front 1
Loss of which liver-resident immune cell most directly
explains impaired early antitumor defense?
| back 1
B. Pit NK cells |
front 2 A new anticonvulsant is primarily metabolized by cytochrome P450.
Where are these enzymes classically located? | back 2 A. Smooth ER |
front 3 After taking a lipophilic drug, the first metabolic step exposes a
hydroxyl group to enable later conjugation. Which detoxification phase
is this? | back 3 D. Phase I |
front 4 A xenobiotic is made more water-soluble by addition of glycine,
sulfate, or glucuronic acid. Which detoxification phase best
fits? | back 4 C. Phase II |
front 5 A patient on a statin drinks grapefruit juice daily and develops
myalgias with elevated CK and transaminases. What mechanism best
explains toxicity? | back 5 D. CYP3A4 inhibition |
front 6 During cytochrome P450 detoxification, which reactive intermediate
classically forms and can contribute to tissue injury? | back 6 B. Free radical |
front 7 A plastics factory worker exposed to vinyl chloride forms
chloroethylene oxide via a Phase I reaction. Which enzyme most
directly catalyzes this activation? | back 7 A. CYP2E1 |
front 8 Vinyl chloride can be converted to chloroacetaldehyde, then safely
eliminated after conjugation with which molecule? | back 8 C. Reduced glutathione |
front 9 Chloroethylene oxide contributes to carcinogenesis by forming adducts
with which DNA base? | back 9 B. Guanine |
front 10 Long-term vinyl chloride exposure is most classically associated with
which hepatic malignancy? | back 10 D. Hepatic angiosarcoma |
front 11 A patient eats mold-contaminated stored peanuts and later develops
hepatocellular carcinoma risk from aflatoxin exposure. Which organism
produced the toxin? | back 11 A. Aspergillus flavus |
front 12 Aflatoxin B1 promotes hepatocarcinogenesis most directly through a
G→T mutation in which gene? | back 12 C. p53 |
front 13 Bioactivation of aflatoxin B1 to its 8,9-epoxide form is most
directly mediated by which enzyme? | back 13 C. CYP2A1 |
front 14 The 8,9-epoxide of aflatoxin B1 forms covalent DNA adducts
predominantly with which base? | back 14 B. Guanine |
front 15 In addition to DNA damage, aflatoxin B1 epoxide can bind proteins by
reacting with which amino acid residue? | back 15 D. Lysine |
front 16 A patient takes therapeutic-dose acetaminophen. Its reactive
metabolite is rendered safe for urinary excretion primarily by
conjugation with: | back 16 A. Glutathione |
front 17 After a massive acetaminophen ingestion, which pathways are
overwhelmed, increasing formation of the toxic metabolite? | back 17 D. Sulfation and glucuronidation |
front 18 A patient with acetaminophen overdose develops hepatocyte necrosis
due to an unstable metabolite. Which metabolite is
responsible? | back 18 C. NAPQI |
front 19 The enzyme that produces NAPQI and is inducible by alcohol
is: | back 19 A. CYP2E1 |
front 20 A chronic alcohol user develops severe acetaminophen toxicity after a
dose that was previously tolerated. The best explanation is: | back 20 B. More CYP2E1 activity |
front 21 A patient has high dietary cholesterol intake with efficient
intestinal absorption. What hepatic compensation is most
expected? | back 21 C. Decreases hepatic synthesis |
front 22 A patient with liver failure develops hyperammonemia. Which organ is
primarily responsible for synthesizing urea under normal
conditions? | back 22 D. Liver |
front 23 Most nitrogen destined for hepatic urea synthesis arrives primarily
carried on which molecules? | back 23 B. Glutamine and alanine |
front 24 Most protein entering the GI tract is metabolized by bacteria,
releasing which species that enters the portal vein? | back 24 A. Ammonium ion |
front 25 What mechanism most directly explains hepatic encephalopathy
here? | back 25 C. Systemic ammonium reaches brain |
front 26 In hepatic ethanol metabolism, the principal cytochrome P450 enzyme
oxidizing ethanol to acetylaldehyde is: | back 26 D. CYP2E1 |
front 27 The term “microsomal enzymes” most directly refers to: | back 27 A. Smooth ER P450s |
front 28 Sialic acid found on serum proteins is also known as: | back 28 B. N-acetylneuraminic acid |
front 29 Sialic acid (NANA) made by the liver is best characterized as which
surface feature of serum proteins? | back 29 D. O-linked sugar |
front 30 If statins are taken regularly with grapefruit juice, statin levels
may rise approximately: | back 30 C. 15-fold |
front 31 The key functional outcome of Phase II reactions is best summarized
as: | back 31 A. Adds negative charged group |
front 32 A patient with impaired liver innate immunity is unusually
susceptible to hepatic viral invasion. Which cell type normally
provides liver-specific NK defense? | back 32 B. Pit NK cells |
front 33 A patient with reduced hepatic clearance has prolonged half-life of
an “aged” serum glycoprotein. Which change normally flags serum
proteins for removal and degradation? | back 33 B. Loss of NANA residues |
front 34 A transfusion service develops a test for oxidative stress tolerance
in RBCs. Which pathway’s major function best supports this defense by
generating NADPH and 5-carbon sugars? | back 34 D. Pentose phosphate pathway |
front 35 NADPH is most critical for maintaining activity of which
enzyme? | back 35 A. Glutathione reductase |
front 36 In severe oxidative stress, oxidized glutathione accumulates. Which
reaction is directly catalyzed by glutathione reductase? | back 36 C. GSSG → GSH |
front 37 A patient has markedly decreased glutathione reductase activity. Loss
of which protection is most direct? | back 37 B. Free radical injury defense |
front 38 Which pathway is required in all cells for ribose generation,
especially rapidly dividing cells? | back 38 A. Pentose phosphate pathway |
front 39 After a high-carbohydrate meal, hepatic glucose uptake increases
sharply. This dependence on high portal glucose is best explained by
which shared property? | back 39 D. High Km for both proteins |
front 40 A fasting hepatocyte shows reduced cytosolic glucokinase activity. In
the absence of glucose, glucokinase is partially sequestered where and
bound to what? | back 40 C. Nucleus; GK regulatory protein |
front 41 A patient receives a drug that increases hepatic
fructose-2,6-bisphosphate. What is the net effect on glycolysis
rate? | back 41 B. Increases |
front 42 A 48-hour fast shifts the liver’s primary fuel source. Which
substrate is the major fuel for the liver during fasting? | back 42 A. Long-chain fatty acids |
front 43 A newborn has accumulation of very-long-chain fatty acids (C20–C26).
These fatty acids are first activated to CoA derivatives by an enzyme
located in the: | back 43 D. Peroxisomal membrane |
front 44 During fasting, hepatic gene transcription increases for fatty acid
uptake and oxidation proteins. Which receptor directly regulates these
genes? | back 44 C. PPAR |
front 45 A patient with high circulating free fatty acids shows increased
transcription of fatty-acid metabolism proteins. Fatty acids act as
endogenous ligands for which liver-dominant isoform? | back 45 A. PPARα |
front 46 A patient ingests benzoate-containing food preservatives. Benzoate
(and salicylic acid) resemble medium-chain fatty acids and are
activated to acyl-CoA derivatives by which enzyme? | back 46 B. Medium-chain fatty acyl-CoA enzyme |
front 47 After activation, benzoate and salicylic acid are targeted for
urinary excretion by conjugation with: | back 47 D. Glycine |
front 48 A cirrhotic patient has elevated plasma triglycerides without major
dietary change. The most direct mechanism is decreased activity
of: | back 48 C. LPL and hepatic TG lipase |
front 49 A patient with hepatocellular disease has reduced cholesterol ester
formation. Decreased activity of which enzyme best explains
this? | back 49 A. lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase |
front 50 A toxicologist notes that multiple organs serve excretory roles with
broad detoxifying mechanisms. Besides liver, which organs fit this
description? | back 50 B. Kidney and gut |
front 51 Approximately 75% of the liver’s blood supply normally arrives via
the: | back 51 D. Portal vein |
front 52 Which organ’s venous blood is not a typical contributor to
portal venous inflow? | back 52 C. Kidney |
front 53 A pathologist describes “expandable vascular channels” running
through hepatic lobules. Which structure is being described? | back 53 A. Sinusoids |
front 54 Drug molecules in plasma rapidly access hepatocytes across a “leaky”
barrier in hepatic lobules. Which cells line this leaky
channel? | back 54 B. Endothelial cells |
front 55 A patient with obstructive cholestasis has impaired exocrine output
from the liver. What is the primary exocrine secretion? | back 55 D. Bile |
front 56 During biliary drainage, lumina of bile ducts fuse and ultimately
form the: | back 56 C. Common bile duct |
front 57 A surgeon notes a fibrous covering enveloping the entire liver
surface and sending septa inward (Glisson's capsule). This covering is
primarily: | back 57 A. Connective tissue capsule |
front 58 A histology slide shows the dominant cell type by volume within liver
parenchyma. Which cell type composes most liver volume? | back 58 B. Hepatocytes |
front 59 Despite normally low turnover, which feature best explains why
hepatocytes can restore liver mass? | back 59 C. Stimulated growth after damage |
front 60 A patient with bacteremia has rapid clearance of microbes from portal
blood. Which liver-resident cell type provides endocytotic and
phagocytic capacity? | back 60 D. Kupffer cells |
front 61 A lab intentionally removes terminal residues from serum
glycoproteins and observes accelerated clearance from blood. Which
residue’s loss triggers this clearance signal? | back 61 B. Sialic acid |
front 62 A patient with low NADPH cannot maintain reduced glutathione stores.
Which enzyme activity is most directly compromised by NADPH
deficiency? | back 62 D. Glutathione reductase |
front 63 A lipid profile suggests selective impairment in handling
very-long-chain fatty acids. Which chain length most specifically
matches the peroxisome-activated group? | back 63 A. C20–C26 |
front 64 A patient takes aspirin chronically; hepatic handling of salicylic
acid involves glycine conjugation. Which glycine conjugate corresponds
to benzoate specifically? | back 64 C. Hippurate |
front 65 A patient with hepatocellular disease has a lipid abnormality most
directly predicted by reduced LPL and hepatic TG lipase. Which
abnormality is expected? | back 65 B. Elevated triglycerides |
front 66 A fed-state signal increases hepatic fructose-2,6-bisphosphate. Which
pathway’s rate rises as a direct consequence? | back 66 A. Glycolysis |
front 67 After a high-carb meal, glucose enters hepatocytes efficiently
because hepatic uptake is tuned for high portal glucose. Which
transporter best fits this “high Km” role? | back 67 C. GLUT2 |
front 68 The remaining ~25% of the liver’s blood supply is delivered by
the: | back 68 C. Hepatic artery |
front 69 A patient with hereditary spherocytosis has increased RBC turnover.
Which liver cell type directly removes damaged erythrocytes from
circulation? | back 69 A. Kupffer cells |
front 70 A biopsy shows lipid-filled perisinusoidal cells with vitamin A
droplets. What is the alternate name for these cells? | back 70 B. Ito cells |
front 71 The primary hepatic storage site for vitamin A is: | back 71 C. Stellate cells |
front 72 A cirrhotic patient has progressive portal hypertension and fibrosis.
Which cell type is most responsible for increased extracellular matrix
synthesis in cirrhosis? | back 72 D. Stellate cells |
front 73 In cirrhosis, stellate cell activation most directly increases
synthesis of: | back 73 B. Extracellular matrix material |
front 74 Which cell type normally regulates sinusoidal contractility and
connective tissue turnover? | back 74 A. Stellate cells |
front 75 A patient with metastatic cancer shows early hepatic tumor
surveillance failure. “Liver-associated lymphocytes” that mediate this
defense are: | back 75 B. Natural killer cells |
front 76 Hepatic “pit cells” are best classified as which immune effector
type? | back 76 A. Natural killer cells |
front 77 A toxic compound absorbed from the gut is cleared by the liver and
targeted for excretion primarily into: | back 77 B. Urine or bile |
front 78 A clinician explains why the liver sees gut-derived toxins early
after ingestion. Which concept best captures this “first access”
physiology? | back 78 B. Enterohepatic circulation |
front 79 The liver’s first access to portal blood most directly supports
synthesis of which protein class? | back 79 C. Coagulation proteins |
front 80 After a meal, the liver rapidly processes incoming substrates for
nucleotide synthesis. Which products are specifically listed functions
supported by first access? | back 80 A. Heme, purines, pyrimidines |
front 81 Gut bacteria generate NH4+ that can reach the liver via portal blood.
This is best categorized as a: | back 81 B. Metabolic product |
front 82 Hepatic sinusoids allow efficient exchange with hepatocytes. Which
structural feature is notably absent between endothelium and
hepatocytes? | back 82 B. Basement membrane |
front 83 Slow portal blood flow and “leaky” endothelium most directly
enhance: | back 83 A. Exchange between blood and hepatocytes |
front 84 A patient is fasting and uses amino acids for energy. Which statement
best reflects hepatic metabolic flexibility? | back 84 B. Converts amino acids to multiple fuels |
front 85 The liver can convert amino acids found in proteins into: | back 85 A. Glucose, fatty acids, ketones |
front 86 ______ is created when VLDL loses triglycerides through the action of lipoprotein lipase. | back 86 IDL |
front 87 A patient with hypertriglyceridemia has increased hepatic export of
TAG. Which lipoprotein secretion delivers excess calories to adipose
for TAG storage? | back 87 D. VLDL |
front 88 Hepatic VLDL also provides which lipid components to peripheral
tissues for membrane needs? | back 88 B. Phospholipids and cholesterol |
front 89 A nuclear medicine study uses a ligand to assess receptor-mediated
uptake by hepatocytes. Which receptor is used diagnostically for this
purpose? | back 89 B. Asialoglycoprotein receptor |
front 90 The asialoglycoprotein receptor is also known as the: | back 90 A. Hepatic binding protein |
front 91 A toxicology question defines xenobiotics. Which property best
matches xenobiotics? | back 91 C. No nutrient value |
front 92 The principal site for xenobiotic degradation in the body is
the: | back 92 B. Liver |
front 93 Many xenobiotics require Phase I processing because they are: | back 93 B. Lipophilic |
front 94 Phase I reactions most characteristically: | back 94 B. Introduce hydroxyl reactive sites |
front 95 Conjugation reactions most characteristically add a: | back 95 B. Negatively charged group |
front 96 Which pairing best matches a Phase II conjugation group
listed? | back 96 A. Glycine, sulfate, glucuronic acid |
front 97 A patient has elevated steroid hormone levels due to impaired hepatic
clearance. Which Phase II process is specifically used to clear
steroid hormones? | back 97 A. Sulfation |
front 98 A smoker’s carcinogen contains a stable aromatic ring that humans
cannot readily recycle into useful components. Which compound fits
this example? | back 98 A. Benzopyrene |
front 99 Nicotine contains ring structures that are difficult to degrade.
These are best described as: | back 99 A. Heterocyclic rings |
front 100 Cytochrome P450–dependent monooxygenases are determinants in
degradation of both exogenous and endogenous substances. Which is
listed as an endogenous substrate class? | back 100 A. Steroids |
front 101 The major role of cytochrome P450 enzymes is to: | back 101 B. Oxidize substrates, add oxygen |
front 102 A pharmacologist notes an isoform comprising ~30–40% of hepatic
CYP450 and ~70% of gut-wall enterocyte CYP enzymes. Which isoform is
this? | back 102 C. CYP3A4 |
front 103 A patient taking simvastatin begins a new diet including grapefruit
juice daily. Which statement best explains the interaction? | back 103 B. Grapefruit inhibits CYP3A4 |
front 104 Statin degradation most directly depends on which enzyme
isoform? | back 104 B. CYP3A4 |
front 105 A patient has reduced drug metabolism specifically in gut-wall
enterocytes. Which hepatic/gut CYP isoform dominates
enterocytes? | back 105 A. CYP3A4 |
front 106 A patient has impaired microsomal oxidation capacity because the
flavin reductase subunit can’t donate electrons. Which cofactor is
required? | back 106 A. NADPH |
front 107 A 52-year-old man begins a highly lipophilic medication that accumulates within hepatocyte membranes. Shortly after, his physician notes altered metabolism of several drugs processed by hepatic monooxygenases. Which structural feature of these enzymes best explains their susceptibility to modulation by membrane-partitioning drugs? A. Integral membrane localization within smooth ER lipid
bilayer | back 107 A. Integral membrane localization within smooth ER lipid bilayer |
front 108 A chronic medication accelerates its own metabolism over
time. Which shared CYP feature best explains this? | back 108 A. Inducible by own substrate |
front 109 During CYP-dependent oxidation, transient reactive intermediates
increase cellular injury risk. What intermediate is classically
generated? | back 109 D. Free radical intermediate |
front 110 A factory worker is exposed to vinyl chloride daily. The compound is
used primarily to make: | back 110 B. Plastics |
front 111 Years later, that worker develops a rare hepatic malignancy
classically linked to vinyl chloride exposure. Which tumor fits
best? | back 111 C. Hepatic angiosarcoma |
front 112 Which statement best fits? | back 112 A. CYP can bioactivate toxins |
front 113 The CYP isoform listed as making aflatoxin B1 more toxic
is: | back 113 D. CYP2A1 |
front 114 A patient taking therapeutic acetaminophen clears most of it safely
via renal excretion after Phase II processing. Which pathways are
listed? | back 114 C. Glucuronidation or sulfation |
front 115 Why can acetaminophen become toxic at high doses? | back 115 B. Conjugation pathways become saturated |
front 116 After overdose, a CYP enzyme generates the key toxic intermediate
responsible for hepatocyte injury. Which metabolite is it? | back 116 D. N-acetyl-p-benzoquinoneimine |
front 117 NAPQI causes hepatotoxicity most directly by damaging: | back 117 A. Cellular proteins |
front 118 In therapeutic dosing, NAPQI is rendered safe primarily by
conjugation with: | back 118 B. Glutathione |
front 119 A chronic alcohol user develops severe acetaminophen toxicity at a
lower dose. Best explanation? | back 119 C. More NAPQI shunting |
front 120 Chronic alcohol use increases acetaminophen toxicity risk by
increasing levels of: | back 120 A. CYP2E1 |
front 121 A patient with acetaminophen poisoning receives an antidote that
restores glutathione availability. Which treatment is listed? | back 121 B. N-acetylcysteine |
front 122 N-acetylcysteine helps most directly by: | back 122 C. Increasing glutathione stores |
front 123 During an overnight fast, blood glucose is maintained primarily
by: | back 123 D. Glycogenolysis |
front 124 If gluconeogenesis is required, how much ATP is needed to make one
glucose from two pyruvate? | back 124 A. 6 ATP |
front 125 During fasting gluconeogenesis, the energy to meet this ATP
requirement is obtained mainly from: | back 125 C. Fatty acid oxidation |
front 126 Compared with most organs, the liver has a much greater demand
for: | back 126 D. NADPH |
front 127 The only organ that can produce ketone bodies is the: | back 127 A. Liver |
front 128 Despite producing ketone bodies, the liver is listed as being unable
to: | back 128 D. Use ketones for energy |
front 129 Hypoproteinemia causes edema primarily because of: | back 129 C. Low plasma oncotic pressure |
front 130 Hepatic NADPH is used for biosynthesis of: | back 130 D. Fatty acids, cholesterol, bile salts |
front 131 Cirrhosis causes portal hypertension that increases back pressure
into esophageal veins, promoting: | back 131 B. Esophageal varices |
front 132 In cirrhosis, reduced coagulation protein synthesis and impaired
vitamin K–dependent reactions most directly produce: | back 132 A. Prolonged prothrombin time |
front 133 When hepatocellular function is compromised, urea-cycle capacity is
inadequate and peripheral ammonium contributes to: | back 133 C. Hepatic encephalopathy |
front 134 The most abundant plasma protein produced by the liver is: | back 134 B. Albumin |
front 135 Most sugars secreted by the liver onto proteins are: | back 135 A. O-linked glycans |
front 136 O-linked carbohydrate attachment occurs via the –OH of: | back 136 D. Serine or threonine |
front 137 A particularly important O-linked sugar made by the liver is: | back 137 C. N-acetylneuraminic acid |
front 138 NANA is synthesized from: | back 138 A. Fructose-6-P + PEP |
front 139 As serum proteins age, loss of NANA residues signals: | back 139 D. Clearance and degradation |
front 140 Major functions of the pentose phosphate pathway include generation
of: | back 140 B. NADPH and pentoses |
front 141 The liver consumes approximately what fraction of the body’s total
oxygen? | back 141 C. About 20% |
front 142 After a binge, which organ is the major site of ethanol
oxidation? | back 142 B. Liver |
front 143 Hepatic ethanol oxidation yields principally acetate, then which
product? | back 143 D. Acetyl-CoA |
front 144 Hepatic glucose use rate is partly determined by activity of which
enzyme? | back 144 C. Glucokinase |
front 145 The glucokinase regulatory protein is located primarily in
the: | back 145 A. Nucleus |
front 146 In liver, glucokinase activity is regulated by binding to: | back 146 B. Glucokinase regulatory protein |
front 147 During fasting, the major lipids oxidized as hepatic fuels
are: | back 147 A. Long-chain fatty acids |
front 148 Palmitic, stearic, and oleic acids are major lipids ingested mainly
from: | back 148 C. Meat or dairy |
front 149 Fatty acids in infants usually enter via maternal milk as: | back 149 D. Medium-chain triacylglycerols |
front 150 MCT supplements help malabsorption patients mainly because they
provide: | back 150 A. Easily absorbed calories |
front 151 A child with steatorrhea from low pancreatic enzymes needs calories.
Best supplement? | back 151 A. MCTs |
front 152 A patient with cholestasis and low intraluminal bile salts needs
calories. Best fat source? | back 152 B. MCT supplements |
front 153 A stone obstructs the common bile duct causing fat malabsorption.
Best calorie fat? | back 153 A. MCT supplements |
front 154 Compared with other tissues, peroxisomes are present in greatest
numbers in: | back 154 A. Liver |
front 155 Oxidation of very-long-chain fatty acids (e.g., C24:0) occurs
primarily in: | back 155 C. Peroxisomes |
front 156 Peroxisomes detoxify which reactive molecule using catalase? | back 156 D. Hydrogen peroxide |
front 157 Cleavage of the cholesterol side chain for bile salt synthesis occurs
in: | back 157 C. Peroxisomes |
front 158 A step in ether lipid biosynthesis occurs in the: | back 158 B. Peroxisome |
front 159 Several steps of arachidonic acid metabolism occur in: | back 159 C. Peroxisomes |
front 160 The key peroxisomal enzyme that detoxifies hydrogen peroxide
is: | back 160 A. Catalase |
front 161 A neonate has a cerebrohepatorenal (Zellgewer) syndrome due to
absence of which organelle? | back 161 D. Peroxisomes |
front 162 In Zellweger syndrome, which fatty acids accumulate in brain
tissue? | back 162 B. C26 to C38 |
front 163 In Zellweger syndrome, there is defective oxidation of
very-long-chain fatty acids used for: | back 163 B. Myelin formation |
front 164 PPARs were named because agonists can induce hepatic: | back 164 D. Peroxisome proliferation |
front 165 Which PPAR isoform is the major form in liver? | back 165 A. PPAR-α |
front 166 A patient with hypertriglyceridemia starts clofibrate. This drug
class binds: | back 166 D. PPARs |
front 167 Fibrates are typically prescribed for patients with: | back 167 B. Elevated triglycerides |
front 168 Fibrate therapy lowers triglycerides primarily by increasing: | back 168 C. Triglyceride oxidation |
front 169 Suppressing apoCIII levels lowers plasma triglycerides by allowing
more: | back 169 A. IDL endocytosis |
front 170 The glycine conjugate of salicylate is called: | back 170 C. Salicylurate |
front 171 A child develops vomiting and progressive CNS dysfunction after a
viral illness. Diagnosis? | back 171 B. Reye syndrome |
front 172 Reye syndrome is classically associated with children using which
drug during viral illness? | back 172 C. Aspirin |
front 173 Autopsy in fatal Reye syndrome most characteristically shows: | back 173 A. Swollen disrupted mitochondria |
front 174 Reye syndrome autopsy also shows fatty vacuolization in: | back 174 C. Liver and renal tubules |
front 175 A cirrhotic patient has elevated circulating nonesterified fatty
acids. Which marker is high? | back 175 D. NEFA |
front 176 Hepatocyte injury releases which enzymes, elevating them in
plasma? | back 176 B. ALT and AST |
front 177 In liver disease, jaundice most directly reflects impaired: | back 177 B. Bilirubin glucuronidation |
front 178 A major change that occurs when fibrosis is initiated is that the
normally “sparse” or “leaky” basement membrane between the endothelial
cell and the hepatocyte is replaced with a high-density membrane
containing | back 178 D. Fibrillar collagen |
front 179 Peroxisome Proliferator-Activated Receptors (PPARs) are a family of nuclear receptor proteins that function as ______ ______ regulating gene expression related to lipid metabolism, glucose homeostasis, and cell differentiation. | back 179 transcription factors |
front 180 PPARα: Highly expressed in the liver, heart, and muscle, it regulates ______ ______ oxidation. | back 180 fatty acid |