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Neuro 6

front 1

After a hemicord injury, a patient develops ipsilateral weakness below the lesion with impaired voluntary limb movement. Which tract is most directly damaged?
A. Posterior columns
B. Lateral corticospinal tract
C. Ventral spinocerebellar tract
D. Anterolateral pathway

back 1

B. Lateral corticospinal tract

front 2

A neurosurgeon identifies the sulcus separating frontal from parietal cortex before resection. Which landmark is this?
A. Calcarine sulcus
B. Lateral sulcus
C. Rolandic sulcus
D. Parieto-occipital sulcus

back 2

C. Rolandic sulcus

front 3

A focal seizure arises from Brodmann area 4. Which gyrus contains this cortex?
A. Precentral gyrus
B. Postcentral gyrus
C. Superior frontal gyrus
D. Cingulate gyrus

back 3

A. Precentral gyrus

front 4

A cortical lesion involving Brodmann areas 3, 1, and 2 causes primary sensory loss. Where is the lesion?
A. Precentral gyrus
B. Inferior parietal lobule
C. Superior temporal gyrus
D. Postcentral gyrus

back 4

D. Postcentral gyrus

front 5

A patient has impaired interpretation of sensory input, but basic strength and basic sensation remain largely intact. Which cortex is most likely involved?
A. Primary motor cortex
B. Association cortex
C. Primary visual cortex
D. Ventral horn cortex

back 5

B. Association cortex

front 6

Penfield stimulation studies show an orderly body map across primary motor and sensory cortices. What is this arrangement called?
A. Laminar organization
B. Columnar organization
C. Somatotopic organization
D. Retinotopic organization

back 6

C. Somatotopic organization

front 7

The distorted body map classically drawn over the precentral gyrus is called the:
A. Motor homunculus
B. Sensory homunculus
C. Cerebellar homunculus
D. Basal homunculus

back 7

A. Motor homunculus

front 8

The distorted body map classically drawn over the postcentral gyrus is called the:
A. Motor homunculus
B. Cortical unculus
C. Sensory homunculus
D. Visual homunculus

back 8

C. Sensory homunculus

front 9

A parasagittal cortical infarct affects the leg area more than the arm area in primary sensorimotor cortex. Relative to the arm, the leg representation lies:
A. Inferior to the arm
B. Lateral to the arm
C. Posterior to the arm
D. Medial to the arm

back 9

D. Medial to the arm

front 10

In the posterior columns, lower-limb fibers are positioned how relative to upper-limb fibers?
A. Lateral to the arm
B. Medial to the arm
C. Anterior to the arm
D. Ventral to the arm

back 10

B. Medial to the arm

front 11

On cross-section, the spinal cord shows a butterfly-shaped central region surrounded by funiculi. The butterfly region is:
A. Gray matter
B. White matter
C. Pia mater
D. Central canal

back 11

A. Gray matter

front 12

Sensory neurons in the dorsal root ganglia send a central process into the cord. These axons characteristically:
A. Decussate immediately
B. Terminate ipsilaterally
C. Remain unbranched
D. Bifurcate

back 12

D. Bifurcate

front 13

The dorsal horn of spinal gray matter is involved mainly in:
A. Motor planning
B. Sensory processing
C. Endocrine output
D. Visceral efferents

back 13

B. Sensory processing

front 14

The ventral horn primarily contains:
A. Interneurons
B. Radicular arteries
C. Motor neurons
D. Sensory ganglia

back 14

C. Motor neurons

front 15

The intermediate zone of spinal gray matter contains:
A. Interneurons and specialized nuclei
B. Lower motor neurons and specialized nuclei
C. Only sensory relay cells and specialized nuclei
D. Ascending fasciculi and specialized nuclei

back 15

A. Interneurons and specialized nuclei

front 16

Lower motor neuron axons leave the spinal cord through the:
A. Dorsal horn
B. Dorsal root ganglion
C. Lateral funiculus
D. Ventral root filaments

back 16

D. Ventral root filaments

front 17

At which spinal level is white matter thickest?
A. Sacral cord
B. Cervical cord
C. Lumbar cord
D. Thoracic cord

back 17

B. Cervical cord

front 18

Which spinal region is composed mostly of gray matter?
A. Cervical cord
B. Thoracic cord
C. Sacral cord
D. Medullary cord

back 18

C. Sacral cord

front 19

The cervical and lumbosacral enlargements are most directly related to formation of:
A. Nerve plexuses
B. Meningeal folds
C. Denticulate ligaments
D. Dorsal columns

back 19

A. Nerve plexuses

front 20

Compared with thoracic levels, spinal gray matter is greater at:
A. Only cervical levels
B. Only lumbar levels
C. Thoracic and sacral levels
D. Cervical and lumbosacral levels

back 20

D. Cervical and lumbosacral levels

front 21

A histologic section from the thoracic cord shows a lateral horn. Which structure is found there?
A. Clarke nucleus only
B. Intermediolateral cell column
C. Gracile nucleus
D. Substantia gelatinosa

back 21

B. Intermediolateral cell column

front 22

Arterial supply to the spinal cord arises from branches of the:
A. Carotid and basilar arteries
B. Internal thoracic arteries
C. Vertebral and spinal radicular
D. Middle meningeal arteries

back 22

C. Vertebral and spinal radicular

front 23

The vertebral arteries directly give rise to the:
A. Anterior spinal artery
B. Posterior communicating artery
C. Great radicular artery
D. Internal thoracic artery

back 23

A. Anterior spinal artery

front 24

The anterior spinal artery runs along which surface of the spinal cord?
A. Dorsal surface
B. Lateral surface
C. Ventral surface
D. Posterolateral sulcus

back 24

C. Ventral surface

front 25

A lesion affecting the cord region that gives rise to the upper-limb plexus most likely involves the:
A. Sacral cord
B. Thoracic cord
C. Cervical enlargement
D. Conus medullaris

back 25

C. Cervical enlargement

front 26

A lesion affecting the cord region that gives rise to the lower-limb plexus most likely involves the:
A. Lumbosacral enlargement
B. Cervical enlargement
C. Thoracic cord
D. Dorsal horn

back 26

A. Lumbosacral enlargement

front 27

A posterior spinal artery infarct would most directly compromise blood flow to which spinal cord region?
A. Ventral surface only
B. Dorsal surface only
C. Central canal only
D. Lateral horn only

back 27

B. Dorsal surface only

front 28

How many posterior spinal arteries typically supply the cord?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

back 28

B. Two

front 29

The posterior spinal arteries usually arise from which vessels?
A. Basilar or superior cerebellar
B. Vertebral or PICA
C. Internal carotid or ACA
D. Aorta or radicular trunks

back 29

B. Vertebral or PICA

front 30

A surgeon ligates the artery of Adamkiewicz during aortic repair. Which cord regions are most threatened?
A. Cervical and upper thoracic
B. Upper thoracic and cervical
C. Lumbar and sacral
D. Midbrain and pons

back 30

C. Lumbar and sacral

front 31

The great radicular artery of Adamkiewicz most commonly enters between:
A. T1 and T4
B. T4 and T8
C. T9 and T12
D. L2 and L5

back 31

C. T9 and T12

front 32

The artery of Adamkiewicz usually arises from which side?
A. Right side
B. Left side
C. Either side equally
D. Midline branch

back 32

B. Left side

front 33

Across all variants, the artery of Adamkiewicz may arise anywhere from:
A. C5 to T4
B. T1 to T6
C. T3 to T9
D. T5 to L3

back 33

D. T5 to L3

front 34

During prolonged hypotension, which spinal cord region is especially vulnerable because it lies between major arterial territories?
A. C1 to C4
B. T4 to T8
C. T10 to L2
D. S1 to S4

back 34

B. T4 to T8

front 35

Batson’s plexus is clinically important because these epidural veins:
A. Lack valves
B. Drain into azygos only
C. Supply dorsal columns
D. Traverse posterior roots

back 35

A. Lack valves

front 36

A patient with prostate carcinoma develops vertebral epidural metastases after repeated Valsalva strain. The route is best explained by:
A. Vertebral artery embolization
B. Lymphatic retrograde spread
C. Valveless Batson plexus reflux
D. Subarachnoid venous stasis

back 36

C. Valveless Batson plexus reflux

front 37

Elevated intra-abdominal pressure can promote reflux through Batson’s plexus carrying:
A. Pulmonary emboli or metastases
B. Pelvic infection or metastases
C. Carotid thrombi or metastases
D. CSF into veins or metastases

back 37

B. Pelvic infection or metastases

front 38

Cerebellar and basal ganglia output returns to the cerebral cortex primarily via the:
A. Hypothalamus
B. Red nucleus
C. Thalamus
D. Superior colliculus

back 38

C. Thalamus

front 39

Which statement about cerebellar and basal ganglia motor output is most accurate?
A. They directly innervate LMNs
B. They bypass the thalamus
C. They project to dorsal roots
D. They do not reach LMNs directly

back 39

D. They do not reach LMNs directly

front 40

A patient has intact strength but cannot correctly perform a learned motor task on command. This deficit is called:
A. Ataxia
B. Apraxia
C. Dysmetria
D. Agraphesthesia

back 40

B. Apraxia

front 41

Apraxia is best defined as impaired:
A. Primary sensation with weakness
B. Reflexes despite paralysis
C. Higher-order motor planning
D. Tone with hyperreflexia

back 41

C. Higher-order motor planning

front 42

Which pair constitutes the two lateral motor systems?
A. Tectospinal and vestibulospinal
B. Reticulospinal and rubrospinal
C. Lateral corticospinal and rubrospinal
D. Anterior corticospinal and tectospinal

back 42

C. Lateral corticospinal and rubrospinal

front 43

Which tract is most associated with automatic posture and gait-related movements?
A. Tectospinal tract
B. Reticulospinal tracts
C. Rubrospinal tract
D. Fasciculus gracilis

back 43

B. Reticulospinal tracts

front 44

Coordination of head and eye movements is most closely associated with the:
A. Vestibulospinal tract
B. Corticobulbar tract
C. Reticulospinal tract
D. Tectospinal tract

back 44

D. Tectospinal tract

front 45

Which of the following is a medial motor system?
A. Rubrospinal tract
B. Lateral corticospinal tract
C. Reticulospinal tract
D. Spinothalamic tract

back 45

C. Reticulospinal tract

front 46

Which tract is the major pathway controlling extremity movement and is especially useful for clinical localization when injured?
A. Lateral corticospinal tract
B. Anterior corticospinal tract
C. Vestibulospinal tract
D. Tectospinal tract

back 46

A. Lateral corticospinal tract

front 47

Most corticospinal neurons arise from pyramidal cells in which cortical layer?
A. Layer 2
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 4
D. Layer 5

back 47

D. Layer 5

front 48

Layer 5 pyramidal cell projections can synapse directly onto ventral horn:
A. Sensory neurons only
B. Motor neurons only
C. Autonomic ganglia only
D. Dorsal root cells only

back 48

B. Motor neurons only

front 49

In addition to direct ventral horn motor neuron synapses, corticospinal fibers also synapse on:
A. Purkinje cells
B. Thalamic relay cells
C. Spinal interneurons
D. Dorsal column nuclei

back 49

C. Spinal interneurons

front 50

About 3% of corticospinal neurons are giant pyramidal cells called:
A. Golgi cells
B. Betz cells
C. Renshaw cells
D. Basket cells

back 50

B. Betz cells

front 51

The largest neurons in the human nervous system are:
A. Purkinje neurons
B. Alpha motor neurons
C. Betz cells
D. Mitral cells

back 51

C. Betz cells

front 52

Relative to the internal capsule, the thalamus and caudate nucleus are always:
A. Lateral
B. Superior
C. Inferior
D. Medial

back 52

D. Medial

front 53

Relative to the internal capsule, the globus pallidus and putamen are always:
A. Medial
B. Lateral
C. Inferior
D. Posterior

back 53

B. Lateral

front 54

Which list correctly names the three parts of the internal capsule?
A. Anterior limb, genu, posterior limb
B. Head, body, tail
C. Crus, tegmentum, tectum
D. Medial, central, lateral

back 54

A. Anterior limb, genu, posterior limb

front 55

The anterior limb of the internal capsule separates the head of the caudate from the:
A. Thalamus only
B. Claustrum and insula
C. Globus pallidus and putamen
D. Amygdala and uncus

back 55

C. Globus pallidus and putamen

front 56

The posterior limb of the internal capsule separates the thalamus from the:
A. Globus pallidus and putamen
B. Head of caudate only
C. Subthalamic nucleus only
D. Hippocampus and amygdala

back 56

A. Globus pallidus and putamen

front 57

In the pyramidal decussation, approximately what percentage of fibers cross to form the lateral corticospinal tract?
A. 60%
B. 70%
C. 85%
D. 95%

back 57

C. 85%

front 58

After crossing in the pyramidal decussation, lateral corticospinal fibers descend in the lateral:
A. Gray matter columns
B. White matter columns
C. Ventral roots
D. Dorsal horns

back 58

B. White matter columns

front 59

Axons of the lateral corticospinal tract enter spinal gray matter to synapse on:
A. Posterior horn cells
B. Intermediolateral neurons
C. Dorsal root neurons
D. Anterior horn cells

back 59

D. Anterior horn cells

front 60

Preganglionic sympathetic neurons are located in the:
A. Substantia gelatinosa
B. Nucleus ambiguus
C. Intermediolateral cell column
D. Clarke nucleus

back 60

C. Intermediolateral cell column

front 61

Sympathetic preganglionic neurons are found primarily at which spinal levels?
A. C1 to C8
B. T1 to L2/L3
C. L4 to S4
D. S2 to S4

back 61

B. T1 to L2/L3

front 62

The sympathetic trunk extends on each side from:
A. Thoracic to lumbar
B. Cervical to sacral
C. Cervical to thoracic
D. Lumbar to coccygeal

back 62

B. Cervical to sacral

front 63

The sympathetic trunk is clinically important because it allows thoracolumbar sympathetic efferents to:
A. Reach other body regions
B. Enter dorsal roots
C. Synapse in cortex
D. Bypass all ganglia

back 63

A. Reach other body regions

front 64

Sympathetic supply to the head and neck arises mainly from which spinal segments?
A. C1 to C3
B. C5 to T1
C. T1 to T3
D. T4 to T6

back 64

C. T1 to T3

front 65

Which set of ganglia supplies sympathetic fibers to the head and neck?
A. Otic, pterygopalatine, ciliary
B. Celiac, mesenteric, hypogastric
C. Dorsal root, nodose, geniculate
D. Superior, middle, inferior cervical

back 65

D. Superior, middle, inferior cervical

front 66

Which cervical sympathetic ganglion is often absent?
A. Superior cervical
B. Middle cervical
C. Inferior cervical
D. Stellate ganglion

back 66

B. Middle cervical

front 67

The inferior cervical ganglion is also called the:
A. Otic ganglion
B. Submandibular ganglion
C. Stellate ganglion
D. Celiac ganglion

back 67

C. Stellate ganglion

front 68

Unpaired sympathetic ganglia surrounding the aorta are located in the:
A. Carotid sheath
B. Cavernous sinus
C. Epidural space
D. Celiac plexus

back 68

D. Celiac plexus

front 69

Which of the following is a prevertebral sympathetic ganglion?
A. Celiac ganglion
B. Ciliary ganglion
C. Geniculate ganglion
D. Trigeminal ganglion

back 69

A. Celiac ganglion

front 70

Compared with postganglionic sympathetic axons, preganglionic sympathetic axons usually travel a:
A. More variable course
B. Longer distance
C. Shorter distance
D. More peripheral route

back 70

C. Shorter distance

front 71

Postganglionic sympathetic axons generally travel a:
A. Short distance
B. Long distance
C. Segmental loop
D. Midline route

back 71

B. Long distance

front 72

Parasympathetic preganglionic fibers must travel a relatively:
A. Long distance
B. Short distance
C. Unmyelinated route
D. Thoracolumbar path

back 72

A. Long distance

front 73

Parasympathetic preganglionic fibers arise from cranial nerve nuclei and from sacral nuclei at:
A. S1 to S2
B. S2 to S4
C. L5 to S2
D. T12 to L2

back 73

B. S2 to S4

front 74

The sacral parasympathetic nuclei are located in spinal:
A. Dorsal columns
B. Ventral white matter
C. Lateral gray matter
D. Posterior root ganglia

back 74

C. Lateral gray matter

front 75

Upper motor neurons of the corticospinal tract project from the:
A. Cerebral cortex
B. Basal ganglia
C. Cerebellar cortex
D. Brainstem reticular formation

back 75

A. Cerebral cortex

front 76

Lower motor neurons of the corticospinal system are located in the spinal:
A. Dorsal horn
B. Intermediate zone
C. Anterior horn
D. Lateral funiculus

back 76

C. Anterior horn

front 77

Lower motor neurons project to skeletal muscle through:
A. Corticobulbar fibers
B. Peripheral nerves
C. Dorsal columns
D. Spinocerebellar tracts

back 77

B. Peripheral nerves

front 78

Unilateral weakness affecting face, arm, and leg is called:
A. Diplegia
B. Monoplegia
C. Paraplegia
D. Hemiparesis

back 78

D. Hemiparesis

front 79

During pronator drift testing, in a LMN injury, the abnormal arm typically shows:
A. Finger abduction only
B. Elbow extension only
C. Pronation with slight downward drift
D. Sudden ballistic supination

back 79

C. Pronation with slight downward drift

front 80

Resistance testing of which muscles is especially useful for subtle corticospinal lesions?
A. Finger flexors
B. Finger extensors
C. Thenar muscles
D. Interossei only

back 80

B. Finger extensors

front 81

Rapid thumb-finger tapping, coin transfer, and alternating hand movements primarily assess:
A. Visual fields
B. Muscle bulk
C. Fine movements
D. Primary sensation

back 81

C. Fine movements

front 82

One of the most sensitive tests for subtle neurologic dysfunction is careful examination of:
A. Speech
B. Gait
C. Pupils
D. Smell

back 82

B. Gait

front 83

A patient walks stiff-legged with circumduction, toe-walking, reduced arm swing, and scissoring. Which gait is most likely?
A. Ataxic gait
B. Steppage gait
C. Parkinsonian gait
D. Spastic gait

back 83

D. Spastic gait

front 84

In the spinal cord, white matter columns are also called:
A. gyri
B. peduncles
C. funiculi
D. laminae

back 84

C. funiculi

front 85

The genu of the internal capsule lies at the level of the:
A. optic chiasm
B. foramen of Monro
C. mammillary bodies
D. superior colliculus

back 85

B. foramen of Monro

front 86

The corticospinal tract travels through which part of the internal capsule?
A. anterior limb
B. genu
C. retrolenticular limb
D. posterior limb

back 86

D. posterior limb

front 87

In the internal capsule, motor fibers for the face are located most:
A. anterior
B. posterior
C. lateral
D. medial

back 87

A. anterior

front 88

In the internal capsule, motor fibers for the leg are located most:
A. anterior
B. medial
C. posterior
D. superior

back 88

C. posterior

front 89

Which sequence best describes internal capsule somatotopy from anterior to posterior?
A. leg, arm, face
B. face, arm, leg
C. arm, face, leg
D. face, leg, arm

back 89

B. face, arm, leg

front 90

The internal capsule continues into the midbrain as the:
A. superior cerebellar peduncles
B. cerebral peduncles
C. middle cerebellar peduncles
D. inferior olives

back 90

B. cerebral peduncles

front 91

The ventral white matter of the cerebral peduncles is called the:
A. crus cerebelli
B. tegmentum
C. basis pedunculi
D. tectal plate

back 91

C. basis pedunculi

front 92

The middle one-third of the basis pedunculi contains:
A. spinothalamic fibers
B. corticobulbar and corticospinal fibers
C. medial lemniscus fibers
D. vestibulocerebellar fibers

back 92

B. corticobulbar and corticospinal fibers

front 93

In the basis pedunculi, face, arm, and leg fibers are arranged:
A. lateral to medial
B. posterior to anterior
C. superficial to deep
D. medial to lateral

back 93

D. medial to lateral

front 94

The transition from medulla to spinal cord is the:
A. pontomedullary junction
B. cervicomedullary junction
C. spinomesencephalic junction
D. thalamocortical junction

back 94

B. cervicomedullary junction

front 95

Which tract is not one of the four medial motor systems?
A. anterior corticospinal
B. vestibulospinal
C. reticulospinal
D. rubrospinal

back 95

D. rubrospinal

front 96

The unpaired prevertebral sympathetic ganglia are located around the aorta in the:
A. carotid sinus
B. celiac plexus
C. epidural space
D. cavernous sinus

back 96

B. celiac plexus

front 97

Which set correctly lists the major prevertebral sympathetic ganglia?
A. ciliary, otic, submandibular
B. superior cervical, middle cervical, stellate
C. celiac, superior mesenteric, inferior mesenteric
D. dorsal root, nodose, geniculate

back 97

C. celiac, superior mesenteric, inferior mesenteric

front 98

Parasympathetic terminal ganglia are usually located:
A. in dorsal roots
B. within or near effector organs
C. along the sympathetic trunk
D. inside vertebral foramina

back 98

B. within or near effector organs

front 99

Which finding is another classic upper motor neuron sign?
A. Hoffmann sign
B. Romberg sign
C. Kernig sign
D. Lhermitte sign

back 99

A. Hoffmann sign

front 100

Resistance testing of the finger extensors is sensitive for corticospinal lesions partly because corticospinal damage tends to spare:
A. extensors over flexors
B. flexors over extensors
C. proximal muscles only
D. axial muscles only

back 100

B. flexors over extensors

front 101

Finger extensors are especially useful to test because they are relatively:
A. strong and brainstem-driven
B. weak and cortically represented
C. fast and autonomic
D. proximal and reflex-dominant

back 101

B. weak and cortically represented

front 102

In rapid alternating and dexterity tasks, the dominant hand or foot is normally:
A. dramatically faster
B. slightly faster
C. slightly weaker
D. markedly slower

back 102

B. slightly faster

front 103

A patient has a wide-based, staggering gait and falls toward the side of worse cerebellar pathology. Which gait is this?
A. spastic gait
B. steppage gait
C. ataxic gait
D. waddling gait

back 103

C. ataxic gait

front 104

A patient has a slow, shuffling, narrow-based gait with stooped posture, decreased arm swing, and en bloc turning. What gait is this?
A. Ataxic gait
B. Spastic gait
C. Steppage gait
D. Parkinsonian gait

back 104

D. Parkinsonian gait

front 105

On pull testing, a patient takes several rapid backward steps to regain balance. This finding is called:
A. Dysmetria
B. Retropulsion
C. Intention tremor
D. Pronator drift

back 105

B. Retropulsion

front 106

Multiple sclerosis is best described as:
A. Autoimmune CNS demyelination
B. Peripheral axonal degeneration
C. Basal ganglia degeneration
D. Neuromuscular junction failure

back 106

A. Autoimmune CNS demyelination

front 107

The neurologic deficits of demyelination are most directly explained by:
A. Loss of acetylcholine synthesis
B. Increased neuromuscular transmission
C. Slowed, dispersed conduction
D. Excess cortical inhibition

back 107

C. Slowed, dispersed conduction

front 108

The classic clinical definition of multiple sclerosis requires:
A. One deficit with fever
B. Deficits separated in space/time
C. Sensory loss plus weakness
D. MRI lesions without symptoms

back 108

B. Deficits separated in space/time

front 109

Oligoclonal bands in CSF most strongly indicate:
A. Blood contamination
B. Albumin loss
C. Neutrophilic meningitis
D. Intrathecal immunoglobulin synthesis

back 109

D. Intrathecal immunoglobulin synthesis

front 110

About what fraction of patients with isolated optic neuritis or transverse myelitis later develop multiple sclerosis?
A. About 50%
B. About 10%
C. About 25%
D. About 75%

back 110

A. About 50%

front 111

Which pair is first-line for relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis?
A. Levodopa and amantadine
B. Pyridostigmine and prednisone
C. Beta-interferon and glatiramer
D. Phenytoin and acetazolamide

back 111

C. Beta-interferon and glatiramer

front 112

ALS is characterized by degeneration of:
A. Sensory and autonomic neurons
B. Upper and lower motor neurons
C. Cerebellar and vestibular neurons
D. Basal ganglia and cortex

back 112

B. Upper and lower motor neurons

front 113

Which exam pattern most strongly supports ALS?
A. Areflexia with sensory loss
B. Rest tremor with rigidity
C. Ophthalmoplegia with ptosis
D. Brisk reflexes with atrophy

back 113

D. Brisk reflexes with atrophy

front 114

Which pair should be excluded in suspected ALS because they can mimic the syndrome?
A. Lead toxicity, B12 deficiency
B. Diabetes, hypercalcemia
C. Myasthenia, epilepsy
D. Lyme disease, porphyria

back 114

A. Lead toxicity, B12 deficiency

front 115

Primary Lateral Sclerosis (PLS): UMN or LMN

Spinal Muscular Atrophy (SMA): UMN or LMN

back 115

UMN

LMN

front 116

Infantile spinal muscular atrophy is called:
A. Friedreich disease
B. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease
C. Krabbe disease
D. Werdnig-Hoffmann disease

back 116

D. Werdnig-Hoffmann disease

front 117

The cervical enlargement for the arm plexus spans:
A. C1-T1
B. C5-T5
C. C3-T1
D. T1-L1

back 117

C. C3-T1

front 118

The lumbosacral enlargement for the leg plexus spans:
A. L1-S2
B. T10-L2
C. L3-S4
D. S1-S5

back 118

A. L1-S2

front 119

Rexed lamina I is the:
A. Nucleus proprius
B. Base of dorsal horn
C. Commissural nucleus
D. Marginal zone

back 119

D. Marginal zone

front 120

Rexed lamina II corresponds to the:
A. Clarke nucleus
B. Substantia gelatinosa
C. Grisea centralis
D. Motor nuclei

back 120

B. Substantia gelatinosa

front 121

Rexed laminae III and IV form the:
A. Nucleus proprius
B. Marginal zone
C. Neck of dorsal horn
D. Intermediolateral column

back 121

A. Nucleus proprius

front 122

Rexed lamina V is the:
A. Base of dorsal horn
B. Motor nuclei
C. Neck of dorsal horn
D. Grisea centralis

back 122

C. Neck of dorsal horn

front 123

Rexed lamina VI is the:
A. Marginal zone
B. Base of dorsal horn
C. Commissural nucleus
D. Nucleus proprius

back 123

B. Base of dorsal horn

front 124

Rexed lamina VII contains the:
A. Substantia gelatinosa
B. Grisea centralis
C. Motor nuclei
D. Clarke and IML nuclei

back 124

D. Clarke and IML nuclei

front 125

Rexed lamina VIII corresponds to the:
A. Marginal zone
B. Base of dorsal horn
C. Commissural nucleus
D. Nucleus proprius

back 125

C. Commissural nucleus

front 126

Rexed lamina IX contains the:
A. Motor nuclei
B. Clarke nucleus
C. Neck of dorsal horn
D. Grisea centralis

back 126

A. Motor nuclei

front 127

Rexed lamina X is the:
A. Intermediolateral column
B. Substantia gelatinosa
C. Commissural nucleus
D. Grisea centralis

back 127

D. Grisea centralis

front 128

Which spinal cord region is predominantly gray matter?
A. Cervical region
B. Sacral region
C. Thoracic region
D. Upper lumbar region

back 128

B. Sacral region

front 129

Which arteries arise from the aorta and supply the spinal meninges along the cord?
A. Radicular arteries
B. Posterior spinal arteries
C. Segmental arteries
D. Vertebral arteries

back 129

C. Segmental arteries

front 130

How many segmental arteries supply the spinal meninges?
A. 31
B. 24
C. 12
D. 40

back 130

A. 31

front 131

Parkinsonian gait can occur in Parkinson disease and also with:
A. Cerebellar vermis lesions
B. Progressive supranuclear palsy
C. Dorsal column lesions
D. Tabes dorsalis

back 131

B. Progressive supranuclear palsy

front 132

A man with prostate cancer develops epidural metastases after tumor cells spread through a valveless spinal venous network. Which plexus is involved?
A. Pampiniform plexus
B. Internal vertebral plexus
C. Batson's plexus
D. Cavernous plexus

back 132

C. Batson's plexus

front 133

Batson's plexus is clinically important primarily because it:
A. drains CSF directly
B. lacks venous valves
C. supplies spinal arteries
D. surrounds dorsal roots

back 133

B. lacks venous valves

front 134

Which pair of descending tracts primarily controls extremity movement?
A. Lateral corticospinal and rubrospinal
B. Vestibulospinal and tectospinal
C. Reticulospinal and anterior corticospinal
D. Spinothalamic and corticobulbar

back 134

A. Lateral corticospinal and rubrospinal

front 135

Which descending tract is especially important for rapid, dexterous movement of individual digits and joints?
A. Rubrospinal tract
B. Tectospinal tract
C. Lateral corticospinal tract
D. Vestibulospinal tract

back 135

C. Lateral corticospinal tract

front 136

Both the lateral corticospinal and rubrospinal tracts descend in which part of the spinal cord?
A. Ipsilateral dorsal columns
B. Contralateral lateral columns
C. Bilateral anterior columns
D. Ipsilateral posterior horns

back 136

B. Contralateral lateral columns

front 137

Because the lateral corticospinal and rubrospinal tracts have already crossed, they control:
A. ipsilateral trunk muscles
B. contralateral extremities
C. bilateral neck muscles
D. ipsilateral facial muscles

back 137

B. contralateral extremities

front 138

Which descending motor system primarily controls proximal axial and girdle muscles used for posture, balance, orienting, and automatic gait?
A. Lateral motor system
B. Dorsal column system
C. Spinocerebellar system
D. Medial motor system

back 138

D. Medial motor system

front 139

Which tract belongs to the medial motor system?
A. Rubrospinal tract
B. Lateral corticospinal tract
C. Vestibulospinal tract
D. Fasciculus cuneatus

back 139

C. Vestibulospinal tract

front 140

Which list correctly names the four medial motor system tracts?
A. Anterior corticospinal, vestibulospinal, reticulospinal, tectospinal
B. Lateral corticospinal, rubrospinal, spinothalamic, tectospinal
C. Vestibulospinal, spinocerebellar, reticulospinal, gracile
D. Corticobulbar, rubrospinal, anterior spinothalamic, tectospinal

back 140

A. Anterior corticospinal, vestibulospinal, reticulospinal, tectospinal

front 141

Medial motor system tracts primarily terminate on:
A. anterior horn alpha motor neurons
B. posterior horn projection neurons
C. Clarke nucleus neurons
D. spinal interneurons

back 141

D. spinal interneurons

front 142

Why does a unilateral lesion of the medial motor system often cause only modest deficits?
A. it innervates sensory ganglia
B. it bypasses the spinal cord
C. it acts through bilateral interneurons
D. it reaches only lumbar segments

back 142

C. it acts through bilateral interneurons

front 143

Which medial motor tract is the only one that decussates?
A. Vestibulospinal tract
B. Tectospinal tract
C. Reticulospinal tract
D. Anterior corticospinal tract

back 143

B. Tectospinal tract

front 144

The tectospinal tract decussates in the:
A. pyramidal decussation
B. posterior commissure
C. ventral tegmentum
D. dorsal tegmentum

back 144

D. dorsal tegmentum

front 145

The tectospinal tract originates in the:
A. red nucleus
B. superior colliculus
C. pontine reticular formation
D. lateral vestibular nucleus

back 145

B. superior colliculus

front 146

The tectospinal tract terminates primarily in the:
A. lumbar spinal cord
B. sacral spinal cord
C. cervical spinal cord
D. entire spinal cord

back 146

C. cervical spinal cord

front 147

The rubrospinal tract originates from the magnocellular division of the:
A. red nucleus
B. inferior olive
C. superior colliculus
D. medial vestibular nucleus

back 147

A. red nucleus

front 148

The rubrospinal tract decussates in the:
A. dorsal tegmentum
B. pyramidal decussation
C. ventral tegmentum
D. internal capsule

back 148

C. ventral tegmentum

front 149

The rubrospinal tract terminates primarily in the:
A. cervical spinal cord
B. thoracic spinal cord
C. lumbar spinal cord
D. sacral spinal cord

back 149

A. cervical spinal cord

front 150

Reticulospinal fibers arise from the:
A. superior and inferior colliculi
B. pontine and medullary reticular formation
C. medial and lateral vestibular nuclei
D. caudate and putamen

back 150

B. pontine and medullary reticular formation

front 151

Which descending tract helps position the head and neck and also contributes to balance?
A. Rubrospinal tract
B. Vestibulospinal tract
C. Tectospinal tract
D. Lateral corticospinal tract

back 151

B. Vestibulospinal tract

front 152

The medial vestibulospinal tract arises from which nuclei?
A. medial and inferior vestibular nuclei
B. lateral and superior vestibular nuclei
C. dorsal motor and ambiguus nuclei
D. red and vestibular nuclei

back 152

A. medial and inferior vestibular nuclei

front 153

The medial vestibulospinal tract terminates mainly in the:
A. sacral cord only
B. entire spinal cord
C. cervical and upper thoracic cord
D. lumbar enlargement only

back 153

C. cervical and upper thoracic cord

front 154

The lateral vestibulospinal tract arises from the:
A. medial vestibular nucleus
B. inferior vestibular nucleus
C. superior vestibular nucleus
D. lateral vestibular nucleus

back 154

D. lateral vestibular nucleus

front 155

The lateral vestibulospinal tract descends to the:
A. cervical cord only
B. thoracic cord only
C. entire spinal cord
D. sacral cord only

back 155

C. entire spinal cord

front 156

Which vestibulospinal tract is most closely associated with maintaining balance through projections throughout the cord?
A. Medial vestibulospinal tract
B. Lateral vestibulospinal tract
C. Tectospinal tract
D. Rubrospinal tract

back 156

B. Lateral vestibulospinal tract

front 157

A patient has intact strength but cannot properly plan or execute a learned motor act. A lesion in which area can cause this apraxia?
A. Supplementary motor area
B. Primary visual cortex
C. Nucleus gracilis
D. Cerebellar flocculus

back 157

A. Supplementary motor area

front 158

Which vestibulospinal tract is primarily associated with positioning of the head and neck?
A. Lateral vestibulospinal tract
B. Medial vestibulspinal tract
C. Reticulospinal tract
D. Tectospinal tract

back 158

B. Medial vestibulspinal tract

front 159

Which vestibulospinal tract is most associated with balance?
A. Medial vestibulospinal tract
B. Rubrospinal tract
C. Lateral vestibulospinal tract
D. Anterior corticospinal tract

back 159

C. Lateral vestibulospinal tract

front 160

Which medial motor system tract is most responsible for controlling bilateral axial and girdle muscles?
A. Vestibulospinal tract
B. Tectospinal tract
C. Reticulospinal tract
D. Anterior corticospinal tract

back 160

D. Anterior corticospinal tract

front 161

Fibers of the lateral corticospinal tract are most abundant at which spinal cord levels?
A. Thoracic and sacral only
B. Cervical and lumbosacral enlargements
C. Mid-thoracic levels only
D. Lumbar and coccygeal only

back 161

B. Cervical and lumbosacral enlargements

front 162

As descending axons leave the cerebral cortex and enter the upper cerebral white matter on their way to the internal capsule, they form the:
A. corona radiata
B. basis pedunculi
C. medial lemniscus
D. posterior limb

back 162

A. corona radiata

front 163

Motor fibers that project from the cortex to brainstem motor nuclei for face movement are called:
A. corticoreticular fibers
B. corticobulbar fibers
C. corticorubral fibers
D. corticospinal fibers

back 163

B. corticobulbar fibers

front 164

A small lacunar infarct in the internal capsule can cause dense weakness because fibers there are:
A. poorly myelinated
B. arranged somatotopically
C. highly compact
D. mostly uncrossed

back 164

C. highly compact

front 165

A lesion of the internal capsule most classically causes:
A. ipsilateral facial numbness
B. contralateral hemiparesis
C. bilateral leg ataxia
D. isolated tongue fasciculations

back 165

B. contralateral hemiparesis

front 166

About 15% of corticospinal fibers remain uncrossed and descend ipsilaterally in the:
A. lateral white column
B. posterior white column
C. anterior white column
D. central gray matter

back 166

C. anterior white column

front 167

The rubrospinal tract most directly modulates muscle tone by:
A. exciting extensors, inhibiting flexors
B. exciting flexors, inhibiting extensors
C. inhibiting all axial muscles
D. activating alpha-gamma co-contraction

back 167

B. exciting flexors, inhibiting extensors

front 168

The rubrospinal tract has its strongest influence on which limb region?
A. Lower limbs
B. Upper limbs
C. Neck only
D. Trunk only

back 168

B. Upper limbs

front 169

The rubrospinal tract crosses in the:
A. pyramidal decussation
B. dorsal tegmentum
C. ventral tegmentum
D. posterior commissure

back 169

C. ventral tegmental decussation

front 170

In the spinal cord, sympathetic preganglionic neurons are specifically located in:
A. Lamina II
B. Lamina V
C. Lamina VII
D. Lamina IX

back 170

C. Lamina VII

front 171

Which sympathetic ganglia are paired and form a chain from cervical to sacral levels?
A. Prevertebral ganglia
B. Terminal ganglia
C. Paravertebral ganglia
D. Intramural ganglia

back 171

C. Paravertebral ganglia

front 172

Which sympathetic ganglia are unpaired and lie in the celiac plexus around the aorta?
A. Paravertebral ganglia
B. Prevertebral ganglia
C. Dorsal root ganglia
D. Cranial ganglia

back 172

B. Prevertebral ganglia

front 173

Flicking the middle fingernail and seeing involuntary thumb or index finger flexion is the:
A. Babinski sign
B. Hoffmann sign
C. Romberg sign
D. Tinel sign

back 173

B. Hoffmann sign

front 174

The term for partial paralysis or weakness is:
A. plegia
B. paresis
C. dystonia
D. apraxia

back 174

B. paresis

front 175

The term for complete absence of movement is:
A. paresis
B. dysarthria
C. plegia
D. ataxia

back 175

C. plegia

front 176

The most common cause of acute unilateral face and arm weakness in clinical practice is:
A. anterior cerebral artery infarct
B. middle cerebral artery infarct
C. posterior cerebral artery infarct
D. basilar artery infarct

back 176

B. middle cerebral artery infarct

front 177

Dysarthria is best defined as:
A. impaired language comprehension
B. inability to plan speech
C. motor speech impairment
D. loss of written expression

back 177

C. motor speech impairment

front 178

Which bedside pair is especially useful for detecting subtle hemiparesis from corticospinal tract involvement?
A. Romberg and tandem gait
B. Pronator drift and finger extensor testing
C. Heel-knee-shin and toe walk
D. Jaw jerk and corneal reflex

back 178

B. Pronator drift and finger extensor testing

front 179

A patient develops sudden contralateral leg weakness and sensory loss with relatively spared face and arm. Which vascular territory is most likely affected?
A. Middle cerebral artery
B. Anterior cerebral artery
C. Posterior cerebral artery
D. Basilar artery

back 179

B. Anterior cerebral artery

front 180

A patient presents with acute infarction causing primarily contralateral homonymous hemianopia with minimal motor weakness. Which artery is most likely involved?
A. Anterior cerebral artery
B. Middle cerebral artery
C. Posterior cerebral artery
D. Anterior spinal artery

back 180

C. Posterior cerebral artery