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Biochem 19

front 1

Two hormones primarily keep blood glucose near 80–100 mg/dL and coordinate fuel storage/mobilization:
A. Insulin and cortisol
B. Insulin and glucagon
C. Glucagon and epinephrine
D. Insulin and growth hormone

back 1

B. Insulin and glucagon

front 2

After a high-carbohydrate meal, plasma insulin is typically highest at:
A. 5–10 minutes
B. 15–20 minutes
C. 60–90 minutes
D. 30–45 minutes

back 2

D. 30–45 minutes

front 3

Intertissue metabolic homeostasis is achieved in three principal ways; which is NOT one of them?
A. Lymphatic metabolite signaling
B. Blood nutrient concentration
C. Hormonal messaging
D. CNS neural control

back 3

A. Lymphatic metabolite signaling

front 4

Major determinant of whether skeletal muscle oxidizes fatty acids vs glucose:
A. Plasma lactate level
B. Hepatic glycogen content
C. Plasma fatty acid level
D. Portal glucagon level

back 4

C. Plasma fatty acid level

front 5

Adult minimum daily glucose requirement is best matched by:
A. 190 total, 150 brain, 40 others
B. 150 total, 80 brain, 70 others
C. 100 total, 40 brain, 60 others
D. 190 total, 100 brain, 90 others

back 5

A. 190 total, 150 brain, 40 others

front 6

Injected glucagon increases hepatic output but not skeletal muscle metabolism because muscle:
A. Uses only ketones
B. Degrades cAMP rapidly
C. Lacks glucagon receptors
D. Lacks pancreatic blood flow

back 6

C. Lacks glucagon receptors

front 7

Physiologic targets of glucagon include:
A. Brain and muscle
B. Liver and adipose
C. Kidney and bone
D. Muscle and heart

back 7

B. Liver and adipose

front 8

Poorly controlled diabetes causes weight loss despite appetite because:
A. Increased glycogen storage
B. Reduced FA oxidation
C. Increased glucose entry
D. Lipids become main fuel

back 8

D. Lipids become main fuel

front 9

Marked hyperglycemia causes polyuria → dehydration → higher glucose; the initial urine increase is from:
A. Osmotic diuresis
B. Water diuresis
C. Pressure natriuresis
D. Tubular necrosis

back 9

A. Osmotic diuresis

front 10

Confusion and seizures during severe hypoglycemia are:
A. Cholinergic manifestations
B. Neuroglycopenic manifestations
C. Osmotic manifestations
D. Myopathic manifestations

back 10

B. Neuroglycopenic manifestations

front 11

Tremor, palpitations, and sweating during hypoglycemia are driven mostly by:
A. Cortisol
B. Glucagon
C. Epinephrine
D. Insulin

back 11

C. Epinephrine

front 12

Correct islet hormone pairing:
A. α:glucagon β:insulin
B. α:insulin β:glucagon
C. α:amylin β:glucagon
D. α:insulin β:somatostatin

back 12

A. α:glucagon β:insulin

front 13

Islet hormones enter the liver first via:
A. Splenic vein
B. Inferior vena cava
C. Thoracic duct
D. Hepatic portal vein

back 13

D. Hepatic portal vein

front 14

Insulin is considered anabolic because after carbohydrate ingestion it promotes:
A. Lipolysis and ketogenesis
B. Glycogenolysis plus gluconeogenesis
C. Fuel use; fat and glycogen storage
D. Proteolysis and ketone use

back 14

C. Fuel use; fat and glycogen storage

front 15

Insulin and glucagon are synthesized in islet cells as:
A. Steroids
B. Prohormones
C. Amines
D. Eicosanoids

back 15

B. Prohormones

front 16

Preproinsulin is converted to proinsulin in the:
A. Rough ER
B. Golgi
C. Cytosol
D. Secretory granules

back 16

A. Rough ER

front 17

During proinsulin folding, disulfide bonds form between:
A. Lysine residues
B. Serine residues
C. Histidine residues
D. Cysteine residues

back 17

D. Cysteine residues

front 18

After folding and disulfide formation, proinsulin is transported to the:
A. Nucleus
B. Mitochondria
C. Golgi complex
D. Peroxisome

back 18

C. Golgi complex

front 19

Proteolysis in storage vesicles produces insulin plus:
A. C-peptide
B. Signal peptide
C. Protein kinase A
D. cAMP

back 19

A. C-peptide

front 20

Within storage vesicles, insulin is precipitated with:
A. Ca2+
B. Zn2+
C. Fe3+
D. Mg2+

back 20

B. Zn2+

front 21

Biologically active insulin consists of:
A. Single chain, no bonds
B. Three chains, peptide links
C. Two chains, peptide bond
D. Two chains, disulfide links

back 21

D. Two chains, disulfide links

front 22

Insulin binding triggers receptor autophosphorylation and downstream protein phosphorylation through the receptor’s:
A. Serine kinase domain
B. GPCR domain
C. Tyrosine kinase domain
D. Guanylyl cyclase domain

back 22

C. Tyrosine kinase domain

front 23

Glucagon raises cAMP, which activates PKA to:
A. Phosphorylate regulatory enzymes
B. Dephosphorylate regulatory enzymes
C. Cleave C-peptide
D. Insert GLUT4 channels

back 23

A. Phosphorylate regulatory enzymes

front 24

Compared with glucagon, insulin generally shifts key enzymes toward:
A. Increased phosphorylation
B. Increased cAMP
C. Increased PKA activity
D. Increased dephosphorylation

back 24

D. Increased dephosphorylation

front 25

Recurrent fasting hypoglycemia with inappropriately high insulin suggests a tumor producing excess insulin called:
A. Glucagonoma
B. Insulinoma
C. Somatostatinoma
D. VIPoma

back 25

B. Insulinoma

front 26

During IV glucose, β-cell uptake primarily uses:
A. GLUT1
B. GLUT2
C. GLUT4
D. SGLT2

back 26

B. GLUT2

front 27

In β-cells, glucose → glucose-6-phosphate via:
A. Hexokinase I
B. PFK-1
C. Glucose-6-phosphatase
D. Glucokinase

back 27

D. Glucokinase

front 28

β-cell glycolysis→TCA→OXPHOS most directly increases:
A. ATP levels
B. IP3 levels
C. NADPH levels
D. cAMP levels

back 28

A. ATP levels

front 29

Teen with new DKA has near-zero insulin. Best mechanism?
A. Increased hepatic insulin clearance
B. Peripheral insulin resistance
C. Autoimmune β-cell destruction
D. Excess autonomic vagal tone

back 29

C. Autoimmune β-cell destruction

front 30

Type 1 DM susceptibility is linked to HLA coding:
A. MHC II
B. MHC I
C. CD8 co-receptor
D. TCR beta chain

back 30

A. MHC II

front 31

Fasting hypoglycemia suggests insulinoma. As glucose falls:
A. Insulin falls appropriately
B. Insulin rises despite low glucose
C. Insulin becomes undetectable
D. Glucagon falls despite stress

back 31

B. Insulin rises despite low glucose

front 32

Approximate glucose threshold for insulin release:
A. 50 mg/dL
B. 60 mg/dL
C. 70 mg/dL
D. 80 mg/dL

back 32

D. 80 mg/dL

front 33

Insulin is rapidly removed primarily by:
A. Skeletal muscle
B. Liver
C. Brain
D. Pancreas

back 33

B. Liver

front 34

Cephalic-phase insulin release is enhanced by:
A. Somatic motor efferents
B. Dorsal root afferents
C. Vagus parasympathetic signals
D. Corticospinal tract firing

back 34

C. Vagus parasympathetic signals

front 35

Post-meal hormones that augment early insulin release:
A. GIP and GLP-1
B. Secretin and motilin
C. CCK and gastrin
D. Ghrelin and leptin

back 35

A. GIP and GLP-1

front 36

MODY can result from mutations in:
A. GLUT4 translocation proteins
B. Glucagon receptor subunits
C. Glucokinase or transcription factors
D. Insulin degradation enzymes

back 36

C. Glucokinase or transcription factors

front 37

MODY2 glucokinase mutation reduces activity via:
A. Lower Km and higher Vmax
B. Higher Km and higher Vmax
C. Lower Km and lower Vmax
D. Higher Km or lower Vmax

back 37

D. Higher Km or lower Vmax

front 38

Neonatal diabetes presents within the first:
A. Two weeks
B. First three months
C. First twelve months
D. First two years

back 38

B. First three months

front 39

Most common mutation in permanent neonatal diabetes:
A. KCNJ11
B. HLA-DQ
C. PFKM
D. GLUT4

back 39

A. KCNJ11

front 40

A KATP channel stuck open impairs insulin because:
A. ATP cannot be generated
B. GLUT2 cannot transport glucose
C. Proinsulin cannot fold
D. Ca2+ influx stays low

back 40

D. Ca2+ influx stays low

front 41

Glucagon is cleared by liver/kidney; half-life is:
A. 30–60 minutes
B. 10–20 minutes
C. 3–5 minutes
D. 1–2 hours

back 41

C. 3–5 minutes

front 42

Islet blood flow carries insulin:
A. δ→β across islet
B. β→α across islet
C. α→β across islet
D. Uniform bidirectional mixing

back 42

B. β→α across islet

front 43

Glipizide increases insulin secretion by:
A. Opening KATP channels
B. Blocking Ca2+ channels
C. Closing KATP channels
D. Inhibiting hepatic insulinase

back 43

C. Closing KATP channels

front 44

High insulin with absent C-peptide suggests:
A. Exogenous insulin use
B. Insulinoma secretion
C. MODY2 glucokinase defect
D. Type 2 insulin resistance

back 44

A. Exogenous insulin use

front 45

Primary defect in type 2 diabetes mellitus:
A. Autoimmune β-cell destruction
B. Absent insulin receptor synthesis
C. Defective portal vein delivery
D. Insulin resistance in tissues

back 45

D. Insulin resistance in tissues

front 46

In diabetes, glucagon may remain elevated due to:
A. Excess insulin feedback
B. Alpha-cell insulin resistance
C. Complete liver failure
D. Increased β-cell blood flow

back 46

B. Alpha-cell insulin resistance

front 47

NOT a plasma-membrane signaling mechanism:
A. Nuclear receptor transcription
B. Adenylate cyclase → cAMP
C. Receptor kinase activity
D. PIP2 hydrolysis coupling

back 47

A. Nuclear receptor transcription

front 48

Insulin receptor component spanning into cytosol:
A. Alpha subunit
B. C-peptide chain
C. Beta subunit
D. HLA subunit

back 48

C. Beta subunit

front 49

After insulin binding, phosphorylated IRS-1 recruits via:
A. PDZ domains
B. SH3 domains
C. WD repeats
D. SH2 domains

back 49

D. SH2 domains

front 50

Increased amino acid uptake into skeletal muscle primarily reflects which insulin action?
A. Growth factor–mediated protein synthesis
B. Stimulation of glucose and amino acid transport
C. Reverses glucagon phosphorylation
D. Alters enzyme gene expression

back 50

B. Stimulation of glucose and amino acid transport

front 51

A patient takes a methylxanthine PDE inhibitor. Which metabolic pattern is most expected?
A. Fed-state fuel storage
B. Fasted-state fuel mobilization
C. Ketone suppression
D. Glycolysis inhibition

back 51

B. Fasted-state fuel mobilization

front 52

A patient develops tachycardia after sympathetic surge. The dominant cardiac adrenergic receptor is:
A. β1 receptor
B. β3 receptor
C. α1 receptor
D. β2 receptor

back 52

A. β1 receptor

front 53

The major agonist stimulating the heart’s dominant β-receptor is:
A. Dopamine
B. Epinephrine
C. Norepinephrine
D. Acetylcholine

back 53

C. Norepinephrine

front 54

A hepatic cell increases glycogenolysis via an adrenergic receptor class most associated with fuel mobilization. Which receptor?
A. β3 receptor
B. β2 receptor
C. α1 receptor
D. β1 receptor

back 54

B. β2 receptor

front 55

Which catecholamine is a much more potent β2 agonist?
A. Epinephrine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Dopamine
D. Acetylcholine

back 55

A. Epinephrine

front 56

Activation of β2 receptors also mediates vascular, bronchial, and uterine smooth muscle ______.
A. Contraction
B. Necrosis
C. Calcification
D. Fibrosis

back 56

A. Contraction

front 57

A drug aimed at increasing thermogenesis in adipose tissue would target:
A. α1 receptor
B. β2 receptor
C. β1 receptor
D. β3 receptor

back 57

D. β3 receptor

front 58

β3 receptor activation most directly increases:
A. Fatty acid oxidation
B. Glycolysis rate
C. Glycogen synthesis
D. Protein catabolism

back 58

A. Fatty acid oxidation

front 59

Postsynaptic receptors mediating vascular contraction via Gq/PLCβ use:
A. cAMP cascade
B. PIP2 pathway
C. JAK-STAT signaling
D. Guanylyl cyclase

back 59

B. PIP2 pathway

front 60

In a healthy person after a high-carb meal, insulin peaks at 30–45 minutes and returns to basal by:
A. 30 minutes
B. 6 hours
C. 2 hours
D. 24 hours

back 60

C. 2 hours

front 61

Two insulin polypeptide chains are linked by:
A. Glycosidic bonds
B. Phosphodiester bonds
C. Peptide bonds
D. Disulfide bonds

back 61

D. Disulfide bonds

front 62

The insulin chain containing an additional intrachain disulfide bond is the:
A. β chain
B. A (α) chain
C. B (β) chain
D. Connecting peptide

back 62

B. A (α) chain

front 63

Increased β-cell glucose metabolism raises ATP:ADP, which first leads to:
A. Opening KATP channels
B. Closing KATP channels
C. Closing Ca2+ channels
D. Opening Cl− channels

back 63

B. Closing KATP channels

front 64

Closure of β-cell KATP channels most directly causes:
A. Membrane hyperpolarization
B. Membrane depolarization
C. Ribosomal translocation
D. MHC II expression

back 64

B. Membrane depolarization

front 65

Insulin is rapidly cleared primarily by the:
A. Liver
B. Brain
C. Pancreas
D. Skin

back 65

A. Liver

front 66

Preproglucagon processing yields mature 29–AA glucagon plus:
A. GLP-1 and GLP-2
B. Insulin and amylin
C. C-peptide and zinc
D. IRS-1 and SH2

back 66

A. GLP-1 and GLP-2

front 67

After a high-protein meal, amino acids typically cause glucagon to:
A. Fall below fasting
B. Normalize immediately
C. Remain high or increase
D. Become undetectable

back 67

C. Remain high or increase

front 68

During fasting-feeding cycles, which hormone varies more?
A. Glucagon
B. Insulin
C. Cortisol
D. Epinephrine

back 68

B. Insulin

front 69

In a binding assay using intact insulin receptors, the subunit that binds insulin is:
A. β subunit, cytosolic tail
B. α subunit, cytosolic tail
C. α subunit, extracellular domain
D. β subunit, extracellular domain

back 69

C. α subunit, extracellular domain

front 70

A mutation truncating the receptor’s cytosolic kinase region most directly affects which subunit?
A. β subunit, transmembrane/cytosolic
B. α subunit, extracellular binding
C. α subunit, nuclear translocation
D. β subunit, secreted peptide

back 70

A. β subunit, transmembrane/cytosolic

front 71

Minutes after insulin binds, the earliest receptor event is:
A. Serine phosphorylation of enzymes
B. cAMP synthesis by adenylate cyclase
C. PIP2 hydrolysis via Gq
D. Tyrosine autophosphorylation of β

back 71

D. Tyrosine autophosphorylation of β

front 72

In insulin signaling, the principal substrate phosphorylated by the receptor is:
A. CREB
B. IRS-1
C. Phosphodiesterase
D. Phospholamban

back 72

B. IRS-1

front 73

After IRS-1 phosphorylation, docking occurs through proteins containing:
A. SH2 domains
B. PH domains
C. PDZ domains
D. SH3 domains

back 73

A. SH2 domains

front 74

A hormone receptor that activates adenylate cyclase to raise cAMP is best classified as:
A. Receptor tyrosine kinase
B. Nuclear transcription receptor
C. GPCR
D. Ligand-gated ion channel

back 74

C. GPCR

front 75

The glucagon receptor most directly couples to which G-protein?
A. Gi
B. Gs
C. Gq
D. G12/13

back 75

B. Gs

front 76

In hepatocytes, glucagon binding most directly increases:
A. IP3
B. DAG
C. cGMP
D. cAMP

back 76

D. cAMP

front 77

cAMP activates PKA by:
A. Dephosphorylating catalytic subunits
B. Phosphorylating regulatory subunits
C. Dissociating regulatory from catalytic
D. Opening membrane calcium channels

back 77

C. Dissociating regulatory from catalytic

front 78

After activation, PKA phosphorylates key enzymes mainly on:
A. Serine residues
B. Tyrosine residues
C. Threonine residues
D. Cysteine residues

back 78

A. Serine residues

front 79

The phosphorylated-enzyme message is primarily terminated by:
A. Adenylate cyclase inhibition
B. Gs binding GDP
C. SH2 domain sequestration
D. Protein phosphatases removing phosphate

back 79

D. Protein phosphatases removing phosphate

front 80

cAMP is rapidly degraded to AMP by:
A. Protein phosphatase 1
B. Membrane phosphodiesterase
C. Phospholipase Cβ
D. Guanylyl cyclase

back 80

B. Membrane phosphodiesterase

front 81

Caffeine increases cAMP primarily by inhibiting:
A. Protein phosphatases
B. Adenylate cyclase
C. Phosphodiesterase
D. Tyrosine kinase

back 81

C. Phosphodiesterase

front 82

A methylxanthine’s metabolic effect most closely mimics:
A. Postprandial insulin surge
B. Insulin-induced storage state
C. Low catecholamine tone
D. Fasted glucagon/epinephrine state

back 82

D. Fasted glucagon/epinephrine state

front 83

A CRE-binding protein directly phosphorylated by PKA is:
A. IRS-1
B. CREB
C. GLUT2
D. KCNJ11

back 83

B. CREB

front 84

CREs that mediate cAMP-hormone transcriptional effects are located in:
A. Promoter regions of genes
B. Ribosomal RNA operons
C. Mitochondrial DNA control region
D. Lysosomal membrane proteins

back 84

A. Promoter regions of genes

front 85

Cortisol signaling is best summarized as:
A. GPCR → cAMP → PKA → gene expression
B. RTK → IRS-1 docking → gene expression
C. Gq → PIP2 hydrolysis → gene expression
D. Intracellular receptor binding → nucleus → gene expression

back 85

D. Intracellular receptor binding → nucleus → gene expression

front 86

Overall, catecholamines primarily cause:
A. Fuel storage predominance
B. Glycogen synthesis predominance
C. Increased fuel mobilization
D. Reduced substrate availability

back 86

C. Increased fuel mobilization

front 87

β-adrenergic receptors generally signal through:
A. Gq and PLCβ
B. Gs and adenylate cyclase
C. Gi and ion channels
D. JAK-STAT pathway

back 87

B. Gs and adenylate cyclase

front 88

The major adrenergic receptor in human heart and its primary agonist:
A. β1; norepinephrine
B. β2; norepinephrine
C. β3; epinephrine
D. α1; epinephrine

back 88

A. β1; norepinephrine

front 89

The adrenergic receptor prominent in liver/muscle fuel mobilization, with epinephrine > norepinephrine potency:
A. β1 receptor
B. α1 receptor
C. β3 receptor
D. β2 receptor

back 89

D. β2 receptor

front 90

Receptor that mediates vascular/bronchial/uterine smooth muscle contraction:
A. β1 receptor
B. α1 receptor
C. β2 receptor
D. β3 receptor

back 90

C. β2 receptor

front 91

A candidate “weight-loss” agonist increasing thermogenesis would target:
A. β3 receptor
B. β2 receptor
C. α1 receptor
D. β1 receptor

back 91

A. β3 receptor

front 92

Increased cardiac contraction with β1 stimulation is partly via PKA phosphorylation of:
A. CREB
B. Phospholamban
C. IRS-1
D. Phosphodiesterase

back 92

B. Phospholamban

front 93

Only 30–40% of “glucagon” is mature; major extra-pancreatic source of fragments is:
A. Hepatocytes
B. Skeletal myocytes
C. Renal tubule cells
D. Intestinal L cells

back 93

D. Intestinal L cells

front 94

A patient receives an α1 agonist and develops increased afterload. The primary postsynaptic α1 effect is:
A. Vascular smooth muscle contraction
B. Adipose thermogenesis increase
C. Insulin vesicle exocytosis
D. Bronchial smooth relaxation

back 94

A. Vascular smooth muscle contraction

front 95

During sympathetic activation, α1 signaling in hepatocytes can directly increase:
A. Glycogen synthesis
B. Glucose uptake
C. Hepatic glycogenolysis
D. Ketone clearance

back 95

C. Hepatic glycogenolysis

front 96

An α1 receptor couples into the PIP2 system. Which G-protein mediates this pathway?
A. Gi
B. Gq
C. Gs
D. G12/13

back 96

B. Gq

front 97

In α1 signaling, activation of Gq most directly stimulates:
A. Protein phosphatases
B. Phosphodiesterase
C. Adenylate cyclase
D. Phospholipase Cβ

back 97

D. Phospholipase Cβ

front 98

A clinic measures waist–hip ratio. A high value most strongly indicates:
A. Brown fat predominance
B. Gluteofemoral fat predominance
C. Visceral periintestinal adipocytes
D. No fat redistribution

back 98

C. Visceral periintestinal adipocytes

front 99

Visceral periintestinal adipocytes fat distribution pattern is associated with diabetes risk because it correlates with:
A. Reduced insulin sensitivity
B. Increased insulin sensitivity
C. Increased glucagon clearance
D. Reduced catecholamine tone

back 99

A. Reduced insulin sensitivity

front 100

A patient with uncontrolled diabetes reports polyuria and intense thirst. Which sequence best explains the mechanism described here?
A. ADH excess, water retention, edema
B. Tubular necrosis, oliguria, azotemia
C. SIADH physiology, hyponatremia, coma
D. Osmotic diuresis, dehydration, ↑glucose

back 100

D. Osmotic diuresis, dehydration, ↑glucose

front 101

A newborn develops diabetes within the first 3 months. The most common permanent form involves an activating KCNJ11 mutation. What is the key functional consequence?
A. KATP closes, Ca2+ blocked
B. GLUT2 fails, ATP drops
C. KATP stays open, Ca2+ blocked
D. Insulin receptor absent, IRS-1 fails

back 101

C. KATP stays open, Ca2+ blocked

front 102

Chronic hyperglycemia can distort membrane/serum proteins and slow degradation via:
A. Nonenzymatic glycosylation
B. Enzymatic hydroxylation
C. Proteasome hyperactivation
D. Mitochondrial uncoupling

back 102

A. Nonenzymatic glycosylation

front 103

Which long-term complication cluster best fits microvascular diabetic disease?
A. Coronary stroke PAD
B. Aortic aneurysm dissection
C. Retinopathy nephropathy neuropathy
D. COPD asthma bronchiectasis

back 103

C. Retinopathy nephropathy neuropathy

front 104

Which complication cluster best fits macrovascular diabetic disease in these notes?
A. Retinopathy, nephropathy, neuropathy
B. Coronary cerebral peripheral disease
C. Dermatitis, urticaria, eczema
D. Myopathy, arthropathy, osteopenia

back 104

B. Coronary cerebral peripheral disease

front 105

After KATP channel closure in β-cells (by ATP or sulfonylurea), which event most directly triggers insulin vesicle fusion with the membrane?
A. Increased intracellular Ca2+
B. Decreased intracellular cAMP
C. Increased IP3 signaling
D. Reduced ATP:ADP ratio

back 105

A. Increased intracellular Ca2+

front 106

The pore-forming unit of the β-cell KATP channel is encoded by:
A. HLA
B. KCNJ11
C. ABCC8
D. CREB

back 106

B. KCNJ11

front 107

The regulatory subunit that binds sulfonylureas is encoded by:
A. ABCC8
B. KCNJ11
C. PEPCK
D. IRS-1

back 107

A. ABCC8

front 108

Connie has fasting hypoglycemia with inappropriately high insulin; symptoms improve after eating. Most likely diagnosis:
A. Type 1 diabetes
B. Addison disease
C. Insulinoma
D. MODY type 2

back 108

C. Insulinoma

front 109

Confusion, fatigue, and blurred vision during hypoglycemia are classified as:
A. Osmotic manifestations
B. Cholinergic manifestations
C. Musculoskeletal manifestations
D. Neuroglycopenic manifestations

back 109

D. Neuroglycopenic manifestations

front 110

Why is C-peptide useful for assessing β-cell function?
A. Secreted only with exogenous insulin
B. Equimolar secretion, slower clearance
C. Rapidly cleared faster than insulin
D. Produced only by α-cells

back 110

B. Equimolar secretion, slower clearance

front 111

MODY patients can still produce/release insulin, but typically require:
A. Severe hypoglycemia
B. Basal fasting glucose
C. Higher glucose levels
D. Low catecholamines

back 111

C. Higher glucose levels

front 112

Glucagon can increase PEPCK gene transcription via cAMP. Insulin antagonizes this at gene expression via:
A. CRE in promoter
B. IRE in promoter
C. SH2 docking site
D. PIP2 response element

back 112

B. IRE in promoter

front 113

Insulin receptor mediates internalization of receptor-bound insulin molecules. This causes what pharmacologic phenomenon?
A. Receptor sensitization
B. Second-messenger amplification
C. Gq coupling switch
D. Receptor downregulation

back 113

D. Receptor downregulation