Print Options

Card layout: ?

← Back to notecard set|Easy Notecards home page

Instructions for Side by Side Printing
  1. Print the notecards
  2. Fold each page in half along the solid vertical line
  3. Cut out the notecards by cutting along each horizontal dotted line
  4. Optional: Glue, tape or staple the ends of each notecard together
  1. Verify Front of pages is selected for Viewing and print the front of the notecards
  2. Select Back of pages for Viewing and print the back of the notecards
    NOTE: Since the back of the pages are printed in reverse order (last page is printed first), keep the pages in the same order as they were after Step 1. Also, be sure to feed the pages in the same direction as you did in Step 1.
  3. Cut out the notecards by cutting along each horizontal and vertical dotted line
To print: Ctrl+PPrint as a list

194 notecards = 49 pages (4 cards per page)

Viewing:

Neuro 6

front 1

After a hemicord injury, a patient develops ipsilateral weakness below the lesion with impaired voluntary limb movement. Which tract is most directly damaged?
A. Posterior columns
B. Lateral corticospinal tract
C. Ventral spinocerebellar tract
D. Anterolateral pathway

back 1

B. Lateral corticospinal tract

front 2

A patient cannot detect toe vibration or joint position but still feels pinprick. Which pathway is primarily affected?
A. Corticospinal tract
B. Rubrospinal tract
C. Spinoreticular tract
D. Posterior columns

back 2

D. Posterior columns

front 3

A central cord lesion causes loss of pain, temperature, and crude touch sensation. Which pathway carries these modalities?
A. Anterolateral pathway
B. Posterior columns
C. Dorsal spinocerebellar tract
D. Lateral corticospinal tract

back 3

A. Anterolateral pathway

front 4

A neurosurgeon identifies the sulcus separating frontal from parietal cortex before resection. Which landmark is this?
A. Calcarine sulcus
B. Lateral sulcus
C. Rolandic sulcus
D. Parieto-occipital sulcus

back 4

C. Rolandic sulcus

front 5

A focal seizure arises from Brodmann area 4. Which gyrus contains this cortex?
A. Precentral gyrus
B. Postcentral gyrus
C. Superior frontal gyrus
D. Cingulate gyrus

back 5

A. Precentral gyrus

front 6

A cortical lesion involving Brodmann areas 3, 1, and 2 causes primary sensory loss. Where is the lesion?
A. Precentral gyrus
B. Inferior parietal lobule
C. Superior temporal gyrus
D. Postcentral gyrus

back 6

D. Postcentral gyrus

front 7

A patient has impaired interpretation of sensory input, but basic strength and basic sensation remain largely intact. Which cortex is most likely involved?
A. Primary motor cortex
B. Association cortex
C. Primary visual cortex
D. Ventral horn cortex

back 7

B. Association cortex

front 8

Penfield stimulation studies show an orderly body map across primary motor and sensory cortices. What is this arrangement called?
A. Laminar organization
B. Columnar organization
C. Somatotopic organization
D. Retinotopic organization

back 8

C. Somatotopic organization

front 9

The distorted body map classically drawn over the precentral gyrus is called the:
A. Motor homunculus
B. Sensory homunculus
C. Cerebellar homunculus
D. Basal homunculus

back 9

A. Motor homunculus

front 10

The distorted body map classically drawn over the postcentral gyrus is called the:
A. Motor homunculus
B. Cortical unculus
C. Sensory homunculus
D. Visual homunculus

back 10

C. Sensory homunculus

front 11

A parasagittal cortical infarct affects the leg area more than the arm area in primary sensorimotor cortex. Relative to the arm, the leg representation lies:
A. Inferior to the arm
B. Lateral to the arm
C. Posterior to the arm
D. Medial to the arm

back 11

D. Medial to the arm

front 12

In the posterior columns, lower-limb fibers are positioned how relative to upper-limb fibers?
A. Lateral to the arm
B. Medial to the arm
C. Anterior to the arm
D. Ventral to the arm

back 12

B. Medial to the arm

front 13

On cross-section, the spinal cord shows a butterfly-shaped central region surrounded by funiculi. The butterfly region is:
A. Gray matter
B. White matter
C. Pia mater
D. Central canal

back 13

A. Gray matter

front 14

Sensory neurons in the dorsal root ganglia send a central process into the cord. These axons characteristically:
A. Decussate immediately
B. Terminate ipsilaterally
C. Remain unbranched
D. Bifurcate

back 14

D. Bifurcate

front 15

The dorsal horn of spinal gray matter is involved mainly in:
A. Motor planning
B. Sensory processing
C. Endocrine output
D. Visceral efferents

back 15

B. Sensory processing

front 16

The ventral horn primarily contains:
A. Interneurons
B. Radicular arteries
C. Motor neurons
D. Sensory ganglia

back 16

C. Motor neurons

front 17

The intermediate zone of spinal gray matter contains:
A. Interneurons and specialized nuclei
B. Lower motor neurons and specialized nuclei
C. Only sensory relay cells and specialized nuclei
D. Ascending fasciculi and specialized nuclei

back 17

A. Interneurons and specialized nuclei

front 18

Lower motor neuron axons leave the spinal cord through the:
A. Dorsal horn
B. Dorsal root ganglion
C. Lateral funiculus
D. Ventral root filaments

back 18

D. Ventral root filaments

front 19

At which spinal level is white matter thickest?
A. Sacral cord
B. Cervical cord
C. Lumbar cord
D. Thoracic cord

back 19

B. Cervical cord

front 20

Which spinal region is composed mostly of gray matter?
A. Cervical cord
B. Thoracic cord
C. Sacral cord
D. Medullary cord

back 20

C. Sacral cord

front 21

The cervical and lumbosacral enlargements are most directly related to formation of:
A. Nerve plexuses
B. Meningeal folds
C. Denticulate ligaments
D. Dorsal columns

back 21

A. Nerve plexuses

front 22

Compared with thoracic levels, spinal gray matter is greater at:
A. Only cervical levels
B. Only lumbar levels
C. Thoracic and sacral levels
D. Cervical and lumbosacral levels

back 22

D. Cervical and lumbosacral levels

front 23

A histologic section from the thoracic cord shows a lateral horn. Which structure is found there?
A. Clarke nucleus only
B. Intermediolateral cell column
C. Gracile nucleus
D. Substantia gelatinosa

back 23

B. Intermediolateral cell column

front 24

Arterial supply to the spinal cord arises from branches of the:
A. Carotid and basilar arteries
B. Internal thoracic arteries
C. Vertebral and spinal radicular
D. Middle meningeal arteries

back 24

C. Vertebral and spinal radicular

front 25

The vertebral arteries directly give rise to the:
A. Anterior spinal artery
B. Posterior communicating artery
C. Great radicular artery
D. Internal thoracic artery

back 25

A. Anterior spinal artery

front 26

The anterior spinal artery runs along which surface of the spinal cord?
A. Dorsal surface
B. Lateral surface
C. Ventral surface
D. Posterolateral sulcus

back 26

C. Ventral surface

front 27

A lesion affecting the cord region that gives rise to the upper-limb plexus most likely involves the:
A. Sacral cord
B. Thoracic cord
C. Cervical enlargement
D. Conus medullaris

back 27

C. Cervical enlargement

front 28

A lesion affecting the cord region that gives rise to the lower-limb plexus most likely involves the:
A. Lumbosacral enlargement
B. Cervical enlargement
C. Thoracic cord
D. Dorsal horn

back 28

A. Lumbosacral enlargement

front 29

A posterior spinal artery infarct would most directly compromise blood flow to which spinal cord region?
A. Ventral surface only
B. Dorsal surface only
C. Central canal only
D. Lateral horn only

back 29

B. Dorsal surface only

front 30

How many posterior spinal arteries typically supply the cord?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

back 30

B. Two

front 31

The posterior spinal arteries usually arise from which vessels?
A. Basilar or superior cerebellar
B. Vertebral or PICA
C. Internal carotid or ACA
D. Aorta or radicular trunks

back 31

B. Vertebral or PICA

front 32

A surgeon ligates the artery of Adamkiewicz during aortic repair. Which cord regions are most threatened?
A. Cervical and upper thoracic
B. Upper thoracic and cervical
C. Lumbar and sacral
D. Midbrain and pons

back 32

C. Lumbar and sacral

front 33

The great radicular artery of Adamkiewicz most commonly enters between:
A. T1 and T4
B. T4 and T8
C. T9 and T12
D. L2 and L5

back 33

C. T9 and T12

front 34

The artery of Adamkiewicz usually arises from which side?
A. Right side
B. Left side
C. Either side equally
D. Midline branch

back 34

B. Left side

front 35

Across all variants, the artery of Adamkiewicz may arise anywhere from:
A. C5 to T4
B. T1 to T6
C. T3 to T9
D. T5 to L3

back 35

D. T5 to L3

front 36

During prolonged hypotension, which spinal cord region is especially vulnerable because it lies between major arterial territories?
A. C1 to C4
B. T4 to T8
C. T10 to L2
D. S1 to S4

back 36

B. T4 to T8

front 37

Batson’s plexus is clinically important because these epidural veins:
A. Lack valves
B. Drain into azygos only
C. Supply dorsal columns
D. Traverse posterior roots

back 37

A. Lack valves

front 38

A patient with prostate carcinoma develops vertebral epidural metastases after repeated Valsalva strain. The route is best explained by:
A. Vertebral artery embolization
B. Lymphatic retrograde spread
C. Valveless Batson plexus reflux
D. Subarachnoid venous stasis

back 38

C. Valveless Batson plexus reflux

front 39

Elevated intra-abdominal pressure can promote reflux through Batson’s plexus carrying:
A. Pulmonary emboli or metastases
B. Pelvic infection or metastases
C. Carotid thrombi or metastases
D. CSF into veins or metastases

back 39

B. Pelvic infection or metastases

front 40

Cerebellar and basal ganglia output returns to the cerebral cortex primarily via the:
A. Hypothalamus
B. Red nucleus
C. Thalamus
D. Superior colliculus

back 40

C. Thalamus

front 41

Which statement about cerebellar and basal ganglia motor output is most accurate?
A. They directly innervate LMNs
B. They bypass the thalamus
C. They project to dorsal roots
D. They do not reach LMNs directly

back 41

D. They do not reach LMNs directly

front 42

A patient has intact strength but cannot correctly perform a learned motor task on command. This deficit is called:
A. Ataxia
B. Apraxia
C. Dysmetria
D. Agraphesthesia

back 42

B. Apraxia

front 43

Apraxia is best defined as impaired:
A. Primary sensation with weakness
B. Reflexes despite paralysis
C. Higher-order motor planning
D. Tone with hyperreflexia

back 43

C. Higher-order motor planning

front 44

Which pair constitutes the two lateral motor systems?
A. Tectospinal and vestibulospinal
B. Reticulospinal and rubrospinal
C. Lateral corticospinal and rubrospinal
D. Anterior corticospinal and tectospinal

back 44

C. Lateral corticospinal and rubrospinal

front 45

Which tract is most associated with automatic posture and gait-related movements?
A. Tectospinal tract
B. Reticulospinal tracts
C. Rubrospinal tract
D. Fasciculus gracilis

back 45

B. Reticulospinal tracts

front 46

Coordination of head and eye movements is most closely associated with the:
A. Vestibulospinal tract
B. Corticobulbar tract
C. Reticulospinal tract
D. Tectospinal tract

back 46

D. Tectospinal tract

front 47

Which of the following is a medial motor system?
A. Rubrospinal tract
B. Lateral corticospinal tract
C. Reticulospinal tract
D. Spinothalamic tract

back 47

C. Reticulospinal tract

front 48

Which tract is the major pathway controlling extremity movement and is especially useful for clinical localization when injured?
A. Lateral corticospinal tract
B. Anterior corticospinal tract
C. Vestibulospinal tract
D. Tectospinal tract

back 48

A. Lateral corticospinal tract

front 49

Most corticospinal neurons arise from pyramidal cells in which cortical layer?
A. Layer 2
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 4
D. Layer 5

back 49

D. Layer 5

front 50

Layer 5 pyramidal cell projections can synapse directly onto ventral horn:
A. Sensory neurons only
B. Motor neurons only
C. Autonomic ganglia only
D. Dorsal root cells only

back 50

B. Motor neurons only

front 51

In addition to direct ventral horn motor neuron synapses, corticospinal fibers also synapse on:
A. Purkinje cells
B. Thalamic relay cells
C. Spinal interneurons
D. Dorsal column nuclei

back 51

C. Spinal interneurons

front 52

About 3% of corticospinal neurons are giant pyramidal cells called:
A. Golgi cells
B. Betz cells
C. Renshaw cells
D. Basket cells

back 52

B. Betz cells

front 53

The largest neurons in the human nervous system are:
A. Purkinje neurons
B. Alpha motor neurons
C. Betz cells
D. Mitral cells

back 53

C. Betz cells

front 54

Relative to the internal capsule, the thalamus and caudate nucleus are always:
A. Lateral
B. Superior
C. Inferior
D. Medial

back 54

D. Medial

front 55

Relative to the internal capsule, the globus pallidus and putamen are always:
A. Medial
B. Lateral
C. Inferior
D. Posterior

back 55

B. Lateral

front 56

Which list correctly names the three parts of the internal capsule?
A. Anterior limb, genu, posterior limb
B. Head, body, tail
C. Crus, tegmentum, tectum
D. Medial, central, lateral

back 56

A. Anterior limb, genu, posterior limb

front 57

The anterior limb of the internal capsule separates the head of the caudate from the:
A. Thalamus only
B. Claustrum and insula
C. Globus pallidus and putamen
D. Amygdala and uncus

back 57

C. Globus pallidus and putamen

front 58

The posterior limb of the internal capsule separates the thalamus from the:
A. Globus pallidus and putamen
B. Head of caudate only
C. Subthalamic nucleus only
D. Hippocampus and amygdala

back 58

A. Globus pallidus and putamen

front 59

In the pyramidal decussation, approximately what percentage of fibers cross to form the lateral corticospinal tract?
A. 60%
B. 70%
C. 85%
D. 95%

back 59

C. 85%

front 60

After crossing in the pyramidal decussation, lateral corticospinal fibers descend in the lateral:
A. Gray matter columns
B. White matter columns
C. Ventral roots
D. Dorsal horns

back 60

B. White matter columns

front 61

Axons of the lateral corticospinal tract enter spinal gray matter to synapse on:
A. Posterior horn cells
B. Intermediolateral neurons
C. Dorsal root neurons
D. Anterior horn cells

back 61

D. Anterior horn cells

front 62

Preganglionic sympathetic neurons are located in the:
A. Substantia gelatinosa
B. Nucleus ambiguus
C. Intermediolateral cell column
D. Clarke nucleus

back 62

C. Intermediolateral cell column

front 63

Sympathetic preganglionic neurons are found primarily at which spinal levels?
A. C1 to C8
B. T1 to L2/L3
C. L4 to S4
D. S2 to S4

back 63

B. T1 to L2/L3

front 64

The sympathetic trunk extends on each side from:
A. Thoracic to lumbar
B. Cervical to sacral
C. Cervical to thoracic
D. Lumbar to coccygeal

back 64

B. Cervical to sacral

front 65

The sympathetic trunk is clinically important because it allows thoracolumbar sympathetic efferents to:
A. Reach other body regions
B. Enter dorsal roots
C. Synapse in cortex
D. Bypass all ganglia

back 65

A. Reach other body regions

front 66

Sympathetic supply to the head and neck arises mainly from which spinal segments?
A. C1 to C3
B. C5 to T1
C. T1 to T3
D. T4 to T6

back 66

C. T1 to T3

front 67

Which set of ganglia supplies sympathetic fibers to the head and neck?
A. Otic, pterygopalatine, ciliary
B. Celiac, mesenteric, hypogastric
C. Dorsal root, nodose, geniculate
D. Superior, middle, inferior cervical

back 67

D. Superior, middle, inferior cervical

front 68

Which cervical sympathetic ganglion is often absent?
A. Superior cervical
B. Middle cervical
C. Inferior cervical
D. Stellate ganglion

back 68

B. Middle cervical

front 69

The inferior cervical ganglion is also called the:
A. Otic ganglion
B. Submandibular ganglion
C. Stellate ganglion
D. Celiac ganglion

back 69

C. Stellate ganglion

front 70

Unpaired sympathetic ganglia surrounding the aorta are located in the:
A. Carotid sheath
B. Cavernous sinus
C. Epidural space
D. Celiac plexus

back 70

D. Celiac plexus

front 71

Which of the following is a prevertebral sympathetic ganglion?
A. Celiac ganglion
B. Ciliary ganglion
C. Geniculate ganglion
D. Trigeminal ganglion

back 71

A. Celiac ganglion

front 72

Compared with postganglionic sympathetic axons, preganglionic sympathetic axons usually travel a:
A. More variable course
B. Longer distance
C. Shorter distance
D. More peripheral route

back 72

C. Shorter distance

front 73

Postganglionic sympathetic axons generally travel a:
A. Short distance
B. Long distance
C. Segmental loop
D. Midline route

back 73

B. Long distance

front 74

Parasympathetic preganglionic fibers must travel a relatively:
A. Long distance
B. Short distance
C. Unmyelinated route
D. Thoracolumbar path

back 74

A. Long distance

front 75

Parasympathetic preganglionic fibers arise from cranial nerve nuclei and from sacral nuclei at:
A. S1 to S2
B. S2 to S4
C. L5 to S2
D. T12 to L2

back 75

B. S2 to S4

front 76

The sacral parasympathetic nuclei are located in spinal:
A. Dorsal columns
B. Ventral white matter
C. Lateral gray matter
D. Posterior root ganglia

back 76

C. Lateral gray matter

front 77

Upper motor neurons of the corticospinal tract project from the:
A. Cerebral cortex
B. Basal ganglia
C. Cerebellar cortex
D. Brainstem reticular formation

back 77

A. Cerebral cortex

front 78

Lower motor neurons of the corticospinal system are located in the spinal:
A. Dorsal horn
B. Intermediate zone
C. Anterior horn
D. Lateral funiculus

back 78

C. Anterior horn

front 79

Lower motor neurons project to skeletal muscle through:
A. Corticobulbar fibers
B. Peripheral nerves
C. Dorsal columns
D. Spinocerebellar tracts

back 79

B. Peripheral nerves

front 80

Which finding most strongly suggests a lower motor neuron lesion?
A. Hyperreflexia
B. Babinski sign
C. Increased tone
D. Fasciculations

back 80

D. Fasciculations

front 81

Fasciculations are best defined as:
A. Rhythmic intention tremors
B. Spasms of flexor muscles
C. Twitching from motor unit firing
D. Repetitive clonic jerks

back 81

C. Twitching from motor unit firing

front 82

Which combination best fits an upper motor neuron lesion?
A. Atrophy and hyporeflexia
B. Weakness with spasticity
C. Fasciculations and flaccidity
D. Sensory loss and areflexia

back 82

B. Weakness with spasticity

front 83

Unilateral weakness affecting face, arm, and leg is called:
A. Diplegia
B. Monoplegia
C. Paraplegia
D. Hemiparesis

back 83

D. Hemiparesis

front 84

During pronator drift testing, in a LMN injury, the abnormal arm typically shows:
A. Finger abduction only
B. Elbow extension only
C. Pronation with slight downward drift
D. Sudden ballistic supination

back 84

C. Pronation with slight downward drift

front 85

Resistance testing of which muscles is especially useful for subtle corticospinal lesions?
A. Finger flexors
B. Finger extensors
C. Thenar muscles
D. Interossei only

back 85

B. Finger extensors

front 86

Rapid thumb-finger tapping, coin transfer, and alternating hand movements primarily assess:
A. Visual fields
B. Muscle bulk
C. Fine movements
D. Primary sensation

back 86

C. Fine movements

front 87

One of the most sensitive tests for subtle neurologic dysfunction is careful examination of:
A. Speech
B. Gait
C. Pupils
D. Smell

back 87

B. Gait

front 88

A patient walks stiff-legged with circumduction, toe-walking, reduced arm swing, and scissoring. Which gait is most likely?
A. Ataxic gait
B. Steppage gait
C. Parkinsonian gait
D. Spastic gait

back 88

D. Spastic gait

front 89

Which pair are the classic exceptions to the “arms medial to legs” rule?
A. Cerebellum and thalamus
B. Internal capsule and pons
C. Primary sensorimotor cortices and posterior columns
D. Basal ganglia and medulla

back 89

C. Primary sensorimotor cortices and posterior columns

front 90

In the spinal cord, white matter columns are also called:
A. gyri
B. peduncles
C. funiculi
D. laminae

back 90

C. funiculi

front 91

The genu of the internal capsule lies at the level of the:
A. optic chiasm
B. foramen of Monro
C. mammillary bodies
D. superior colliculus

back 91

B. foramen of Monro

front 92

The corticospinal tract travels through which part of the internal capsule?
A. anterior limb
B. genu
C. retrolenticular limb
D. posterior limb

back 92

D. posterior limb

front 93

In the internal capsule, motor fibers for the face are located most:
A. anterior
B. posterior
C. lateral
D. medial

back 93

A. anterior

front 94

In the internal capsule, motor fibers for the leg are located most:
A. anterior
B. medial
C. posterior
D. superior

back 94

C. posterior

front 95

Which sequence best describes internal capsule somatotopy from anterior to posterior?
A. leg, arm, face
B. face, arm, leg
C. arm, face, leg
D. face, leg, arm

back 95

B. face, arm, leg

front 96

The internal capsule continues into the midbrain as the:
A. superior cerebellar peduncles
B. cerebral peduncles
C. middle cerebellar peduncles
D. inferior olives

back 96

B. cerebral peduncles

front 97

The ventral white matter of the cerebral peduncles is called the:
A. crus cerebelli
B. tegmentum
C. basis pedunculi
D. tectal plate

back 97

C. basis pedunculi

front 98

The middle one-third of the basis pedunculi contains:
A. spinothalamic fibers
B. corticobulbar and corticospinal fibers
C. medial lemniscus fibers
D. vestibulocerebellar fibers

back 98

B. corticobulbar and corticospinal fibers

front 99

In the basis pedunculi, face, arm, and leg fibers are arranged:
A. lateral to medial
B. posterior to anterior
C. superficial to deep
D. medial to lateral

back 99

D. medial to lateral

front 100

The transition from medulla to spinal cord is the:
A. pontomedullary junction
B. cervicomedullary junction
C. spinomesencephalic junction
D. thalamocortical junction

back 100

B. cervicomedullary junction

front 101

The cervicomedullary junction is located at the:
A. jugular foramen
B. foramen ovale
C. foramen magnum
D. stylomastoid foramen

back 101

C. foramen magnum

front 102

Which tract is not one of the four medial motor systems?
A. anterior corticospinal
B. vestibulospinal
C. reticulospinal
D. rubrospinal

back 102

D. rubrospinal

front 103

The unpaired prevertebral sympathetic ganglia are located around the aorta in the:
A. carotid sinus
B. celiac plexus
C. epidural space
D. cavernous sinus

back 103

B. celiac plexus

front 104

Which set correctly lists the major prevertebral sympathetic ganglia?
A. ciliary, otic, submandibular
B. superior cervical, middle cervical, stellate
C. celiac, superior mesenteric, inferior mesenteric
D. dorsal root, nodose, geniculate

back 104

C. celiac, superior mesenteric, inferior mesenteric

front 105

Parasympathetic terminal ganglia are usually located:
A. in dorsal roots
B. within or near effector organs
C. along the sympathetic trunk
D. inside vertebral foramina

back 105

B. within or near effector organs

front 106

Which combination best fits a lower motor neuron lesion?
A. weakness, atrophy, hyporeflexia
B. weakness, hyperreflexia, Babinski
C. rigidity, tremor, bradykinesia
D. sensory loss, neglect, aphasia

back 106

A. weakness, atrophy, hyporeflexia

front 107

Which additional finding strongly supports an upper motor neuron lesion?
A. fasciculations
B. hyporeflexia
C. Babinski sign
D. muscle atrophy

back 107

C. Babinski sign

front 108

Which finding is another classic upper motor neuron sign?
A. Hoffmann sign
B. Romberg sign
C. Kernig sign
D. Lhermitte sign

back 108

A. Hoffmann sign

front 109

Resistance testing of the finger extensors is sensitive for corticospinal lesions partly because corticospinal damage tends to spare:
A. extensors over flexors
B. flexors over extensors
C. proximal muscles only
D. axial muscles only

back 109

B. flexors over extensors

front 110

Finger extensors are especially useful to test because they are relatively:
A. strong and brainstem-driven
B. weak and cortically represented
C. fast and autonomic
D. proximal and reflex-dominant

back 110

B. weak and cortically represented

front 111

In rapid alternating and dexterity tasks, the dominant hand or foot is normally:
A. dramatically faster
B. slightly faster
C. slightly weaker
D. markedly slower

back 111

B. slightly faster

front 112

A patient has a wide-based, staggering gait and falls toward the side of worse cerebellar pathology. Which gait is this?
A. spastic gait
B. steppage gait
C. ataxic gait
D. waddling gait

back 112

C. ataxic gait

front 113

A patient has a slow, shuffling, narrow-based gait with stooped posture, decreased arm swing, and en bloc turning. What gait is this?
A. Ataxic gait
B. Spastic gait
C. Steppage gait
D. Parkinsonian gait

back 113

D. Parkinsonian gait

front 114

On pull testing, a patient takes several rapid backward steps to regain balance. This finding is called:
A. Dysmetria
B. Retropulsion
C. Intention tremor
D. Pronator drift

back 114

B. Retropulsion

front 115

Multiple sclerosis is best described as:
A. Autoimmune CNS demyelination
B. Peripheral axonal degeneration
C. Basal ganglia degeneration
D. Neuromuscular junction failure

back 115

A. Autoimmune CNS demyelination

front 116

The neurologic deficits of demyelination are most directly explained by:
A. Loss of acetylcholine synthesis
B. Increased neuromuscular transmission
C. Slowed, dispersed conduction
D. Excess cortical inhibition

back 116

C. Slowed, dispersed conduction

front 117

The classic clinical definition of multiple sclerosis requires:
A. One deficit with fever
B. Deficits separated in space/time
C. Sensory loss plus weakness
D. MRI lesions without symptoms

back 117

B. Deficits separated in space/time

front 118

Oligoclonal bands in CSF most strongly indicate:
A. Blood contamination
B. Albumin loss
C. Neutrophilic meningitis
D. Intrathecal immunoglobulin synthesis

back 118

D. Intrathecal immunoglobulin synthesis

front 119

About what fraction of patients with isolated optic neuritis or transverse myelitis later develop multiple sclerosis?
A. About 50%
B. About 10%
C. About 25%
D. About 75%

back 119

A. About 50%

front 120

Which pair is first-line for relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis?
A. Levodopa and amantadine
B. Pyridostigmine and prednisone
C. Beta-interferon and glatiramer
D. Phenytoin and acetazolamide

back 120

C. Beta-interferon and glatiramer

front 121

ALS is characterized by degeneration of:
A. Sensory and autonomic neurons
B. Upper and lower motor neurons
C. Cerebellar and vestibular neurons
D. Basal ganglia and cortex

back 121

B. Upper and lower motor neurons

front 122

Which exam pattern most strongly supports ALS?
A. Areflexia with sensory loss
B. Rest tremor with rigidity
C. Ophthalmoplegia with ptosis
D. Brisk reflexes with atrophy

back 122

D. Brisk reflexes with atrophy

front 123

Which pair should be excluded in suspected ALS because they can mimic the syndrome?
A. Lead toxicity, B12 deficiency
B. Diabetes, hypercalcemia
C. Myasthenia, epilepsy
D. Lyme disease, porphyria

back 123

A. Lead toxicity, B12 deficiency

front 124

Primary Lateral Sclerosis (PLS): UMN or LMN

Spinal Muscular Atrophy (SMA): UMN or LMN

back 124

UMN

LMN

front 125

Infantile spinal muscular atrophy is called:
A. Friedreich disease
B. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease
C. Krabbe disease
D. Werdnig-Hoffmann disease

back 125

D. Werdnig-Hoffmann disease

front 126

The somatosensory association cortex is located in the:
A. Parietal lobe
B. Frontal lobe
C. Temporal lobe
D. Occipital lobe

back 126

A. Parietal lobe

front 127

The cervical enlargement for the arm plexus spans:
A. C1-T1
B. C5-T5
C. C3-T1
D. T1-L1

back 127

C. C3-T1

front 128

The lumbosacral enlargement for the leg plexus spans:
A. L1-S2
B. T10-L2
C. L3-S4
D. S1-S5

back 128

A. L1-S2

front 129

Rexed lamina I is the:
A. Nucleus proprius
B. Base of dorsal horn
C. Commissural nucleus
D. Marginal zone

back 129

D. Marginal zone

front 130

Rexed lamina II corresponds to the:
A. Clarke nucleus
B. Substantia gelatinosa
C. Grisea centralis
D. Motor nuclei

back 130

B. Substantia gelatinosa

front 131

Rexed laminae III and IV form the:
A. Nucleus proprius
B. Marginal zone
C. Neck of dorsal horn
D. Intermediolateral column

back 131

A. Nucleus proprius

front 132

Rexed lamina V is the:
A. Base of dorsal horn
B. Motor nuclei
C. Neck of dorsal horn
D. Grisea centralis

back 132

C. Neck of dorsal horn

front 133

Rexed lamina VI is the:
A. Marginal zone
B. Base of dorsal horn
C. Commissural nucleus
D. Nucleus proprius

back 133

B. Base of dorsal horn

front 134

Rexed lamina VII contains the:
A. Substantia gelatinosa
B. Grisea centralis
C. Motor nuclei
D. Clarke and IML nuclei

back 134

D. Clarke and IML nuclei

front 135

Rexed lamina VIII corresponds to the:
A. Marginal zone
B. Base of dorsal horn
C. Commissural nucleus
D. Nucleus proprius

back 135

C. Commissural nucleus

front 136

Rexed lamina IX contains the:
A. Motor nuclei
B. Clarke nucleus
C. Neck of dorsal horn
D. Grisea centralis

back 136

A. Motor nuclei

front 137

Rexed lamina X is the:
A. Intermediolateral column
B. Substantia gelatinosa
C. Commissural nucleus
D. Grisea centralis

back 137

D. Grisea centralis

front 138

Which spinal cord region is predominantly gray matter?
A. Cervical region
B. Sacral region
C. Thoracic region
D. Upper lumbar region

back 138

B. Sacral region

front 139

Which arteries arise from the aorta and supply the spinal meninges along the cord?
A. Radicular arteries
B. Posterior spinal arteries
C. Segmental arteries
D. Vertebral arteries

back 139

C. Segmental arteries

front 140

How many segmental arteries supply the spinal meninges?
A. 31
B. 24
C. 12
D. 40

back 140

A. 31

front 141

Parkinsonian gait can occur in Parkinson disease and also with:
A. Cerebellar vermis lesions
B. Progressive supranuclear palsy
C. Dorsal column lesions
D. Tabes dorsalis

back 141

B. Progressive supranuclear palsy

front 142

A man with prostate cancer develops epidural metastases after tumor cells spread through a valveless spinal venous network. Which plexus is involved?
A. Pampiniform plexus
B. Internal vertebral plexus
C. Batson's plexus
D. Cavernous plexus

back 142

C. Batson's plexus

front 143

Batson's plexus is clinically important primarily because it:
A. drains CSF directly
B. lacks venous valves
C. supplies spinal arteries
D. surrounds dorsal roots

back 143

B. lacks venous valves

front 144

Which pair of descending tracts primarily controls extremity movement?
A. Lateral corticospinal and rubrospinal
B. Vestibulospinal and tectospinal
C. Reticulospinal and anterior corticospinal
D. Spinothalamic and corticobulbar

back 144

A. Lateral corticospinal and rubrospinal

front 145

Which descending tract is especially important for rapid, dexterous movement of individual digits and joints?
A. Rubrospinal tract
B. Tectospinal tract
C. Lateral corticospinal tract
D. Vestibulospinal tract

back 145

C. Lateral corticospinal tract

front 146

Both the lateral corticospinal and rubrospinal tracts descend in which part of the spinal cord?
A. Ipsilateral dorsal columns
B. Contralateral lateral columns
C. Bilateral anterior columns
D. Ipsilateral posterior horns

back 146

B. Contralateral lateral columns

front 147

Because the lateral corticospinal and rubrospinal tracts have already crossed, they control:
A. ipsilateral trunk muscles
B. contralateral extremities
C. bilateral neck muscles
D. ipsilateral facial muscles

back 147

B. contralateral extremities

front 148

Which descending motor system primarily controls proximal axial and girdle muscles used for posture, balance, orienting, and automatic gait?
A. Lateral motor system
B. Dorsal column system
C. Spinocerebellar system
D. Medial motor system

back 148

D. Medial motor system

front 149

Which tract belongs to the medial motor system?
A. Rubrospinal tract
B. Lateral corticospinal tract
C. Vestibulospinal tract
D. Fasciculus cuneatus

back 149

C. Vestibulospinal tract

front 150

Which list correctly names the four medial motor system tracts?
A. Anterior corticospinal, vestibulospinal, reticulospinal, tectospinal
B. Lateral corticospinal, rubrospinal, spinothalamic, tectospinal
C. Vestibulospinal, spinocerebellar, reticulospinal, gracile
D. Corticobulbar, rubrospinal, anterior spinothalamic, tectospinal

back 150

A. Anterior corticospinal, vestibulospinal, reticulospinal, tectospinal

front 151

Medial motor system tracts primarily terminate on:
A. anterior horn alpha motor neurons
B. posterior horn projection neurons
C. Clarke nucleus neurons
D. spinal interneurons

back 151

D. spinal interneurons

front 152

Why does a unilateral lesion of the medial motor system often cause only modest deficits?
A. it innervates sensory ganglia
B. it bypasses the spinal cord
C. it acts through bilateral interneurons
D. it reaches only lumbar segments

back 152

C. it acts through bilateral interneurons

front 153

Which medial motor tract is the only one that decussates?
A. Vestibulospinal tract
B. Tectospinal tract
C. Reticulospinal tract
D. Anterior corticospinal tract

back 153

B. Tectospinal tract

front 154

The tectospinal tract decussates in the:
A. pyramidal decussation
B. posterior commissure
C. ventral tegmentum
D. dorsal tegmentum

back 154

D. dorsal tegmentum

front 155

The tectospinal tract originates in the:
A. red nucleus
B. superior colliculus
C. pontine reticular formation
D. lateral vestibular nucleus

back 155

B. superior colliculus

front 156

The tectospinal tract terminates primarily in the:
A. lumbar spinal cord
B. sacral spinal cord
C. cervical spinal cord
D. entire spinal cord

back 156

C. cervical spinal cord

front 157

The rubrospinal tract originates from the magnocellular division of the:
A. red nucleus
B. inferior olive
C. superior colliculus
D. medial vestibular nucleus

back 157

A. red nucleus

front 158

The rubrospinal tract decussates in the:
A. dorsal tegmentum
B. pyramidal decussation
C. ventral tegmentum
D. internal capsule

back 158

C. ventral tegmentum

front 159

The rubrospinal tract terminates primarily in the:
A. cervical spinal cord
B. thoracic spinal cord
C. lumbar spinal cord
D. sacral spinal cord

back 159

A. cervical spinal cord

front 160

Reticulospinal fibers arise from the:
A. superior and inferior colliculi
B. pontine and medullary reticular formation
C. medial and lateral vestibular nuclei
D. caudate and putamen

back 160

B. pontine and medullary reticular formation

front 161

Which descending tract helps position the head and neck and also contributes to balance?
A. Rubrospinal tract
B. Vestibulospinal tract
C. Tectospinal tract
D. Lateral corticospinal tract

back 161

B. Vestibulospinal tract

front 162

The medial vestibulospinal tract arises from which nuclei?
A. medial and inferior vestibular nuclei
B. lateral and superior vestibular nuclei
C. dorsal motor and ambiguus nuclei
D. red and vestibular nuclei

back 162

A. medial and inferior vestibular nuclei

front 163

The medial vestibulospinal tract terminates mainly in the:
A. sacral cord only
B. entire spinal cord
C. cervical and upper thoracic cord
D. lumbar enlargement only

back 163

C. cervical and upper thoracic cord

front 164

The lateral vestibulospinal tract arises from the:
A. medial vestibular nucleus
B. inferior vestibular nucleus
C. superior vestibular nucleus
D. lateral vestibular nucleus

back 164

D. lateral vestibular nucleus

front 165

The lateral vestibulospinal tract descends to the:
A. cervical cord only
B. thoracic cord only
C. entire spinal cord
D. sacral cord only

back 165

C. entire spinal cord

front 166

Which vestibulospinal tract is most closely associated with maintaining balance through projections throughout the cord?
A. Medial vestibulospinal tract
B. Lateral vestibulospinal tract
C. Tectospinal tract
D. Rubrospinal tract

back 166

B. Lateral vestibulospinal tract

front 167

A patient has intact strength but cannot properly plan or execute a learned motor act. A lesion in which area can cause this apraxia?
A. Supplementary motor area
B. Primary visual cortex
C. Nucleus gracilis
D. Cerebellar flocculus

back 167

A. Supplementary motor area

front 168

Which vestibulospinal tract is primarily associated with positioning of the head and neck?
A. Lateral vestibulospinal tract
B. Medial vestibulspinal tract
C. Reticulospinal tract
D. Tectospinal tract

back 168

B. Medial vestibulspinal tract

front 169

Which vestibulospinal tract is most associated with balance?
A. Medial vestibulospinal tract
B. Rubrospinal tract
C. Lateral vestibulospinal tract
D. Anterior corticospinal tract

back 169

C. Lateral vestibulospinal tract

front 170

Which medial motor system tract is most responsible for controlling bilateral axial and girdle muscles?
A. Vestibulospinal tract
B. Tectospinal tract
C. Reticulospinal tract
D. Anterior corticospinal tract

back 170

D. Anterior corticospinal tract

front 171

Fibers of the lateral corticospinal tract are most abundant at which spinal cord levels?
A. Thoracic and sacral only
B. Cervical and lumbosacral enlargements
C. Mid-thoracic levels only
D. Lumbar and coccygeal only

back 171

B. Cervical and lumbosacral enlargements

front 172

As descending axons leave the cerebral cortex and enter the upper cerebral white matter on their way to the internal capsule, they form the:
A. corona radiata
B. basis pedunculi
C. medial lemniscus
D. posterior limb

back 172

A. corona radiata

front 173

Motor fibers that project from the cortex to brainstem motor nuclei for face movement are called:
A. corticoreticular fibers
B. corticobulbar fibers
C. corticorubral fibers
D. corticospinal fibers

back 173

B. corticobulbar fibers

front 174

A small lacunar infarct in the internal capsule can cause dense weakness because fibers there are:
A. poorly myelinated
B. arranged somatotopically
C. highly compact
D. mostly uncrossed

back 174

C. highly compact

front 175

A lesion of the internal capsule most classically causes:
A. ipsilateral facial numbness
B. contralateral hemiparesis
C. bilateral leg ataxia
D. isolated tongue fasciculations

back 175

B. contralateral hemiparesis

front 176

In the basis pedunculi, corticobulbar and corticospinal fibers are located in the:
A. medial one-third
B. middle one-third
C. lateral one-third
D. dorsal one-third

back 176

B. middle one-third

front 177

In the basis pedunculi somatotopic map, face fibers lie _____ leg fibers.
A. lateral to
B. posterior to
C. medial to
D. inferior to

back 177

C. medial to

front 178

The transition from medulla to spinal cord at the foramen magnum is called the:
A. pontomedullary junction
B. cervicomedullary junction
C. spinomesencephalic junction
D. cervicothalamic junction

back 178

B. cervicomedullary junction

front 179

About 15% of corticospinal fibers remain uncrossed and descend ipsilaterally in the:
A. lateral white column
B. posterior white column
C. anterior white column
D. central gray matter

back 179

C. anterior white column

front 180

The rubrospinal tract most directly modulates muscle tone by:
A. exciting extensors, inhibiting flexors
B. exciting flexors, inhibiting extensors
C. inhibiting all axial muscles
D. activating alpha-gamma co-contraction

back 180

B. exciting flexors, inhibiting extensors

front 181

The rubrospinal tract has its strongest influence on which limb region?
A. Lower limbs
B. Upper limbs
C. Neck only
D. Trunk only

back 181

B. Upper limbs

front 182

The rubrospinal tract crosses in the:
A. pyramidal decussation
B. dorsal tegmentum
C. ventral tegmental decussation
D. posterior commissure

back 182

C. ventral tegmental decussation

front 183

Sympathetic preganglionic neurons arise from which spinal levels?
A. C1-C8
B. T1-L2/3
C. L4-S4
D. S2-S4

back 183

B. T1-L2/3

front 184

In the spinal cord, sympathetic preganglionic neurons are specifically located in:
A. Lamina II
B. Lamina V
C. Lamina VII
D. Lamina IX

back 184

C. Lamina VII

front 185

Which sympathetic ganglia are paired and form a chain from cervical to sacral levels?
A. Prevertebral ganglia
B. Terminal ganglia
C. Paravertebral ganglia
D. Intramural ganglia

back 185

C. Paravertebral ganglia

front 186

Which sympathetic ganglia are unpaired and lie in the celiac plexus around the aorta?
A. Paravertebral ganglia
B. Prevertebral ganglia
C. Dorsal root ganglia
D. Cranial ganglia

back 186

B. Prevertebral ganglia

front 187

A positive Hoffmann sign most strongly indicates a:
A. lower motor neuron lesion
B. cerebellar lesion
C. peripheral neuropathy
D. upper motor neuron lesion

back 187

D. upper motor neuron lesion

front 188

Flicking the middle fingernail and seeing involuntary thumb or index finger flexion is the:
A. Babinski sign
B. Hoffmann sign
C. Romberg sign
D. Tinel sign

back 188

B. Hoffmann sign

front 189

Which pair is most associated with upper motor neuron dysfunction?
A. Atrophy and fasciculations
B. Babinski and posturing
C. Hyporeflexia and weakness
D. Ptosis and diplopia

back 189

B. Babinski and posturing

front 190

The term for partial paralysis or weakness is:
A. plegia
B. paresis
C. dystonia
D. apraxia

back 190

B. paresis

front 191

The term for complete absence of movement is:
A. paresis
B. dysarthria
C. plegia
D. ataxia

back 191

C. plegia

front 192

The most common cause of acute unilateral face and arm weakness in clinical practice is:
A. anterior cerebral artery infarct
B. middle cerebral artery infarct
C. posterior cerebral artery infarct
D. basilar artery infarct

back 192

B. middle cerebral artery infarct

front 193

Dysarthria is best defined as:
A. impaired language comprehension
B. inability to plan speech
C. motor speech impairment
D. loss of written expression

back 193

C. motor speech impairment

front 194

Which bedside pair is especially useful for detecting subtle hemiparesis from corticospinal tract involvement?
A. Romberg and tandem gait
B. Pronator drift and finger extensor testing
C. Heel-knee-shin and toe walk
D. Jaw jerk and corneal reflex

back 194

B. Pronator drift and finger extensor testing