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Path 24a

front 1

The anterior pituitary constitutes about what fraction of the pituitary gland?
A. 20%
B. 40%
C. 80%
D. 95%

back 1

C. 80%

front 2

A lineage-tracing study finds stem cells expressing PIT-1. Which cell types are most directly derived from these PIT-1+ stem cells?
A. Somatotroph mammosomatotroph lactotroph
B. Corticotroph thyrotroph gonadotroph
C. Melanotroph pituicyte folliculostellate
D. Gonadotroph lactotroph corticotroph

back 2

A. Somatotroph mammosomatotroph lactotroph

front 3

During dehydration with hypovolemia, the most important physiologic function of ADH is to:
A. Increase aldosterone secretion
B. Increase cortisol secretion
C. Promote natriuresis
D. Restrict diuresis, conserve water

back 3

D. Restrict diuresis, conserve water

front 4

A 45-year-old has biochemical evidence of excess pituitary hormone output (“hyperpituitarism”). The most common underlying cause is:
A. Hypothalamic infarct
B. Anterior lobe adenoma
C. Pituitary stalk transection
D. Empty sella syndrome

back 4

B. Anterior lobe adenoma

front 5

The most common pituitary adenomas most often secrete both:
A. Growth hormone and prolactin
B. ACTH and TSH
C. LH and FSH
D. TSH and prolactin

back 5

A. Growth hormone and prolactin

front 6

A pituitary lesion measures 8 cm in greatest dimension. By size designation, this is a:
A. Carcinoma
B. Hyperplasia
C. Microadenoma
D. Macroadenoma

back 6

D. Macroadenoma

front 7

A pituitary lesion measures 0.6 cm in greatest dimension. By size designation, this is a:
A. Microadenoma
B. Macroadenoma
C. Craniopharyngioma
D. Rathke cleft cyst

back 7

A. Microadenoma

front 8

Molecular profiling of pituitary adenomas most commonly identifies alterations involving:
A. DNA mismatch repair
B. WNT signaling activation
C. G-protein pathway mutations
D. ALK gene fusions

back 8

C. G-protein pathway mutations

front 9

The α-subunit of Gs (Gsα) is encoded by:
A. MEN1 at 11q13
B. AIP at 11q13
C. PRKAR1A at 17q24
D. GNAS at 20q13

back 9

D. GNAS at 20q13

front 10

A somatotroph adenoma carries a GNAS mutation that abrogates GTPase activity of Gsα. The key downstream consequence is:
A. Reduced cAMP signaling
B. Constitutive Giα activation
C. Suppressed adenylate cyclase
D. Constitutive Gsα, excess cAMP

back 10

D. Constitutive Gsα, excess cAMP

front 11

Pituitary adenomas are usually sporadic; about what percentage arise from inherited defects (e.g., MEN1, CDKN1B, PRKAR1A, AIP)?
A. 1%
B. 10%
C. 5%
D. 25%

back 11

C. 5%

front 12

Activating mutations of which oncogene are observed in rare pituitary carcinomas?
A. HRAS
B. KRAS
C. NRAS
D. BRAF

back 12

A. HRAS

front 13

A resected pituitary tumor is composed of uniform cells arranged in sheets and cords. The typical cell shape described for pituitary adenomas is:
A. Spindle-shaped
B. Stellate
C. Columnar
D. Polygonal

back 13

D. Polygonal

front 14

A reticulin stain is used to help distinguish a pituitary adenoma from nonneoplastic anterior pituitary. A pituitary adenoma is most suggested by:
A. Dense reticulin framework
B. Absent reticulin network
C. Expanded sinusoidal network
D. Perivascular reticulin rings

back 14

B. Absent reticulin network

front 15

A subset of pituitary adenomas shows elevated mitotic activity with nuclear p53 expression. This finding most strongly correlates with mutations in:
A. TP53
B. GNAS
C. MEN1
D. AIP

back 15

A. TP53

front 16

A patient with a known pituitary adenoma develops sudden severe headache and acute worsening symptoms. This presentation is most consistent with:
A. Lactotroph hyperplasia
B. Dystrophic calcification
C. Pituitary apoplexy
D. Nelson syndrome

back 16

C. Pituitary apoplexy

front 17

A 28-year-old has amenorrhea and galactorrhea with elevated serum prolactin. The most frequent hyperfunctioning pituitary adenoma type is:
A. Somatotroph adenoma
B. Corticotroph adenoma
C. Thyrotroph adenoma
D. Lactotroph adenoma

back 17

D. Lactotroph adenoma

front 18

Histology shows chromophobic cells with juxtanuclear PIT-1 localization in a prolactin-secreting tumor. This most strongly indicates:
A. Densely granulated lactotroph adenoma
B. Sparsely granulated lactotroph adenoma
C. Silent corticotroph adenoma
D. Gonadotroph adenoma

back 18

B. Sparsely granulated lactotroph adenoma

front 19

A prolactin-secreting tumor is acidophilic and shows diffuse cytoplasmic PIT-1 localization. This best fits:
A. Densely granulated lactotroph adenoma
B. Sparsely granulated lactotroph adenoma
C. Null-cell adenoma
D. Mixed corticotroph adenoma

back 19

A. Densely granulated lactotroph adenoma

front 20

A prolactinoma contains extensive calcification with numerous psammoma bodies, forming a “pituitary stone.” This process is best termed:
A. Metastatic calcification
B. Caseous necrosis
C. Dystrophic calcification
D. Amyloid deposition

back 20

C. Dystrophic calcification

front 21

Elevated serum prolactin most classically causes which symptom pair?
A. Hypertension and hypokalemia
B. Amenorrhea and galactorrhea
C. Weight loss and tremor
D. Polyuria and polydipsia

back 21

B. Amenorrhea and galactorrhea

front 22

The diagnosis of a prolactin-secreting adenoma is made more readily in women, especially ages 20–40, most likely because:
A. Men have higher baseline prolactin
B. Women have larger pituitaries
C. Men develop symptoms earlier
D. Menses are prolactin-sensitive

back 22

D. Menses are prolactin-sensitive

front 23

Pathologic hyperprolactinemia can occur without an adenoma when loss of dopamine-mediated inhibition causes:
A. Lactotroph hyperplasia
B. Corticotroph hyperplasia
C. Somatotroph metaplasia
D. Gonadotroph atrophy

back 23

A. Lactotroph hyperplasia

front 24

A child develops excessive linear growth; an adult develops enlarged hands and jaw from the same tumor type. This is most consistent with:
A. Lactotroph adenoma
B. Thyrotroph adenoma
C. Somatotroph adenoma
D. Gonadotroph adenoma

back 24

C. Somatotroph adenoma

front 25

Hypercortisolism due to excessive ACTH production by the pituitary is specifically designated:
A. Ectopic ACTH syndrome
B. Primary adrenal Cushing
C. Pseudo-Cushing state
D. Cushing disease

back 25

D. Cushing disease

front 26

A corticotroph adenoma shows PAS positivity. This is most directly explained by carbohydrate within:
A. Prolactin
B. POMC
C. GH
D. TSH

back 26

B. POMC

front 27

After bilateral adrenalectomy performed for Cushing syndrome, a patient develops an enlarging destructive pituitary tumor. This condition is:
A. Nelson syndrome
B. Sheehan syndrome
C. Pituitary apoplexy
D. Craniopharyngioma

back 27

A. Nelson syndrome

front 28

A pituitary tumor produces no clinically apparent hormone excess. It most commonly presents due to:
A. Hyperpigmentation
B. Episodic flushing
C. Mass effects
D. Carcinoid-like diarrhea

back 28

C. Mass effects

front 29

A pituitary tumor causing ACTH-dependent hypercortisolism is evaluated at diagnosis. The most typical description is:
A. Microadenoma; basophilic, dense granules
B. Macroadenoma; acidophilic, dense granules
C. Microadenoma; chromophobic, sparse granules
D. Macroadenoma; reticulin-rich parenchyma

back 29

A. Microadenoma; basophilic, dense granules

front 30

The post-adrenalectomy pituitary tumor enlargement in Nelson syndrome most often results from:
A. New HRAS mutation
B. Loss steroid feedback on adenoma
C. Dopamine excess at lactotrophs
D. Reticulin network restoration

back 30

B. Loss steroid feedback on adenoma

front 31

A pituitary tumor is classified as carcinoma only when it shows:
A. Cavernous sinus invasion
B. Marked nuclear pleomorphism
C. Craniospinal or systemic metastases
D. Diameter greater than 1 cm

back 31

C. Craniospinal or systemic metastases

front 32

Most pituitary carcinomas are:
A. Cystic and nonsecretory
B. Inflammatory and fibrotic
C. Congenital and developmental
D. Functional and hormone-secreting

back 32

D. Functional and hormone-secreting

front 33

The most common secreted products in pituitary carcinoma are:
A. GH and TSH
B. Prolactin and ACTH
C. LH and FSH
D. ADH and oxytocin

back 33

B. Prolactin and ACTH

front 34

Postpartum necrosis of the anterior pituitary is called:
A. Nelson syndrome
B. Sheehan syndrome
C. Cushing disease
D. Empty sella syndrome

back 34

B. Sheehan syndrome

front 35

In pregnancy, anterior pituitary enlargement is vulnerable because it leads to relative:
A. Hyperperfusion
B. Venous thrombosis
C. Hypoxia
D. Cerebral edema

back 35

C. Hypoxia

front 36

Pituitary destruction by surgery or radiation can lead to:
A. Empty sella syndrome
B. Cushing disease
C. Nelson syndrome
D. Pituitary hyperplasia

back 36

A. Empty sella syndrome

front 37

Primary empty sella is most directly caused by:
A. Diaphragma sella defect
B. Pituitary stalk transection
C. Suprasellar tumor hemorrhage
D. Autoimmune hypophysitis

back 37

A. Diaphragma sella defect

front 38

Secondary empty sella most classically follows:
A. Congenital sellar defect
B. CSF overproduction
C. Mass removal or infarction
D. Dopamine agonist therapy

back 38

C. Mass removal or infarction

front 39

The most commonly implicated suprasellar tumors are:
A. Gliomas and craniopharyngiomas
B. Meningiomas and schwannomas
C. Metastases and lymphomas
D. Ependymomas and medulloblastomas

back 39

A. Gliomas and craniopharyngiomas

front 40

Craniopharyngiomas have reported abnormalities in:
A. JAK-STAT signaling
B. Hedgehog signaling
C. WNT signaling pathway
D. TGF-beta signaling

back 40

C. WNT signaling pathway

front 41

Which pairing correctly matches craniopharyngioma variant to typical age?
A. Papillary child, adamantinomatous adult
B. Adamantinomatous child, papillary adult
C. Both variants mainly neonatal
D. Both variants mainly geriatric

back 41

B. Adamantinomatous child, papillary adult

front 42

Radiologically visible calcifications are most typical of:
A. Adamantinomatous variant
B. Papillary variant
C. Both variants equally
D. Neither variant

back 42

A. Adamantinomatous variant

front 43

Calcification is only rarely seen in:
A. Adamantinomatous childhood tumors
B. Pituitary adenomas
C. Suprasellar gliomas
D. Papillary craniopharyngioma

back 43

D. Papillary craniopharyngioma

front 44

Adamantinomatous craniopharyngioma most often shows:
A. Glands with mucin pools
B. Small blue cells sheets
C. Nests cords squamous reticulum
D. Spindle cells fascicles

back 44

C. Nests cords squamous reticulum

front 45

Papillary craniopharyngioma most often shows:
A. Wet keratin nodules
B. Solid sheets and papillae
C. Rosettes with neuropil
D. Glandular acini formation

back 45

B. Solid sheets and papillae

front 46

Malignant transformation of craniopharyngioma is exceptionally rare and usually after:
A. Dopamine agonists
B. Adrenalectomy
C. Thyroid ablation
D. Irradiation

back 46

D. Irradiation

front 47

The hormone that stimulates Graafian follicles is:
A. FSH
B. LH
C. ACTH
D. TSH

back 47

A. FSH

front 48

The hormone that induces ovulation and corpus luteum formation is:
A. Prolactin
B. FSH
C. LH
D. GH

back 48

C. LH

front 49

The two hormones regulating spermatogenesis and testosterone production are:
A. ACTH and cortisol
B. FSH and LH
C. TSH and T3
D. Prolactin and oxytocin

back 49

B. FSH and LH

front 50

Transcription factors required for gonadotroph differentiation include:
A. PIT-1 and TBX19
B. PROP1 and PAX8
C. SOX2 and NKX2-1
D. SF-1 and GATA-2

back 50

D. SF-1 and GATA-2

front 51

“Mass effect” from a pituitary tumor refers to:
A. Hormone overproduction symptoms
B. Autoimmune gland destruction
C. Compression of nearby structures
D. Metastatic spread to spine

back 51

C. Compression of nearby structures

front 52

Sudden hemorrhage into a pituitary adenoma causing rapid enlargement is:
A. Sheehan syndrome
B. Pituitary apoplexy
C. Nelson syndrome
D. Empty sella syndrome

back 52

B. Pituitary apoplexy

front 53

A pituitary macroadenoma raises intracranial pressure. Typical symptoms include:
A. Fever and rash
B. Polyuria and thirst
C. Flank pain hematuria
D. Headache nausea vomiting

back 53

D. Headache nausea vomiting

front 54

A “pituitary incidentaloma” is most often a:
A. Functional macroadenoma
B. Metastatic sellar lesion
C. Silent microadenoma
D. Posterior pituitary cyst

back 54

C. Silent microadenoma

front 55

GNAS mutations have been reported to occur in:
A. Gonadotroph adenomas
B. Corticotroph adenomas
C. Lactotroph adenomas
D. Thyrotroph adenomas

back 55

B. Corticotroph adenomas

front 56

GNAS mutations are absent in thyrotroph, lactotroph, and gonadotroph adenomas because their hypothalamic hormones are not:
A. Steroid-receptor mediated
B. Tyrosine-kinase mediated
C. IP3-DAG mediated
D. cAMP-pathway mediated

back 56

D. cAMP-pathway mediated

front 57

An aggressive pituitary adenoma may show:
A. Cyclin D1 overexpression
B. APC truncation
C. BRCA2 loss
D. VHL activation

back 57

A. Cyclin D1 overexpression

front 58

Another aggressive-behavior molecular abnormality is:
A. PTEN duplication
B. Epigenetic RB silencing
C. CFTR mutation
D. ALK fusion

back 58

B. Epigenetic RB silencing

front 59

Another aggressive-behavior molecular abnormality is:
A. PAX6 loss
B. SMAD4 gain
C. KRAS deletion
D. HRAS activation

back 59

D. HRAS activation

front 60

Pituitary adenomas most commonly involve alterations in:
A. Notch signaling
B. JAK-STAT signaling
C. G-protein signaling
D. Hedgehog signaling

back 60

C. G-protein signaling

front 61

In primary empty sella, CSF herniation typically leads to:
A. Pituitary compression
B. Pituitary infarction
C. Pituitary carcinoma
D. Pituitary hyperplasia

back 61

A. Pituitary compression

front 62

Sheehan syndrome is the most common clinically significant form of:
A. Pituitary hyperplasia
B. Pituitary carcinoma
C. Posterior pituitary necrosis
D. Anterior pituitary ischemic necrosis

back 62

D. Anterior pituitary ischemic necrosis

front 63

A sellar tumor invades bone locally but has no metastases. This is not carcinoma because carcinoma requires:
A. Metastases beyond the sella
B. Tumor size over 1 cm
C. Diffuse calcification
D. High prolactin secretion

back 63

A. Metastases beyond the sella

front 64

A craniopharyngioma composed of well-differentiated squamous epithelium that usually lacks keratin, calcification, and cysts is:

A. Adamantinomatous variant
B. Suprasellar glioma
C. Papillary variant
D. Pituitary adenoma

back 64

C. Papillary variant

front 65

Which is NOT a common SIADH cause category?
A. Ectopic ADH by tumors
B. Drugs increasing ADH
C. CNS disorders
D. Pregnancy pituitary enlargement

back 65

D. Pregnancy pituitary enlargement

front 66

Which pituitary adenoma has higher risk of invasion and recurrence?
A. Atypical adenoma
B. Nonfunctioning adenoma
C. Thyrotroph adenoma
D. Microadenoma

back 66

A. Atypical adenoma

front 67

A prolactinoma is chromophobic with juxtanuclear PIT-1. Which subtype fits best?
A. Corticotroph adenoma
B. Gonadotroph adenoma
C. Thyrotroph adenoma
D. Sparsely granulated lactotroph

back 67

D. Sparsely granulated lactotroph

front 68

A prolactinoma is acidophilic with diffuse cytoplasmic PIT-1. Which subtype fits best?
A. Silent corticotroph adenoma
B. Densely granulated lactotroph
C. Null-cell adenoma
D. Gonadotroph adenoma

back 68

B. Densely granulated lactotroph

front 69

A 26-year-old has amenorrhea and high prolactin. The mechanism of amenorrhea is:
A. Direct ovarian theca toxicity
B. Prolactin suppresses GnRH release
C. Prolactin increases FSH secretion
D. LH surge becomes exaggerated

back 69

B. Prolactin suppresses GnRH release

front 70

A man with prolactinoma has no galactorrhea. Best explanation:
A. Prolactin cannot rise in men
B. Testosterone blocks prolactin receptors
C. Milk ejection requires oxytocin
D. No mammary lobules for milk

back 70

D. No mammary lobules for milk

front 71

A man with prolactinoma reports low libido. Most direct endocrine basis:
A. Low LH/FSH, low testosterone
B. High TSH, low T4
C. High ACTH, high cortisol
D. High GH, low IGF-1

back 71

A. Low LH/FSH, low testosterone

front 72

A man with a large prolactinoma has headaches. Best explanation:
A. Prostaglandin-mediated pain
B. Meningeal infection
C. Mass effect compression
D. Autoimmune vasculitis

back 72

C. Mass effect compression

front 73

Which finding is a common clinical course of lactotroph adenomas?
A. Increased serum prolactin
B. Hypercalcemia episodes
C. Severe hypoglycemia spells
D. Hyperpigmentation of skin

back 73

A. Increased serum prolactin

front 74

First-line medical therapy for lactotroph adenoma most commonly is:
A. Ketoconazole
B. Desmopressin
C. Bromocriptine dopamine agonist
D. Levothyroxine

back 74

C. Bromocriptine dopamine agonist

front 75

Lactotroph hyperplasia most directly results from loss of:
A. TRH stimulation
B. Estrogen receptor signaling
C. Cortisol feedback inhibition
D. Dopamine inhibition of prolactin

back 75

D. Dopamine inhibition of prolactin

front 76

After head trauma, a patient develops hyperprolactinemia. The best mechanism is:
A. GH receptor upregulation
B. Pituitary stalk damage
C. Ovarian estrogen excess
D. Increased renal prolactin clearance

back 76

B. Pituitary stalk damage

front 77

Which exposure can cause lactotroph hyperplasia via prolactin disinhibition?
A. Beta agonists
B. ACE inhibitors
C. Dopamine receptor blockers
D. Loop diuretics

back 77

C. Dopamine receptor blockers

front 78

A pituitary tumor secretes ACTH. What adrenal change results?
A. Cortisol hypersecretion
B. Aldosterone hypersecretion
C. DHEA suppression
D. Epinephrine depletion

back 78

A. Cortisol hypersecretion

front 79

Hypercortisolism caused by pituitary ACTH excess is called:
A. Ectopic ACTH syndrome
B. Cushing disease
C. Primary adrenal Cushing
D. Pseudo-Cushing state

back 79

B. Cushing disease

front 80

A pituitary tumor shows impaired LH with predominant FSH secretion. Most likely type:
A. Lactotroph adenoma
B. Corticotroph adenoma
C. Gonadotroph adenoma
D. Thyrotroph adenoma

back 80

C. Gonadotroph adenoma

front 81

A man has low libido and a pituitary FSH-predominant tumor. The symptom is most related to:
A. Increased prolactin clearance
B. Reduced estradiol production
C. Increased cortisol production
D. Decreased testosterone levels

back 81

D. Decreased testosterone levels

front 82

A premenopausal woman has amenorrhea and a pituitary tumor secreting mostly FSH. Best diagnosis:
A. Lactotroph adenoma
B. Gonadotroph adenoma
C. Thyrotroph adenoma
D. Somatotroph adenoma

back 82

B. Gonadotroph adenoma

front 83

A pituitary adenoma secreting TSH is best termed:
A. Corticotroph adenoma
B. Gonadotroph adenoma
C. Thyrotroph adenoma
D. Lactotroph adenoma

back 83

C. Thyrotroph adenoma

front 84

A “silent” anterior pituitary tumor most often presents with:
A. Mass effect symptoms
B. Episodic flushing
C. Refractory hypoglycemia
D. Carcinoid-like diarrhea

back 84

A. Mass effect symptoms

front 85

The posterior pituitary is usually spared in Sheehan syndrome because it has:
A. Lymphatic drainage dominance
B. Portal venous-only supply
C. Direct arterial blood supply
D. Exclusive CSF diffusion supply

back 85

C. Direct arterial blood supply

front 86

A sellar cyst is lined by ciliated cuboidal epithelium with goblet cells. Diagnosis:
A. Rathke cleft cyst
B. Craniopharyngioma
C. Pituitary adenoma
D. Arachnoid cyst

back 86

A. Rathke cleft cyst

front 87

Rathke cleft cysts can cause hypopituitarism mainly by:
A. ACTH hypersecretion
B. Dopamine hypersecretion
C. TSH hypersecretion
D. Compressing gland after expansion

back 87

D. Compressing gland after expansion

front 88

Hypothalamic lesions can cause diabetes insipidus by:
A. Diminishing ADH secretion
B. Increasing aldosterone secretion
C. Increasing cortisol secretion
D. Enhancing ANP release

back 88

A. Diminishing ADH secretion

front 89

Which benign tumor is a classic hypothalamic/suprasellar cause of hypopituitarism?
A. Hemangioblastoma
B. Schwannoma
C. Craniopharyngioma
D. Medulloblastoma

back 89

C. Craniopharyngioma

front 90

Hypothalamic metastases most commonly originate from:
A. Colon and pancreas
B. Breast and lung
C. Prostate and bladder
D. Ovary and cervix

back 90

B. Breast and lung

front 91

Hypothalamic insufficiency can follow irradiation of:
A. Thyroid tumors only
B. Pituitary microadenomas only
C. Adrenal tumors only
D. Brain or nasopharyngeal tumors

back 91

D. Brain or nasopharyngeal tumors

front 92

Which two diseases can involve hypothalamus causing AP deficits plus diabetes insipidus?
A. Graves and Hashimoto
B. Crohn and ulcerative colitis
C. Sarcoidosis and TB meningitis
D. Hepatitis and cirrhosis

back 92

C. Sarcoidosis and TB meningitis

front 93

Congenital deficiency of PIT-1 most classically causes deficiency of:
A. GH prolactin TSH
B. ACTH ADH oxytocin
C. LH FSH TSH
D. GH ACTH LH

back 93

A. GH prolactin TSH

front 94

SIADH causes hyponatremia primarily because ADH:
A. Wastes sodium in urine
B. Increases free water reabsorption
C. Decreases proximal bicarbonate
D. Increases plasma oncotic pressure

back 94

B. Increases free water reabsorption

front 95

The malignant neoplasm most classically causing ectopic ADH is:
A. Renal cell carcinoma
B. Hepatocellular carcinoma
C. Colon adenocarcinoma
D. Small-cell lung carcinoma

back 95

D. Small-cell lung carcinoma

front 96

Which is a common cause category of SIADH?
A. Drugs increasing ADH secretion
B. Hyperaldosteronism
C. V2 receptor loss-of-function
D. Low dietary sodium

back 96

A. Drugs increasing ADH secretion

front 97

Another common SIADH cause category is:
A. Skin blistering disorders
B. CNS disorders infection trauma
C. Bone marrow aplasia
D. GI malabsorption syndromes

back 97

B. CNS disorders infection trauma

front 98

Which finding best fits SIADH volume status?
A. Peripheral edema common
B. Hypovolemia with tachycardia
C. Hemoconcentration with high Hct
D. No peripheral edema

back 98

D. No peripheral edema

front 99

Neurologic dysfunction in SIADH is most directly driven by:
A. Renal papillary necrosis
B. Hepatic encephalopathy
C. Hyperkalemic paralysis
D. Cerebral edema

back 99

C. Hyperkalemic paralysis

front 100

A suprasellar tumor arising in the optic chiasm is most often a:
A. Glioma
B. Craniopharyngioma
C. Pituitary adenoma
D. Rathke cleft cyst

back 100

A. Glioma

front 101

A suprasellar tumor from vestigial Rathke pouch remnants is most often a:
A. Glioma
B. Meningioma
C. Craniopharyngioma
D. Schwannoma

back 101

C. Craniopharyngioma

front 102

A pituitary adenoma typically shows which cytologic pattern versus nonneoplastic parenchyma?
A. Marked pleomorphism
B. Cellular monomorphism
C. Granulomatous inflammation
D. Prominent glandular acini

back 102

B. Cellular monomorphism

front 103

Sudden hemorrhage into a pituitary adenoma causing rapid enlargement is:
A. Sheehan syndrome
B. Empty sella syndrome
C. Nelson syndrome
D. Pituitary apoplexy

back 103

D. Pituitary apoplexy