front 1 A 26-year-old runner has right-sided SI pain. Exam shows right ASIS
inferior and right PSIS superior. Which dysfunction best fits? | back 1 B. Right anterior innominate rotation |
front 2 A patient has pelvic asymmetry: right ASIS superior and right PSIS
superior. Which dysfunction best fits? | back 2 D. Right superior innominate shear |
front 3 When naming vertebral motion in somatic dysfunction, motion is
described as the: | back 3 A. Superior vertebra on inferior |
front 4 During a C5–C6 foraminal procedure, the surgeon asks where the C6
nerve root exits relative to the C6 vertebra. | back 4 C. Above corresponding vertebra |
front 5 A resident is palpating cervical facet orientation. The superior
articular facets in the cervical spine face: | back 5 A. Backward upward medial |
front 6 Which pairing correctly matches “column support” descriptions? | back 6 D. OA two; C2-7 three |
front 7 Which set is classified as atypical cervical vertebrae? | back 7 C. C1 and C2 |
front 8 In the atlas (C1), the cervical nerve root passes _____ to the
vertebral artery. | back 8 B. Posterior |
front 9 About 50% of cervical flexion/extension occurs primarily at
the: | back 9 D. OA joint |
front 10 Fryette’s 1st and 2nd principles do not apply to the: | back 10 B. Cervical spine |
front 11 Which statement best matches facet shape at C1–C2? | back 11 C. C1 inferior concave; C2 superior convex |
front 12 In preventing catastrophic cord compression at C1–C2, the most
crucial stabilizer is the: | back 12 D. Cruciform ligament |
front 13 Which condition most strongly predisposes to cruciform ligament
laxity at C1–C2? | back 13 A. Rheumatoid arthritis |
front 14 A 12-year-old with trisomy 21 needs OMT for neck pain. Which is an
absolute contraindication? | back 14 C. Cervical HVLA |
front 15 The AA joint contributes approximately 50% of cervical: | back 15 D. Rotation |
front 16 A patient has radicular symptoms, but imaging shows reduced tendency
for lateral cervical disc herniation. Which structure is most
protective? | back 16 B. Uncinate processes |
front 17 Compared with typical transverse processes elsewhere, C3–C7 are best described as having: | back 17 Tubercles for muscle attachment |
front 18 The C3–C7 facets lie in a plane oriented roughly: | back 18 B. Toward the eye, 45° |
front 19 During a seated cervical exam, the paired bony “columns” you monitor
for segmental rotation are the: | back 19 B. Articular pillars |
front 20 The suboccipital muscles most strongly support head stability
via: | back 20 C. Proprioception |
front 21 Which is NOT a suboccipital muscle? | back 21 A. Rectus capitis anterior major/minor |
front 22 A patient has persistent cervical extension dysfunction after
whiplash. Which posterior muscles most contribute? | back 22 D. Semispinalis cervicis, longissimus |
front 23 A desk worker presents with a flexion dysfunction pattern. Which
anterior muscles are most implicated? | back 23 B. Longus colli, rectus capitis anterior |
front 24 A patient’s right SCM is in spasm. The expected head posture
is: | back 24 C. Right sidebend, left rotate |
front 25 In COPD, prominent neck accessory breathing and lateral neck
stabilization most implicate the: | back 25 A. Scalenes |
front 26 In the neck, the investing layer of deep cervical fascia splits to
enclose: | back 26 B. SCM and trapezius |
front 27 A patient has pain in the suboccipital triangle region. The suboccipital nerve root is: | back 27 C1 |
front 28 A patient has classic greater occipital neuralgia. The greater
occipital nerve arises from: | back 28 C. Posterior ramus of C2 |
front 29 During a nerve block, the greater occipital nerve is targeted after
it pierces the: | back 29 B. Semispinalis capitis |
front 30 The 3rd occipital nerve root is: | back 30 C3 |
front 31 In a posterior neck dissection, the nerve found medial to the greater
occipital nerve is the: | back 31 A. Third occipital nerve |
front 32 A patient has shoulder abduction weakness and reduced elbow flexion strength. Which root best matches? | back 32 C5 |
front 33 A patient can’t extend the wrist well and also has weaker elbow flexion. Which root fits best? | back 33 C6 |
front 34 A patient has weak elbow extension plus impaired finger extension. Which root best matches? | back 34 C7 |
front 35 A patient has weak finger flexion and weak interossei. Which root is most likely? | back 35 C8 |
front 36 Loss of the C5 deep tendon reflex most directly reflects impaired: | back 36 Biceps reflex |
front 37 A diminished C6 reflex most classically involves testing the | back 37 Brachioradialis tendon |
front 38 The classic reflex used for C7 is the: | back 38 Triceps reflex |
front 39 During an anterior approach near C2, which structure is expected to
pass anterior to the axis? | back 39 C. Vagus nerve |
front 40 A patient has ipsilateral ptosis and miosis from a neck mass
affecting sympathetics to the head. Preganglionic roots are
primarily: | back 40 B. T1–T4 |
front 41 A nerve pierces semispinalis capitis and runs medial to the greater
occipital nerve. Which nerve is this? | back 41 C. Third occipital nerve |
front 42 In Horner syndrome from cervical sympathetic chain involvement, the
sympathetics traveling through the neck to the head originate mainly
from: | back 42 D. T1–T4 |
front 43 A 29-year-old with overhead-work pain has hand paresthesias. Which
structure is classically implicated in TOS? | back 43 C. Brachial plexus |
front 44 A climber develops arm claudication and cold-induced color change. In
TOS, which vessel is most implicated? | back 44 B. Subclavian artery |
front 45 A pitcher has arm swelling and venous congestion after repetitive
abduction. In TOS, which vessel is most implicated? | back 45 B. Subclavian vein |
front 46 Which bony structure is part of the thoracic outlet region? | back 46 C. First rib |
front 47 Which muscle commonly contributes to TOS by abnormal
insertion? | back 47 D. Pectoralis minor |
front 48 Excessive tension in which muscles is a listed cause of TOS? | back 48 B. Anterior and middle scalenes |
front 49 Which dysfunction is explicitly listed as causing TOS? | back 49 C. Cervical ribs |
front 50 Which cluster best matches common TOS symptoms? | back 50 C. Paresthesias, weakness, arm pain |
front 51 Which symptom most suggests severe vascular compromise in
TOS? | back 51 C. Ischemic tissue loss |
front 52 A patient’s fingertips are blackened. Which TOS complication is
listed? | back 52 D. Gangrene |
front 53 Which is listed as a cervical spine special test? | back 53 B. Wallenburg |
front 54 A positive Adson test indicates compression of the: | back 54 C. Subclavian artery |
front 55 Adson positivity is attributed to either a cervical rib or
tight: | back 55 B. Scalenes |
front 56 Spurling, Valsalva, Adson, Wright's, and Military Brace are
typically: | back 56 B. Seated |
front 57 Compression, Distraction, and Wallenburg tests are typically: | back 57 A. Supine |
front 58 Which is a mechanical cause of neck pain? | back 58 C. Spondylosis |
front 59 A patient’s neck pain began after minor strain with guarding. Which
is a mechanical cause? | back 59 B. Muscle spasm/imbalance |
front 60 A 58-year-old has neck pain plus exertional chest pressure. Which
cause is listed? | back 60 C. ACS referred pain |
front 61 Sudden neck rotation precedes focal neurologic symptoms. Which cause
is listed? | back 61 B. Carotid artery dissection |
front 62 Chronic neck pain worsens with poor sleep and strain. Which factor is
listed? | back 62 B. Stress |
front 63 Whiplash injuries classically occur in what sequence? | back 63 C. Hyperextension then hyperflexion |
front 64 Normal cervical extension range of motion is approximately: | back 64 D. 45 degrees |
front 65 Neck extension decreases by ~50% when rotated: | back 65 B. 45 degrees off midline |
front 66 Spinal stenosis refers to abnormal: | back 66 B. Narrowing of spinal canal |
front 67 Most common sites of spinal stenosis include: | back 67 C. Lumbar and cervical |
front 68 Overall, spinal stenosis is most common in the: | back 68 B. Lumbar spine |
front 69 Spinal stenosis is most dangerous in the: | back 69 D. Cervical spine |
front 70 Which is a listed cause of spinal stenosis? | back 70 C. Thickened ligamentum flavum |
front 71 Facet joint arthritis can cause stenosis via breakdown and: | back 71 C. Cysts |
front 72 Stenosis after vertebral collapse most implicates: | back 72 C. Compression fractures |
front 73 Canal compromise from a posterior disc contour is listed as: | back 73 C. Disc bulge into canal |
front 74 Degenerative stenosis can be driven by osteophytes, also
called: | back 74 B. Bone spurs |
front 75 A patient with stenosis reports aching in which areas? | back 75 B. Shoulders, arms, hands |
front 76 Symptoms of spinal stenosis may include: | back 76 B. Brisk deep tendon reflexes |
front 77 A febrile patient with neck pain raises concern for which listed
cause? | back 77 B. Infection |
front 78 In TOS, which additional bony group is listed in the outlet
region? | back 78 A. Upper ribs |
front 79 Which TOS special test is also called “military brace”? | back 79 D. Costoclavicular maneuver |
front 80 Unexplained neck pain with weight loss raises concern for: | back 80 C. Head/neck cancer |
front 81 A patient has neck pain radiating into the upper thorax. The upper
thoracic spine receives which fiber type from the cervical
spine? | back 81 B. Nociceptive afferent |
front 82 Reflex hammer tap produces no response. How is this graded? | back 82 0/4 |
front 83 Which DTR grade is always abnormal because it includes clonus? | back 83 4/4 |
front 84 A brisk reflex response considered normal is graded: | back 84 2/4 |
front 85 A very brisk reflex response that may or may not be normal is graded: | back 85 3/4 |
front 86 A slight but definite reflex response that may or may not be normal is graded: | back 86 1/4 |
front 87 Palpation at the angle of the mandible corresponds most closely to which level? | back 87 C2 |
front 88 The hyoid bone landmark correlates best with: | back 88 C3 |
front 89 The top of the thyroid cartilage correlates best with: | back 89 C4 |
front 90 The bottom of the thyroid cartilage correlates best with: | back 90 C5 |
front 91 The cricoid cartilage landmark correlates best with: | back 91 C6 |
front 92 A tenderpoint at AC1 (mandible) is most associated
with which muscle? | back 92 B. Rectus capitis anterior |
front 93 A tenderpoint at AC1 (transverse process) is most
associated with: | back 93 A. Rectus capitis lateralis |
front 94 AC2 tenderpoint is most associated with which pair? | back 94 C. Middle scalene and longus colli |
front 95 AC3 and AC4 tenderpoints are associated with which grouping? | back 95 B. Anterior and middle scalenes, longus capitis, longus colli |
front 96 AC5 and AC6 tenderpoints are associated with: | back 96 B. Anterior/middle/posterior scalenes, longus capitis, longus colli |
front 97 AC7 and AC8 tenderpoints are primarily associated with: | back 97 A. SCM |
front 98 PC1 (inion) tenderpoint is associated with medial border of: | back 98 B. Semispinalis capitis and rectus capitis posterior minor |
front 99 PC1 (occiput) tenderpoint is associated with: | back 99 A. Splenius capitis and suboccipitals |
front 100 PC2 (occiput) tenderpoint is associated with semispinalis capitis and
the: | back 100 C. Greater occipital nerve |
front 101 PC2 midline tenderpoint is associated with: | back 101 A. Rectus capitis posterior major/minor and obliquus capitis inferior |
front 102 PC4–PC8 midline tenderpoints are associated with which muscle
set? | back 102 B. Semispinalis capitis, multifidus, rotatores |
front 103 A patient has a PC3 midline tenderpoint with suboccipital pain. This
point is most associated with irritation of the: | back 103 C. Greater and/or third occipital |
front 104 A PC3 midline tenderpoint may reflect hypertonicity in C3-innervated
muscles. Which set best matches? | back 104 B. Middle scalene, longus capitis, longus colli |
front 105 After accounting for OA and AA contributions, which segments provide
the remaining ~50% flex/ext and remaining ~50% rotation? | back 105 B. Typical C3–C7 |
front 106 Typical cervical vertebrae (C3–C7) have the least motion in: | back 106 A. Flexion and extension |
front 107 The minor motion at the OA level is best termed: | back 107 D. Side slipping/rotation |
front 108 The minor motion at the AA joint is called: | back 108 C. Wobble |
front 109 The minor motion at C2–C7 is termed: | back 109 B. Slight translation |
front 110 The major motion at the OA joint is primarily: | back 110 A. Flexion/extension |
front 111 The major motion at the AA joint is: | back 111 D. Rotation only |
front 112 The major motions at C2–C7 include: | back 112 C. Sidebending, rotation, flexion, extension |
front 113 During cervical HVLA setup, the critical motion to avoid is: | back 113 B. Extending the neck |
front 114 Lumbar vertebral bodies are higher ______ than ______. | back 114 C. Anteriorly than posteriorly |
front 115 This lumbar body orientation most contributes to developing: | back 115 A. Lordosis during walking |
front 116 In lumbar vertebrae, which relationship is correct? | back 116 B. Transverse wider than AP |
front 117 A lateral lumbar image shows a vertebra with a larger body,
thicker/shorter TPs, smaller SP, and markedly higher anteriorly. Which
level fits best? | back 117 D. L5 |
front 118 Superior lumbar articular facets are ______ and face ______. | back 118 A. Concave; backward upward medial |
front 119 Inferior lumbar articular facets are ______ and face ______. | back 119 C. Convex; laterally downward forward |
front 120 The superior and inferior articular facets form the: | back 120 B. Zygapophyseal joints |
front 121 A 46-year-old with chronic low back pain has imaging showing
asymmetric facet joint angles at L4–L5. This anomaly is most
consistent with: | back 121 B. Facet tropism |
front 122 Facet tropism most directly increases degeneration risk by
promoting: | back 122 C. Asymmetric spinal motion |
front 123 Which statement about prevalence is correct? | back 123 B. Lumbarization rarer than sacralization |
front 124 A patient with foraminal stenosis reports less radicular pain when
bending forward. Lumbar flexion likely: | back 124 B. Widens intervertebral foramina |
front 125 A patient’s radicular symptoms worsen when standing upright and
extending the lumbar spine. Lumbar extension likely: | back 125 C. Narrows intervertebral foramina |
front 126 Thickening and calcification of which ligament can contribute to
foraminal narrowing, stenosis, and nerve root compression? | back 126 C. Ligamentum flavum |
front 127 The interspinous ligament anchors which structures to facet joint
capsules? | back 127 A. Thoracolumbar fascia, multifidus sheath |
front 128 A 38-year-old with reduced lumbar fascial adaptability is suspected
to have age-related interspinous ligament changes. Chondrification
typically begins after: | back 128 C. Third decade |
front 129 Chondrification of the interspinous ligament may increase injury risk
primarily by diminishing: | back 129 B. Thoracolumbar fascia alignment influence |
front 130 At L5, the posterior longitudinal ligament is approximately: | back 130 C. One-half original width |
front 131 At L5, the posterior longitudinal ligament characteristically
becomes: | back 131 B. Scalloped |
front 132 The combination of PLL thinness and scalloping at L5 most predisposes
to: | back 132 B. Disc herniation and nerve impingement |
front 133 The iliolumbar ligament attaches to transverse processes of: | back 133 C. L4 and L5 |
front 134 The iliolumbar ligament extends primarily to the: | back 134 B. Iliac crest and SI regions |
front 135 The major function of the iliolumbar ligament is restricting motion
at the lumbosacral junction, especially: | back 135 A. Extension |
front 136 The earliest complaint from iliolumbar ligament irritation may
present as: | back 136 C. Groin pain |
front 137 In lumbosacral postural stress with decompensation, the first
ligament to become tender is often the: | back 137 B. Iliolumbar |
front 138 Which set contains only extrinsic muscles related to the lumbar
region? | back 138 A. Diaphragm, QL, psoas major, psoas minor |
front 139 Which set contains only intrinsic superficial lumbar muscles? | back 139 C. Iliocostalis, longissimus, spinalis |
front 140 Which set contains only intrinsic deep lumbar muscles? | back 140 B. Multifidus, rotatores, interspinales, intertransversarii |
front 141 The left crus of the diaphragm is associated with the first: | back 141 B. Two lumbar bodies |
front 142 The right crus of the diaphragm is associated with the first: | back 142 D. Three lumbar bodies |
front 143 Quadratus lumborum attachments include: | back 143 A. Rib 12, L-spine, iliac crest |
front 144 Quadratus lumborum innervation is best described as: | back 144 B. T12, L1–L4 |
front 145 Quadratus lumborum primary actions include: | back 145 B. Extension and sidebending |
front 146 Psoas major attaches proximally from: | back 146 B. T12–L5 |
front 147 Psoas major inserts on the: | back 147 C. Lesser trochanter |
front 148 Psoas major innervation is best described as: | back 148 A. L1–L3 (L2–L4) |
front 149 The primary action of the psoas major is: | back 149 B. Hip flexion |
front 150 Psoas minor attaches from: | back 150 A. T12 and L1 |
front 151 Psoas minor inserts on the: | back 151 C. Pectineal line |
front 152 A cadaveric dissection reveals a small psoas minor muscle belly. Its
innervation is most consistent with: | back 152 C. L1 |
front 153 A patient with mild anterior lumbar discomfort has isolated psoas
minor involvement. Its primary action is best described as: | back 153 B. Weak lumbar flexor |
front 154 On abdominal exam, the clinician uses the umbilicus level to estimate
vertebral level and aortic bifurcation. This landmark corresponds
to: | back 154 C. L3–L4 |
front 155 A student palpates the iliac crest to approximate spinal level. This
landmark corresponds most closely to: | back 155 B. L4–L5 |
front 156 When ranking lumbar spine motion magnitude, the correct order
is: | back 156 D. Flex/extend > sidebending > rotation |
front 157 In lumbosacral mechanics, rotation occurs in ______ directions for L5 and the sacrum. | back 157 Opposite |
front 158 A patient develops a compensatory lumbar scoliosis due to a primary
thoracic curve. This pattern is most consistent with: | back 158 B. Group curves in lumbar spine |
front 159 In the lumbar spine, flexion and extension are coupled with: | back 159 C. Anterior-posterior translation |
front 160 During lumbar sidebending, the coupled translational component is
typically a: | back 160 B. Contralateral translatory slide |
front 161 In the lumbar spine, rotation is coupled with: | back 161 A. Disc compression |
front 162 On lateral lumbar radiograph, Ferguson’s angle is formed using a
line: | back 162 B. Parallel to sacral base floor |
front 163 Ferguson’s angle is primarily used to assess: | back 163 C. Hyper-lordosis of lumbar spine |
front 164 Normal Ferguson’s angle is closest to: | back 164 C. 25–35° |
front 165 The lumbar plexus is composed of branches of T12 plus ventral rami
of: | back 165 A. L1–L4 |
front 166 A patient has epigastric visceral pain referred via sympathetic
fibers. The celiac ganglion roots are: | back 166 B. T5–T9 |
front 167 A patient has midgut-type visceral pain distribution. Superior
mesenteric ganglion roots are: | back 167 C. T10–T11 |
front 168 A patient has hindgut-type visceral pain distribution. Inferior
mesenteric ganglion roots are: | back 168 B. T12–L2 |
front 169 A patient has burning pain and numbness over the anterolateral thigh
after weight gain and tight belts. Which nerve is compressed? | back 169 C. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve |
front 170 This entrapment under the inguinal ligament near the ASIS is
called: | back 170 B. Meralgia paresthetica |
front 171 Meralgia paresthetica most classically presents with: | back 171 B. Pain and numbness |
front 172 Which is a listed risk factor for meralgia paresthetica? | back 172 A. Tight belts |
front 173 The most common broad category of low back pain causes is: | back 173 B. Mechanical |
front 174 A 41-year-old has radicular pain with passive straight leg elevation.
A positive straight leg raise between which angles is most suggestive
of lumbar disc herniation? | back 174 D. 30–70° |
front 175 A patient has a clearly positive straight leg raise (SLR) supine.
Which follow-up finding should also be present if the exam is
consistent? | back 175 A. Positive seated SLR |
front 176 Braggard’s test is performed by raising the straight leg, then: | back 176 B. Add ankle dorsiflexion below pain |
front 177 Braggard’s test is considered positive if: | back 177 A. Dorsiflexion reproduces pain |
front 178 A patient with anterior hip tightness is suspected to have psoas
hypertonicity. Which test is most appropriate? | back 178 B. Thomas test |
front 179 A clinician suspects symptom exaggeration during lower-extremity
strength testing. Which test is used for malingering? | back 179 B. Hoover test |
front 180 Hoover test validity is based on which physiologic principle? | back 180 C. Crossed extensor reflex |
front 181 A 68-year-old has low back pain radiating to the legs that worsens with extension and improves with flexion. This pattern most suggests: | back 181 Spinal stenosis |
front 182 Radiology suggests spinal stenosis. Which finding best matches? | back 182 B. Osteophytes, decreased disc space |
front 183 Treatment goals for spinal stenosis include: | back 183 A. Increase ROM, reduce restrictions, straighten canal |
front 184 Which mechanism can narrow canal/foramina in stenosis and compress
roots? | back 184 A. Hypertrophy of facet joints |
front 185 Which stenosis contributor is specifically listed? | back 185 A. Calcium deposits in LF and PLL |
front 186 Loss of which feature contributes to stenosis-related
compression? | back 186 B. Loss of IV disc height |
front 187 Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) is best classified as a: | back 187 C. Seronegative spondylitis |
front 188 A lab association commonly seen in AS is: | back 188 B. HLA-B27 |
front 189 In ankylosing spondylitis, which joints commonly ossify causing
“bamboo spine”? | back 189 A. SI and facet joints |
front 190 AS inflammatory back pain is characteristically: | back 190 C. Worse night/morning, inactivity stiffness |
front 191 Which is an extraarticular AS manifestation? | back 191 A. Uveitis |
front 192 Another extraarticular association listed for AS is: | back 192 A. IBD |
front 193 Which skin condition is listed among AS extraarticular
manifestations? | back 193 B. Psoriasis |
front 194 AS may increase risk of which broader disease categories? | back 194 A. Cardiovascular and pulmonary |
front 195 Spondylolysis best seen on which lumbar x-ray view? | back 195 C. Oblique |
front 196 Spondylolisthesis best seen on: | back 196 B. Lateral view |
front 197 A patient has a pars interarticularis defect without anterior
translation. This is: | back 197 C. Spondylolysis |
front 198 A patient has pars defect with anterior displacement of the vertebra.
This is: | back 198 C. Spondylolisthesis |
front 199 Meyerding’s classification is used to grade severity of: | back 199 C. Spondylolisthesis |
front 200 A patient has 1-25% anterior slip. Meyerding grade is: | back 200 C. Grade I |
front 201 A patient has 26-50% anterior slip. Meyerding grade is: | back 201 B. Grade II |
front 202 A patient has 51-75% anterior slip. Meyerding grade is: | back 202 A. Grade III |
front 203 A patient has 76-100% anterior slip. Meyerding grade is: | back 203 C. Grade IV |
front 204 Lumbar disc herniations typically affect the nerve root of the
vertebra: | back 204 B. Below |
front 205 A 38-year-old has shooting leg pain greater than back pain, worsened
by prolonged sitting and flexion, relieved by extension. Most
consistent with: | back 205 C. Disc herniation/bulge |
front 206 In disc herniation/bulge, which pain pattern is most typical? | back 206 A. Leg pain > back pain |
front 207 A patient with radicular symptoms has objective weakness and
paresthesias. Which additional finding is listed? | back 207 B. Loss of DTR |
front 208 After lifting, a patient develops urinary retention and saddle
anesthesia. Most likely cause: | back 208 A. Massive central disc herniation |
front 209 The scenario above represents a surgical emergency termed: | back 209 B. Cauda equina syndrome |
front 210 Which symptom set best supports cauda equina syndrome? | back 210 A. Saddle anesthesia, bowel/bladder loss |
front 211 Acute low back pain with decreased rectal sphincter tone is most
concerning for: | back 211 C. Cauda equina syndrome |
front 212 Lower crossed syndrome is best described as: | back 212 A. Lower-body muscle imbalance pattern |
front 213 In lower crossed syndrome, which muscles are typically tight? | back 213 B. Hip flexors, lumbar extensors |
front 214 In lower crossed syndrome, which muscles are typically weak? | back 214 C. Rectus abdominis, Gluteus Maximus/Minimus |
front 215 The postural pattern of lower crossed syndrome most often
includes: | back 215 C. Anterior pelvic tilt |
front 216 Lower crossed syndrome commonly produces increased hip _____ and a
_____ lumbar spine. | back 216 B. flexion; hyperlordotic |
front 217 The key dysfunction in psoas syndrome is a Type II SD of: | back 217 A. L1 or L2 |
front 218 The most direct cause of psoas syndrome is: | back 218 B. Prolonged shortening of psoas |
front 219 Which of the following findings is most consistent with psoas
syndrome? | back 219 C. Pelvic shift away from the side of spasm |
front 220 In psoas syndrome, sacral rotation is: | back 220 B. Backward |
front 221 In psoas syndrome, which muscle spasms? | back 221 B. Contralateral piriformis |
front 222 A patient leans forward and slightly to one side and cannot stand
straight. Most consistent with: | back 222 C. Psoas syndrome |
front 223 Psoas syndrome posterior thigh pain usually: | back 223 B. Stops at or above the knee |
front 224 Deep buttock pain radiates in sciatic pattern but stops at/above
knee; leg rests externally rotated and resists internal rotation.
Diagnosis? | back 224 D. Piriformis syndrome |
front 225 Which is a listed cause of piriformis syndrome? | back 225 A. Driving long distances |
front 226 A classic positional trigger for piriformis syndrome is: | back 226 B. Sitting with legs crossed |
front 227 Iliolumbar ligament pain referral includes: | back 227 A. Groin, SI joint, lateral thigh |
front 228 Iliolumbar ligament irritation can be triggered by: | back 228 B. Destabilization states |
front 229 A 47-year-old with iliolumbar ligament pain stands shifted. In
iliolumbar ligament syndrome, pelvic side shift is usually: | back 229 C. Toward affected ligament |
front 230 In iliolumbar ligament syndrome, which ipsilateral finding is
common? | back 230 A. Tight hip adductors |
front 231 Sidebending of L5 most directly induces which sacral axis? | back 231 B. Oblique sacral axis |
front 232 During lumbosacral coupling, L5 rotation occurs _____ the
sacrum. | back 232 D. Opposite to |
front 233 the superior, broad portion of the pelvis situated above the pelvic brim/inlet, bounded by the iliac wings, and considered part of the abdominal cavity | back 233 false pelvis |
front 234 the lower, bowl-shaped bony cavity situated below the pelvic brim (linea terminalis), containing the pelvic inlet, cavity, and outlet | back 234 true pelvis |
front 235 The innominate bone consists of: | back 235 D. Ilium ischium pubis |
front 236 Complete fusion of the innominate occurs by: | back 236 B. Late teens/early 20s |
front 237 Superiorly, the sacrum articulates with: | back 237 C. L5 |
front 238 Bilateral sacral articulation completing the pelvic ring is with
the: | back 238 A. Innominates |
front 239 The anterior superior portion of S1 is the: | back 239 D. Sacral promontory |
front 240 The anterior surface of the sacrum is: | back 240 B. Concave |
front 241 The posterior sacral surface is _____ with palpable
tubercles. | back 241 C. Convex |
front 242 The medial row of sacral tubercles forms from fused: | back 242 D. Articular processes |
front 243 The lateral row of sacral tubercles forms from fused: | back 243 A. Transverse processes |
front 244 The inferior curve of the lateral tubercle row is the: | back 244 C. Inferolateral angle (ILA) |
front 245 The sacrum has how many pairs of sacral
foramina? | back 245 B. Four pairs |
front 246 A caudal epidural is performed through the: | back 246 A. Sacral hiatus |
front 247 The coccyx attaches to the sacral apex via the: | back 247 D. Sacrococcygeal joint |
front 248 The ganglion impar is the site where: | back 248 B. Sympathetic chains join |
front 249 The ganglion impar rests on the anterior surface of the: | back 249 C. Coccyx |
front 250 The superior transverse sacral axis is located: | back 250 D. Above S2 |
front 251 Motion around the superior transverse sacral axis is driven by
the: | back 251 B. Cranial primary respiratory mechanism |
front 252 The middle sacral transverse axis is found: | back 252 A. At S2 |
front 253 Forward/backward sacral bending at the SI joint occurs around
the: | back 253 C. Middle transverse axis |
front 254 The inferior transverse sacral axis is located: | back 254 D. Below S2 |
front 255 Rotation of the innominates occurs around the: | back 255 A. Inferior transverse sacral axis |
front 256 A pelvic anatomy question asks which ligament directly contributes to forming both the greater and lesser sciatic foramina. | back 256 Sacrospinous |
front 257 A cadaver shows a ligament from the inferior medial sacrum to the ischial tuberosity and posterior sciatic notch margins. Which is it? | back 257 Sacrotuberous |
front 258 A surgeon identifies a ligament running to the ischial spine from a point anterior to the sacrotuberous ligament. Which ligament is this? | back 258 Sacrospinous |
front 259 Which pair primarily restrains anterior sacral movement within the
pelvis? | back 259 B. Sacrotuberous and sacrospinous |
front 260 A 52-year-old with lumbosacral instability has focal tenderness near
the iliac crest with groin referral mimicking an inguinal hernia. The
referral pathway is via the: | back 260 C. Ilioinguinal nerve |
front 261 The ligament above is prone to irritation particularly from: | back 261 B. LS instability |
front 262 Lower fibers of the iliolumbar ligament integrate with which
ligament, linking SI mechanics to the lumbar spine? | back 262 B. Anterior SI ligament |
front 263 Stress on which ligament set can drive lumbosacral imbalance and
degeneration? | back 263 A. Iliolumbar, sacrotuberous, sacrospinous |
front 264 Which artery supplies the lower extremity? | back 264 B. External iliac |
front 265 Which artery primarily supplies the pelvis? | back 265 C. Internal iliac |
front 266 Which set contains only posterior trunk branches listed? | back 266 A. Iliolumbar, lateral sacral, superior gluteal |
front 267 The terminal branch noted for the anterior trunk list is the: | back 267 B. Inferior gluteal artery |
front 268 The sacral plexus is formed by ventral rami of: | back 268 B. L4–S4 |
front 269 Pelvic splanchnic nerves carry parasympathetic fibers from: | back 269 C. S2–S4 |
front 270 Sciatic nerve roots are: | back 270 A. L4–S3 |
front 271 Common fibular nerve roots are: | back 271 B. L4–S2 |
front 272 Tibial nerve roots are: | back 272 C. L4–S3 |
front 273 A nerve passes through the lesser sciatic foramen inferior to
piriformis to innervate perineal skin and muscles. Which nerve? | back 273 C. Pudendal nerve |
front 274 Pudendal nerve roots are: | back 274 B. S2–S4 |
front 275 The superior gluteal nerve innervates gluteus medius/minimus
and: | back 275 C. Tensor fascia lata |
front 276 Superior gluteal nerve roots are: | back 276 A. L4–S1 |
front 277 Inferior gluteal nerve innervates: | back 277 A. Gluteus maximus |
front 278 Inferior gluteal nerve roots are: | back 278 B. L5–S2 |
front 279 Obturator nerve roots are: | back 279 A. L2–L4 |
front 280 The perforating cutaneous nerve passes through the: | back 280 C. Sacrotuberous ligament |
front 281 The coccygeal plexus nerve roots are: | back 281 C. S4–C0 |
front 282 Which roots penetrate coccygeus, sacrospinous, and sacrotuberous
ligaments (as listed)? | back 282 B. S5 and C0 |
front 283 S5 and C0 join S4 to form anococcygeal nerves that innervate skin of
the: | back 283 B. Anal triangle |
front 284 Sympathetic roots innervating pelvic viscera via paravertebral trunk
and sacral splanchnics are: | back 284 B. T12–L2 |
front 285 The primary “muscle” region providing core pelvic support is best
described as the: | back 285 B. Pelvic diaphragm |
front 286 Which set contains only secondary pelvic muscles
with partial attachment to the true pelvis? | back 286 A. Rectus abdominis, QL, piriformis |
front 287 The intrinsic pelvic diaphragm is composed of: | back 287 A. Levator ani and coccygeus |
front 288 The levator ani consists of iliococcygeus, pubococcygeus, and: | back 288 A. Puborectalis |
front 289 The intrinsic pelvic diaphragm moves synchronously with the: | back 289 B. Abdominal diaphragm |
front 290 Support during defecation and lumbosacral pelvic support is
attributed to the _____ muscles of the perineum. | back 290 C. Primary |
front 291 The primary perineal muscles are innervated by the: | back 291 C. Pudendal nerve |
front 292 The urogenital triangle/diaphragm spans between the: | back 292 C. Ischiopubic rami |
front 293 The urogenital triangle is filled by a thick fibrous sheet called
the: | back 293 B. Perineal membrane |
front 294 Coccygeus muscles overlie which ligaments and attach to the ischial
spine? | back 294 B. Sacrospinous |
front 295 Superior innominate shear refers to: | back 295 C. Superior subluxation |
front 296 Inferior innominate shear refers to: | back 296 B. Inferior subluxation |
front 297 “Upslipped” is another term for: | back 297 B. Superior shear |
front 298 "Downslipped” is another term for: | back 298 B. Inferior shear |
front 299 Which innominate shear is rare and tends to improve with
walking? | back 299 B. Inferior shear |
front 300 A patient fell onto one ischial tuberosity and later has apparent
pelvic asymmetry. Which shear is most suggested? | back 300 B. Superior shear |
front 301 A posterior innominate rotation is defined by rotation posteriorly
around a: | back 301 C. Transverse axis |
front 302 Posterior innominate rotation may cause inguinal pain (rectus
femoris) or knee pain (sartorius). The apparent leg length is: | back 302 D. Decreased/shortened |
front 303 With posterior innominate rotation, the sacral sulcus becomes: | back 303 B. Deep |
front 304 Which set contains only posterior rotators of the
innominate (as listed)? | back 304 A. Glute max, hamstrings, iliopsoas |
front 305 Which muscle listed is a posterior rotator with only a weak
action? | back 305 A. Piriformis |
front 306 Anterior innominate rotation produces an apparent _____ leg length
and _____ sacral sulcus. | back 306 B. increased; shallow |
front 307 Which set contains only anterior rotators of the
innominate (as listed)? | back 307 A. TFL, quads, QL |
front 308 When determining innominate flare, distance is measured from the
umbilicus or the _____ to each ASIS. | back 308 B. Xiphoid |
front 309 In an innominate inflare, the ASIS is: | back 309 B. Closer to midline |
front 310 In an innominate outflare, the ASIS is: | back 310 B. Further from midline |
front 311 An innominate inflare typically makes the sacral sulcus: | back 311 A. Wide |
front 312 An innominate outflare typically makes the sacral sulcus: | back 312 C. Narrow |
front 313 During normal gait, pubic symphysis motion occurs around a _____
axis. | back 313 C. Transverse |
front 314 Pubic symphysis dysfunctions are especially common during: | back 314 B. Pregnancy and childbirth |
front 315 “Synarthrosis” here refers to: | back 315 B. Interpubic disc with hyaline cover |
front 316 Which ligament is emphasized as a palpatory surgical landmark? | back 316 B. Inguinal |
front 317 The most common pubic symphysis dysfunction during
pregnancy/childbirth is: | back 317 A. Abduction |
front 318 Which list correctly includes all 3 planes of pubic symphysis
motion? | back 318 C. Superior/inferior, anterior/posterior, rotation |
front 319 A patient with constipation, urinary symptoms, dyspareunia, and
suprapubic pain is suspected of which pelvic dysfunction? | back 319 B. Pubic shears |
front 320 Pubic shears are caused primarily by uneven tension on the: | back 320 A. Pelvic diaphragm |
front 321 Superior pubic symphysis muscles include rectus abdominis and: | back 321 B. Pyramidalis |
front 322 With each step, walking induces sacral mechanics about the: | back 322 B. Neutral oblique axis |
front 323 During gait, lumbar sidebending occurs toward the: | back 323 B. Weight-bearing leg |
front 324 During gait, the weight-bearing ilium rotates: | back 324 A. Anteriorly |
front 325 During gait, the contralateral ilium rotates: | back 325 B. Posteriorly |
front 326 Primary indications for muscle energy include SD of: | back 326 A. Myofascial and articular origin |
front 327 Before any supine landmark checks (and after treatment reassessment),
you should perform the: | back 327 B. Hip flop maneuver |
front 328 Muscular forces on each pubic ramus can cause _____ about a _____
axis at the symphysis. | back 328 A. Rotation; transverse |
front 329 The MET style used to treat the pubic symphysis in this course
is: | back 329 D. Joint mobilization using muscle force |