and radiation

front 74

Esophageal adenocarcinoma most often arises in the:
A. Upper third
B. Middle third
C. Distal third
D. Cervical esophagus

back 74

C. Distal third

front 75

Esophageal adenocarcinoma often invades the adjacent:
A. Duodenal bulb
B. Gastric cardia
C. Tracheal bifurcation
D. Pancreatic head

back 75

B. Gastric cardia

front 76

Most esophageal squamous cell carcinomas are associated with:
A. Tobacco and alcohol
B. Obesity and GERD
C. Barrett metaplasia
D. Eosinophilic inflammation

back 76

A. Tobacco and alcohol

front 77

About half of esophageal squamous cell carcinomas occur in the:
A. Distal esophagus only
B. Upper third
C. GE junction
D. Middle third

back 77

C. GE junction

front 78

Squamous cancers in the upper third most often spread to:
A. Cervical lymph nodes
B. Celiac lymph nodes
C. Axillary lymph nodes
D. Inguinal lymph nodes

back 78

A. Cervical lymph nodes

front 79

Middle-third esophageal tumors most often spread to:
A. Gastric/paratracheal/tracheobronchial nodes nodes
B. Mediastinal/paratracheal/tracheobronchial nodes
C. Cervical nodes/paratracheal/tracheobronchial nodes
D. Mesenteric/paratracheal/tracheobronchial nodes

back 79

B. Mediastinal/paratracheal/tracheobronchial nodes

front 80

Lower-third esophageal tumors most often spread to:
A. Cervical and celiac nodes
B. Axillary and celiac nodes
C. Gastric and celiac nodes
D. Inguinal and celiac nodes

back 80

C. Gastric and celiac nodes

front 81

NSAIDs injure gastric mucosa by inhibiting COX-dependent synthesis of:
A. Gastrin and secretin
B. Leukotrienes C4 and D4
C. Nitric oxide and endothelin
D. Prostaglandins E2 and I2

back 81

D. Prostaglandins E2 and I2

front 82

Gastric prostaglandins E2 and I2 normally:
A. Increase acid secretion
B. Reduce mucosal blood flow
C. Support mucosal defense
D. Inhibit epithelial restitution

back 82

C. Support mucosal defense

front 83

Ammonium ions in uremia or H. pylori may cause injury by inhibiting gastric:
A. Chloride channels
B. Potassium pumps
C. Sodium channels
D. Bicarbonate transporters

back 83

D. Bicarbonate transporters

front 84

Proximal duodenal ulcers associated with severe burns or trauma are:
A. Cushing ulcers
B. Curling ulcers
C. Stress erosions
D. Aftoid ulcers

back 84

B. Curling ulcers

front 85

Which esophageal tear typically requires surgical intervention?
A. Boerhaave syndrome
B. Mallory-Weiss tear
C. Eosinophilic esophagitis
D. Hiatal hernia

back 85

A. Boerhaave syndrome

front 86

Gastric, duodenal, and esophageal ulcers occurring with intracranial disease are called:
A. Cushing ulcers
B. Curling ulcers
C. Stress erosions
D. Peptic ulcers

back 86

A. Cushing ulcers

front 87

Cushing ulcers are notable for a high incidence of:
A. Obstruction
B. Hematochezia
C. Perforation
D. Intussusception

back 87

C. Perforation

front 88

Stress-related gastric mucosal injury most often results from local:
A. Autoimmunity
B. Ischemia
C. Hyperplasia
D. Metaplasia

back 88

B. Ischemia

front 89

A contributor to stress-related gastric injury is:
A. Increased bicarbonate secretion
B. Reduced endothelin release
C. Increased mucosal perfusion
D. Splanchnic vasoconstriction

back 89

D. Splanchnic vasoconstriction

front 90

A Dieulafoy lesion is caused by a:
A. Mucosal venous malformation
B. Large unbranched submucosal artery
C. Distal esophageal tear
D. Hypertrophied muscularis mucosa

back 90

B. Large unbranched submucosal artery

front 91

The most common site of a Dieulafoy lesion is the:
A. Lesser curvature near GEJ
B. Gastric fundus
C. Distal duodenum
D. Mid-esophagus

back 91

A. Lesser curvature near GEJ

front 92

Bleeding from a Dieulafoy lesion is often:
A. Malignant
B. Painlessly obstructive
C. Due to varices
D. Self-limited

back 92

D. Self-limited

front 93

H. pylori organisms are best described as:
A. Gram-positive cocci
B. Branching filamentous rods
C. Spiral or curved bacilli
D. Encapsulated diplococci

back 93

C. Spiral or curved bacilli

front 94

H. pylori is present in almost all patients with:
A. Duodenal ulcers
B. Crohn gastritis
C. Autoimmune gastritis
D. Mallory-Weiss tears

back 94

A. Duodenal ulcers

front 95

Acute H. pylori infection usually:
A. Causes severe epigastric pain
B. Produces no notable symptoms
C. Causes major GI bleeding
D. Leads to immediate cancer

back 95

B. Produces no notable symptoms

front 96

Compared with acute infection, chronic H. pylori infection more often:
A. Remains entirely silent
B. Produces only perforation
C. Causes adrenal insufficiency
D. Comes to medical attention

back 96

D. Comes to medical attention

front 97

H. pylori most often presents as:
A. Body-predominant gastritis
B. Pangastritis with achlorhydria
C. Antral-predominant gastritis
D. Fundic granulomatous gastritis

back 97

C. Antral-predominant gastritis

front 98

In typical H. pylori antral gastritis, acid production is:
A. Always absent
B. Normal or increased
C. Severely decreased
D. Irrelevant diagnostically

back 98

B. Normal or increased

front 99

In H. pylori gastritis, local gastrin may rise, but _____ is uncommon.
A. Hypergastrinemia
B. Dysphagia
C. Achalasia
D. Pernicious anemia

back 99

A. Hypergastrinemia

front 100

Which H. pylori gene is linked to higher gastric cancer risk?
A. APC
B. RET
C. CagA
D. KRAS

back 100

C. CagA

front 101

CagA-expressing strains can colonize the gastric body and cause:
A. Distal esophageal webs
B. Acute appendicitis
C. Autoimmune thyroiditis
D. Multifocal atrophic gastritis

back 101

D. Multifocal atrophic gastritis

front 102

Which cytokine pattern is linked to pangastritis and gastric cancer?
A. ↑TNF/IL-1β, ↓IL-10
B. ↓TNF/IL-1β, ↑IL-10
C. ↑IL-10, ↓gastrin
D. ↑IFN-γ, ↓acid only

back 102

A. ↑TNF/IL-1β, ↓IL-10

front 103

Intraepithelial neutrophils and subepithelial plasma cells suggest:
A. Autoimmune gastritis
B. H. pylori gastritis
C. Viral esophagitis
D. Lymphocytic colitis

back 103

B. H. pylori gastritis

front 104

Lymphoid aggregates with germinal centers in H. pylori gastritis represent induced:
A. Peyer patches
B. Lamina propria fibrosis
C. Paneth cell metaplasia
D. MALT

back 104

D. MALT

front 105

H. pylori-associated MALT may transform into:
A. Adenocarcinoma
B. Leiomyoma
C. Lymphoma
D. Carcinoid tumor

back 105

C. Lymphoma

front 106

Autoimmune gastritis typically spares the:
A. Fundus
B. Antrum
C. Body
D. Oxyntic mucosa

back 106

B. Antrum

front 107

Autoimmune gastritis is commonly associated with:
A. Hypergastrinemia
B. Hyperchlorhydria
C. Hypopepsinuria
D. Hypoglycemia

back 107

A. Hypergastrinemia

front 108

Autoimmune gastritis often features antibodies to parietal cells and:
A. Pepsin
B. Gastrin
C. Intrinsic factor
D. Mucin

back 108

C. Intrinsic factor

front 109

Loss of parietal cells causes impaired secretion of:
A. Bile and pepsin
B. Gastrin and mucus
C. Pepsinogen and bile
D. Acid and intrinsic factor

back 109

D. Acid and intrinsic factor

front 110

Reduced serum pepsinogen I in autoimmune gastritis reflects loss of:
A. Chief cells
B. G cells
C. Goblet cells
D. Paneth cells

back 110

A. Chief cells

front 111

The principal agents of injury in autoimmune gastritis are:
A. Neutrophils
B. CD4+ T cells
C. Eosinophils
D. Plasma cells

back 111

B. CD4+ T cells

front 112

Autoimmune gastritis mainly damages the oxyntic mucosa of the:
A. Antrum and pylorus
B. Cardia and antrum
C. GE junction only
D. Body and fundus

back 112

D. Body and fundus

front 113

Vitamin B12 deficiency from autoimmune gastritis can cause:
A. Nephrolithiasis
B. Pancreatitis
C. Peripheral neuropathy
D. Hemarthrosis

back 113

C. Peripheral neuropathy

front 114

Lymphocytic gastritis preferentially affects:
A. Women
B. Men
C. Neonates
D. Elderly smokers

back 114

A. Women

front 115

Lymphocytic gastritis is strongly associated with:
A. Chagas disease
B. Alcohol use
C. H. pylori only
D. Celiac disease

back 115

D. Celiac disease

front 116

Histologically, lymphocytic gastritis shows increased:
A. Plasma cells
B. Intraepithelial T lymphocytes
C. Eosinophils
D. Neutrophilic abscesses

back 116

B. Intraepithelial T lymphocytes

front 117

Lymphocytic gastritis often involves the:
A. Antrum only
B. Fundus only
C. Entire stomach
D. Distal duodenum only

back 117

C. Entire stomach

front 118

Another name for lymphocytic gastritis is:
A. Giant hypertrophic gastritis
B. Reactive gastropathy
C. Atrophic pangastritis
D. Varioliform gastritis

back 118

D. Varioliform gastritis

front 119

The most common specific cause of granulomatous gastritis is:
A. Crohn disease
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Tuberculosis
D. Ulcerative colitis

back 119

A. Crohn disease

front 120

After Crohn disease, granulomatous gastritis is next associated with:
A. GERD and Barrett
B. Hyperthyroidism and celiac
C. Sarcoidosis and infections
D. NSAIDs and smoking

back 120

C. Sarcoidosis and infections

front 121

Peptic ulcer disease refers to chronic mucosal ulceration of the:
A. Esophagus or duodenum
B. Stomach or duodenum
C. Jejunum or duodenum
D. Colon or rectum

back 121

B. Stomach or duodenum

front 122

Nearly all peptic ulcers are associated with H. pylori, NSAIDs, or:
A. Cigarette smoking
B. Lactose intolerance
C. Achalasia
D. Gallstones

back 122

A. Cigarette smoking

front 123

H. pylori is present in about what fraction of chronic gastritis cases?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 90%

back 123

D. 90%

front 124

Autoimmune gastritis may also show:
A. Villous atrophy
B. Endocrine cell hyperplasia
C. Mural thrombosis
D. Transmural fissures

back 124

B. Endocrine cell hyperplasia

front 125

The most common form of peptic ulcer disease occurs in the:
A. Gastric antrum or duodenum
B. Fundus or cardia
C. Jejunum or ileum
D. Esophagus or colon

back 125

A. Gastric antrum or duodenum

front 126

The most common peptic ulcers are most strongly linked to chronic:
A. Autoimmune gastritis
B. H. pylori gastritis
C. Viral gastritis
D. Granulomatous gastritis

back 126

B. H. pylori gastritis

front 127

H. pylori-related peptic ulcer disease is associated with:
A. Decreased acid, increased bicarbonate
B. Increased acid, increased bicarbonate
C. Increased acid, decreased duodenal bicarbonate
D. Decreased acid, decreased bicarbonate

back 127

C. Increased acid, decreased duodenal bicarbonate

front 128

In patients older than 60, increased duodenal peptic ulcer disease is especially associated with:
A. Corticosteroid use
B. NSAID use
C. Celiac disease
D. Crohn disease

back 128

B. NSAID use

front 129

Duodenal peptic ulcer risk is particularly increased when low-dose aspirin is combined with:
A. Antibiotics
B. PPIs
C. Other NSAIDs
D. Anticoagulants only

back 129

C. Other NSAIDs

front 130

Peptic ulcer disease is also associated with cigarette use and cardiovascular disease because they decrease:
A. Mucosal blood flow and healing
B. Gastrin and acid secretion
C. Duodenal motility and appetite
D. Intrinsic factor and pepsin

back 130

A. Mucosal blood flow and healing

front 131

Most duodenal peptic ulcers occur:
A. In the distal duodenum
B. Near the ligament of Treitz
C. In the proximal duodenum
D. In the jejunum

back 131

C. In the proximal duodenum

front 132

Duodenal peptic ulcers are usually located within a few centimeters of the:
A. GE junction
B. Pyloric valve
C. Ampulla of Vater
D. Ileocecal valve

back 132

B. Pyloric valve

front 133

The duodenal wall most commonly involved by peptic ulcer is the:
A. Posterior wall
B. Lateral wall
C. Inferior wall
D. Anterior wall

back 133

D. Anterior wall

front 134

Gastric peptic ulcers are most commonly found along the:
A. Greater curvature
B. Cardia
C. Lesser curvature
D. Fundus

back 134

C. Lesser curvature

front 135

Gastric peptic ulcers are typically located near the interface of the:
A. Body and antrum
B. Cardia and fundus
C. Fundus and body
D. Pylorus and duodenum

back 135

A. Body and antrum

front 136

Pain from peptic ulcer disease is typically:
A. Better 1–3 hours after meals
B. Worse 1–3 hours after meals
C. Unchanged by meals
D. Only present with fasting

back 136

B. Worse 1–3 hours after meals

front 137

Peptic ulcer pain is classically:
A. Better at night
B. Worse at night
C. Only morning-predominant
D. Absent during sleep

back 137

B. Worse at night

front 138

Nighttime peptic ulcer pain is often relieved by:
A. Exercise only
B. Alkali or food
C. Vomiting only
D. Water restriction

back 138

B. Alkali or food

front 139

The type of gastritis with the greatest risk of gastric adenocarcinoma is:
A. H. pylori gastritis
B. Lymphocytic gastritis
C. Reactive gastropathy
D. Autoimmune gastritis

back 139

D. Autoimmune gastritis

front 140

In autoimmune gastritis, increased cancer risk may relate to:
A. Hyperchlorhydria
B. Rapid gastric emptying
C. Achlorhydria with bacterial overgrowth
D. Excess pepsin secretion

back 140

C. Achlorhydria with bacterial overgrowth

front 141

Bacterial overgrowth in autoimmune gastritis may increase formation of carcinogenic:
A. Ketone bodies
B. Nitrosamines
C. Bile salts
D. Leukotrienes

back 141

B. Nitrosamines

front 142

Hypertrophic gastropathies are characterized by giant cerebriform enlargement of rugal folds due to:
A. Inflammation and ulceration
B. Smooth muscle hypertrophy
C. Epithelial hyperplasia without inflammation
D. Fibrosis and calcification

back 142

C. Epithelial hyperplasia without inflammation

front 143

Hypertrophic gastropathies are linked to excessive release of:
A. Histamine
B. Growth factors
C. Pepsin
D. Somatostatin

back 143

B. Growth factors

front 144

Menetrier disease is associated with excessive secretion of:
A. TGF-α
B. TNF-α
C. EGF receptor blockade
D. IL-10

back 144

A. TGF-α

front 145

Menetrier disease is characterized by diffuse hyperplasia of the:
A. Chief cells
B. Parietal cells
C. Foveolar epithelium
D. Enterochromaffin cells

back 145

C. Foveolar epithelium

front 146

Menetrier disease most prominently affects the:
A. Antrum and fundus
B. Body and fundus
C. Pylorus and fundus
D. GE junction only

back 146

B. Body and fundus

front 147

A major clinical consequence of Menetrier disease is:
A. Protein-losing enteropathy
B. Massive GI perforation
C. Esophageal varices
D. Pancreatic insufficiency

back 147

A. Protein-losing enteropathy

front 148

Fundic gland polyps occur sporadically and in patients with:
A. Lynch syndrome
B. MEN1
C. Familial Adenomatous Polyposis
D. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

back 148

C. Familial Adenomatous Polyposis

front 149

The rising prevalence of fundic gland polyps is linked to increased use of:
A. H2 blockers
B. PPIs
C. NSAIDs
D. Bile acid binders

back 149

B. PPIs

front 150

PPIs increase fundic gland polyps in part by causing increased:
A. Secretin secretion
B. Motilin release
C. Gastrin secretion
D. Somatostatin tone

back 150

C. Gastrin secretion

front 151

Increased gastrin promotes growth of:
A. Oxyntic glands
B. Paneth cells
C. Goblet cells
D. Brunner glands

back 151

A. Oxyntic glands

front 152

Dysplasia and carcinoma may occur in:
A. Sporadic fundic gland polyps only
B. FAP-associated fundic gland polyps
C. All hyperplastic polyps equally
D. Menetrier disease only

back 152

B. FAP-associated fundic gland polyps

front 153

Sporadic fundic gland polyps carry:
A. High cancer risk
B. Moderate lymphoma risk
C. No cancer risk
D. Only sarcoma risk

back 153

C. No cancer risk

front 154

In gastric adenomas, adenocarcinoma risk is most related to:
A. Patient age alone
B. Lesion size
C. Presence of H. pylori only
D. Degree of acid secretion

back 154

B. Lesion size

front 155

Gastric adenomas are usually:
A. Multiple and fundic
B. Solitary and under 2 cm
C. Diffuse and infiltrative
D. Pedunculated and duodenal

back 155

B. Solitary and under 2 cm

front 156

Gastric adenomas are most commonly located in the:
A. Fundus
B. Body
C. Cardia
D. Antrum

back 156

D. Antrum

front 157

Gastric adenomas are best classified as:
A. Hamartomatous lesions
B. Reactive lesions
C. Premalignant neoplastic lesions
D. Purely inflammatory lesions

back 157

C. Premalignant neoplastic lesions

front 158

Compared with intestinal adenomas, gastric adenomas have a:
A. Lower invasive cancer risk
B. Similar invasive cancer risk
C. Much higher invasive cancer risk
D. Negligible malignant potential

back 158

C. Much higher invasive cancer risk

front 159

The most common malignancy of the stomach is:
A. Lymphoma
B. GIST
C. Neuroendocrine tumor
D. Adenocarcinoma

back 159

D. Adenocarcinoma

front 160

Gastric adenocarcinoma accounts for more than:
A. 50% of gastric cancers
B. 70% of gastric cancers
C. 90% of gastric cancers
D. 99% of gastric cancers

back 160

C. 90% of gastric cancers

front 161

The intestinal type of gastric adenocarcinoma typically forms:
A. Diffuse infiltrative thickening
B. Bulky masses
C. Pure ulcers only
D. Signet-ring sheets only

back 161

B. Bulky masses

front 162

The diffuse type of gastric adenocarcinoma characteristically:
A. Forms exophytic polyps
B. Produces only mucosal plaques
C. Infiltrates and thickens the wall
D. Spares the muscularis

back 162

C. Infiltrates and thickens the wall

front 163

The diffuse type of gastric adenocarcinoma is composed of:
A. Reed-Sternberg cells
B. Signet ring cells
C. Plasma cells
D. Squamous pearls

back 163

B. Signet ring cells

front 164

Spread of gastric adenocarcinoma to the pouch of Douglas is called:
A. Krukenberg tumor
B. Blumer shelf
C. Irish node
D. Virchow node

back 164

B. Blumer shelf

front 165

Blumer shelf may be detected on:
A. Thyroid exam
B. Pelvic ultrasound only
C. Rectal exam
D. Chest percussion

back 165

C. Rectal exam

front 166

The overall reduction in gastric cancer is most closely related to decreased prevalence of:
A. Crohn disease
B. NSAID use
C. H. pylori
D. Barrett esophagus

back 166

C. H. pylori

front 167

Another contributor to declining gastric cancer rates may be reduced intake of dietary:
A. Oxalates
B. N-nitroso compounds
C. Gluten peptides
D. Short-chain fatty acids

back 167

B. N-nitroso compounds

front 168

Familial gastric cancer is strongly associated with germline loss-of-function mutation in:
A. APC
B. KRAS
C. CDH1
D. TP53

back 168

C. CDH1

front 169

CDH1 encodes:
A. β-catenin
B. E-cadherin
C. N-cadherin
D. p16

back 169

B. E-cadherin

front 170

Loss of function of E-cadherin is a key step in development of:
A. Intestinal gastric cancer
B. Diffuse gastric cancer
C. MALT lymphoma
D. Duodenal adenoma

back 170

B. Diffuse gastric cancer

front 171

Sporadic intestinal-type gastric cancers are strongly associated with increased signaling through the:
A. Notch pathway
B. Hedgehog pathway
C. MAPK pathway
D. Wnt pathway

back 171

D. Wnt pathway

front 172

Increased Wnt signaling in sporadic intestinal-type gastric cancer can result from gain-of-function mutation in:
A. β-catenin
B. E-cadherin
C. SMAD4
D. PTEN

back 172

A. β-catenin

front 173

Increased Wnt signaling can also result from loss-of-function mutation in:
A. RET
B. APC
C. KIT
D. RB1

back 173

B. APC

front 174

Patients with FAP who carry germline mutations in which gene have increased risk of intestinal-type gastric cancer?
A. APC
B. KRAS
C. TP53
D. CDH1

back 174

A. APC

front 175

Most gastric adenocarcinomas involve the gastric:
A. Fundus
B. Cardia
C. Antrum
D. pylorus

back 175

C. Antrum

front 176

Compared with the greater curvature, gastric adenocarcinoma more often involves the:
A. lesser curvature
B. greater curvature
C. posterior wall
D. fundic dome

back 176

A. lesser curvature

front 177

Diffuse gastric cancer is composed of discohesive signet ring cells because of loss of:
A. APC
B. E-cadherin
C. KIT
D. chromogranin A

back 177

B. E-cadherin

front 178

Intestinal-type gastric cancer typically develops from precursor lesions such as:
A. adenomas and flat dysplasia
B. chronic ulcers and flat dysplasia
C. fundic polyps and flat dysplasia
D. carcinoid nodules and flat dysplasia

back 178

A. adenomas and flat dysplasia

front 179

Because most gastric cancers are discovered late, the overall 5-year survival is:
A. excellent
B. moderate
C. variable
D. low, under 30%

back 179

D. low, under 30%

front 180

Extranodal lymphomas most commonly arise in the GI tract, especially the:
A. jejunum
B. stomach
C. esophagus
D. colon

back 180

B. stomach

front 181

The most common primary gastric lymphoma is:
A. diffuse large B-cell
B. mantle cell lymphoma
C. marginal zone B-cell
D. Burkitt lymphoma

back 181

C. marginal zone B-cell

front 182

In the stomach, MALT is most often induced by:
A. chronic gastritis
B. autoimmune hepatitis
C. portal hypertension
D. acute pancreatitis

back 182

A. chronic gastritis

front 183

The most common inducer of gastric MALT is:
A. EBV
B. NSAID use
C. CMV
D. H. pylori

back 183

D. H. pylori

front 184

Gastric MALTomas can transform into tumors identical to:
A. Hodgkin lymphoma
B. diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
C. follicular lymphoma
D. plasmacytoma

back 184

B. diffuse large B-cell lymphoma

front 185

If NF-kB is constitutively active due to MALToma translocations, H. pylori treatment:
A. is curative
B. is partly effective
C. is not effective
D. is first-line anyway

back 185

C. is not effective

front 186

Gastric MALTomas typically express CD19 and:
A. CD20
B. CD3
C. CD5
D. CD10

back 186

A. CD20

front 187

Gastric carcinoid tumors may be associated with autoimmune chronic:
A. superficial gastritis
B. erosive gastritis
C. atrophic gastritis
D. viral gastritis

back 187

D. viral gastritis

front 188

A syndrome associated with gastric neuroendocrine tumors is:
A. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
B. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
C. Carney triad
D. Cowden syndrome

back 188

B. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

front 189

Neuroendocrine tumors within the stomach and duodenum ______ metastasize and are generally cured by resection.

a. rarely

b. often

back 189

a. rarely

front 190

Neuroendocrine tumors that arise in the ____ and ____ are often multiple and tend to be aggressive.

a. jejunum, ileum

b. stomach, ileum

c. duodenum, ileum

back 190

a. jejunum, ileum

front 191

Rectal neuroendocrine tumors tend to produce:
A. catecholamines
B. bile salts
C. polypeptide hormones
D. mucin only

back 191

C. polypeptide hormones

front 192

Symptomatic rectal neuroendocrine tumors may present with:
A. abdominal pain and weight loss
B. jaundice and ascites
C. dysphagia and regurgitation
D. hemoptysis and cough

back 192

A. abdominal pain and weight loss

front 193

The most common mesenchymal tumor in the abdomen is:
A. leiomyoma
B. liposarcoma
C. schwannoma
D. GI stromal tumor

back 193

D. GI stromal tumor

front 194

GISTs arise from the:
A. enteric ganglion cells
B. smooth muscle cells
C. interstitial cells of Cajal
D. submucosal fibroblasts

back 194

C. interstitial cells of Cajal

front 195

The cell of origin for GIST is found in the GI:
A. mucosa
B. muscularis propria
C. serosa
D. lamina propria

back 195

B. muscularis propria

front 196

Gastric GIST, paraganglioma, and pulmonary chondroma:
A. Johnson Triad
B. Carney Triad
C. Zollinger-Ellison Triad

back 196

B. Carney Triad

front 197

Carney triad is seen most often in:
A. elderly men
B. adolescent boys
C. middle-aged women
D. young women

back 197

D. young women

front 198

Most GISTs are due to gain-of-function mutations in:
A. APC or RB
B. KIT or PDGFRA
C. KRAS or NRAS
D. RET or ALK

back 198

B. KIT or PDGFRA

front 199

The most useful diagnostic marker for GIST is:
A. desmin
B. S100
C. KIT
D. CD20

back 199

C. KIT

front 200

Acquired pyloric stenosis in adults most often results from:
A. antral gastritis or nearby ulcers
B. congenital muscle hypertrophy
C. aganglionosis
D. volvulus formation

back 200

A. antral gastritis or nearby ulcers

front 201

In Hirschsprung disease, which segment is always involved?
A. cecum
B. sigmoid colon
C. ileum
D. rectum

back 201

D. rectum

front 202

The main symptom of esophageal mucosal webs is:
A. progressive odynophagia
B. non-progressive dysphagia
C. hematemesis
D. chest pain only

back 202

B. non-progressive dysphagia

front 203

Which feature best distinguishes diffuse gastric cancer from intestinal type?
A. precursor adenomas
B. bulky gland-forming masses
C. discohesive signet ring cells
D. high-risk geography

back 203

C. discohesive signet ring cells

front 204

Which statement is correct regarding gastric malignancy?
A. most are found early
B. stomach is uncommon for extranodal lymphoma
C. MALT is congenital in stomach
D. gastric adenocarcinoma often presents advanced

back 204

D. gastric adenocarcinoma often presents advanced