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Biochem 1

front 1

Process by which energy of electron transfer is used to convert ADP and Pi to ATP:
A. Respiration
B. TCA cycle
C. Oxidative phosphorylation
D. β-oxidation

back 1

C. Oxidative phosphorylation

front 2

What is required to convert fuels to CO2 and water?
A. Acetyl-CoA
B. O₂
C. NADH
D. Glucose

back 2

B. O₂

front 3

Which macronutrient gives the highest kcal/g?
A. Carbohydrate
B. Protein
C. Fat
D. Alcohol

back 3

C. Fat

front 4

A trauma patient with shock receives IV glucose, amino acids, and lipids. Despite substrate delivery, ATP remains low until oxygenation improves. Which statement best explains this?
A. O₂ is required to convert fuels to CO₂ and H₂O
B. Amino acids cannot enter energy pathways
C. Glucose cannot form acetyl-CoA without insulin
D. Triacylglycerol cannot be oxidized in mitochondria

back 4

A. O₂ is required to convert fuels to CO₂ and H₂O

front 5

A clinician teaching residents defines “oxidation of fuels to generate ATP.” Which term best matches this definition in your notes?
A. Glycolysis
B. Respiration
C. Substrate-level phosphorylation
D. Gluconeogenesis

back 5

B. Respiration

front 6

A nutrition label lists energy as “Calories.” What unit?
A. Joules
B. Small calories (cal)
C. Kilocalories (kcal)
D. Kilojoules per liter O₂

back 6

C. Kilocalories (kcal)

front 7

Converting between systems, the team recalls that 1 kilocalorie equals approximately:
A. 1.00 kJ
B. 2.54 kJ
C. 4.18 kJ
D. 9.81 kJ

back 7

C. 4.18 kJ

front 8

During indirect calorimetry teaching, the classic definition of 1 kilocalorie is reviewed. It is the energy needed to raise the temperature of:
A. 1 L of water by 1°C
B. 1 L of water by 4.18°C
C. 10 L of water by 1°C
D. 1 kg of water by 0.1°C

back 8

A. 1 L of water by 1°C

front 9

A mixed-meal tolerance test is designed using common dietary sugars. Which list captures the major carbohydrates in the human diet you were given?
A. Starch, sucrose, lactose, fructose, maltose, galactose, glucose
B. Ribose, cellulose, trehalose, sucrose, maltose, galactose, glucose
C. Starch, cellulose, ribose, tagatose, maltose, galactose, glucose
D. Galactose, ribulose, cellulose, mannose, maltose, galactose, glucose

back 9

A. Starch, sucrose, lactose, fructose, maltose, galactose, glucose

front 10

Which is a disaccharide?
A. Galactose
B. Fructose
C. Lactose
D. Glucose

back 10

C. Lactose

front 11

A fasting lab panel notes the predominant circulating sugar in healthy blood. Which is it?
A. Galactose
B. Glucose
C. Maltose
D. Fructose

back 11

B. Glucose

front 12

A metabolic calculation estimates energy yield if 1 g of carbohydrate is fully oxidized to CO₂ and H₂O. The closest value is:
A. 3 kcal/g
B. 5 kcal/g
C. 7 kcal/g
D. 4 kcal/g

back 12

D. 4 kcal/g

front 13

You are comparing macronutrients gram for gram. Which caloric content is correct per your notes?
A. Fat: 9 kcal/g
B. Protein: 7 kcal/g
C. Alcohol: 4 kcal/g
D. Carbohydrate: 9 kcal/g

back 13

A. Fat: 9 kcal/g

front 14

A TPN (total parenteral nutrition) order requires accurate protein energy accounting. Per gram, protein contributes:
A. 9 kcal/g
B. 4 kcal/g
C. 7 kcal/g
D. 3 kcal/g

back 14

B. 4 kcal/g

front 15

A post-operative patient is placed on restricted alcohol intake. If alcohol were consumed, its approximate caloric content per gram would be:
A. 3 kcal/g
B. 4 kcal/g
C. 9 kcal/g
D. 7 kcal/g

back 15

D. 7 kcal/g

front 16

A biochemistry small group reviews protein chemistry. Which statement aligns with the notes?
A. Proteins are linear chains of amino acids
B. Proteins are branched polymers of nucleotides
C. Proteins are triesters of glycerol
D. Proteins are homopolymers of glucose

back 16

A. Proteins are linear chains of amino acids

front 17

In uremia, nitrogen handling is central. Upon oxidation, proteins ultimately yield:
A. CO₂, H₂O, NO₃⁻
B. CO, H₂O, NH₄⁺
C. CO₂, H₂O, NH₄⁺
D. CO₂, H₂O

back 17

C. CO₂, H₂O, NH₄⁺

front 18

A lipid panel discussion turns to storage fuels. A triacylglycerol molecule contains:
A. 2 fatty acids + 1 glycerol
B. 3 fatty acids + 1 glycerol
C. 3 fatty acids + 2 glycerols
D. 1 fatty acid + 3 glycerols

back 18

B. 3 fatty acids + 1 glycerol

front 19

Which is monounsaturated?
A. Palmitate
B. Stearate
C. Oleate
D. Palmitate

back 19

C. Oleate

front 20

During counseling on why fats are energy-dense, which explanation matches your notes?
A. Fats are more reduced and have much less oxygen than carbohydrates or proteins
B. Fats carry more water per gram than carbohydrates
C. Fats are less reduced and have much less oxygen than carbohydrates or proteins
D. Fats are more reduced and have much more oxygen than carbohydrates or proteins

back 20

A. Fats are more reduced and have much less oxygen than carbohydrates or proteins

front 21

In a hepatology clinic, the chemical formula of the alcohol consumed is reviewed. Ethanol’s formula is:
A. CH₃-OH
B. CH₃-CH₂-OH
C. CH₃-CH₂-CH₃
D. CH₂-CH₂-OH

back 21

B. CH₃-CH₂-OH

front 22

In alcohol metabolism teaching, complete oxidation of ethanol ultimately yields:
A. CO₂ only
B. H₂O only
C. NH₄⁺ and CO₂
D. CO₂ and H₂O

back 22

D. CO₂ and H₂O

front 23

Glycogen is stored in?
A. Adipose and liver
B. Liver and muscle
C. Kidney and adipose
D. Brain and liver

back 23

B. Liver and muscle

front 24

Which pair best captures why triacylglycerol in adipose is such an efficient fuel depot?
A. High kcal/g; strongly hydrates with water
B. Low kcal/g; minimal water content
C. High kcal/g; minimal water content
D. Moderate kcal/g; strongly hydrates with water

back 24

C. High kcal/g; minimal water content

front 25

Glycogen:
A. Nonpolar α-1,6 branching, limits hydration
B. Polar hydroxyls, bind ~4× its weight in water
C. Protein primers exclude water
D. Phosphate groups repel water

back 25

B. Polar hydroxyls, bind ~4× its weight in water

front 26

A patient recovering from burns needs proteins for healing. Which core functions of proteins support this need?
A. Energy
B. Enzymes and structural roles
C. Hormones and bile salts
D. Osmotic control

back 26

B. Enzymes and structural roles

front 27

A weight-management consult calculates a patient’s daily energy requirement. Which definition matches daily energy expenditure (DEE)?
A. BMR + thermic effect + processing food
B. BMR + physical activity
C. BMR + physical activity + processing food
D. Physical activity + processing food

back 27

C. BMR + physical activity + processing food

front 28

Measure of energy required to maintain human life:
A. Resting energy expenditure
B. Basal metabolic rate (BMR)
C. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis
D. Specific dynamic action

back 28

B. Basal metabolic rate (BMR)

front 29

Two similar adults (same height/age) differ only by sex. All else equal, which statement fits your notes?
A. Women usually have higher BMR than men
B. Men usually have higher BMR than women
C. BMR is identical by sex
D. Sex differences vanish after age 18

back 29

B. Men usually have higher BMR than women

front 30

Per your notes, pregnancy and lactation:
A. Decrease BMR
B. Do not affect BMR
C. Increase BMR
D. Only increase BMR during lactation

back 30

C. Increase BMR

front 31

You need a quick BMR estimate for dosing in a 70-kg man and a 60-kg woman. Which rough calculation aligns with your notes?
A. Men: 21 kcal/day/kg; Women: 24 kcal/day/kg
B. Men: 24 kcal/day/kg; Women: 21 kcal/day/kg
C. Men: 28 kcal/day total; Women: 21 kcal/day total
D. Men: 27 kcal/day total; Women: 24 kcal/day total

back 31

B. Men: 24 kcal/day/kg; Women: 21 kcal/day/kg

front 32

A sports medicine clinic estimates fat-free mass (FFM) for a body-composition plan. Which equation matches your notes?
A. FFM = total body mass − adipose tissue mass
B. FFM = total body mass − (bone + water)
C. FFM = total body mass − muscle mass
D. FFM = adipose tissue mass − total body mass

back 32

A. FFM = total body mass − adipose tissue mass

front 33

During a metabolic study, the team measures oxygen consumption and carbon dioxide production at rest and during exercise. Which technique is being used?
A. Direct calorimetry
B. Bomb calorimetry
C. Indirect calorimetry
D. Doubly labeled water

back 33

C. Indirect calorimetry

front 34

In a substrate-oxidation lab, students compute the ratio of CO₂ produced to O₂ consumed. This variable is the:
A. Respiratory quotient
B. Ventilatory threshold
C. Anion gap
D. Oxygen extraction ratio

back 34

A. Respiratory quotient

front 35

A subject breathes into a metabolic cart after ingesting only carbohydrate. What respiratory quotient (RQ) is expected?
A. 0.71
B. 0.83
C. 1.00
D. 0.92

back 35

C. 1.00

front 36

A protein-only test meal is given for teaching. The expected RQ for protein is closest to:
A. 1.00
B. 0.83
C. 0.71
D. 0.90

back 36

B. 0.83

front 37

A prolonged fast results in predominant fat oxidation. The expected RQ is approximately:
A. 0.71
B. 0.83
C. 1.00
D. 0.95

back 37

A. 0.71

front 38

Counseling a patient on “calories burned by digestion,” you note the energy required to process typical mixed meals is approximately:
A. 5% of kcal ingested
B. 10% of kcal ingested
C. 20% of kcal ingested
D. 30% of kcal ingested

back 38

B. 10% of kcal ingested

front 39

A clinic uses the imperial BMI formula for a 180-lb, 70-in patient. Which equation is correct?
A. BMI = (weight (lb) × 704) / height² (in)
B. BMI = (weight (lb) × 704.5) / height (in)
C. BMI = (weight (lb) / height² (in)) × 2.2
D. BMI = (weight (kg)) / (height (m))²

back 39

A. BMI = (weight (lb) × 704) / height² (in)

front 40

A 24-year-old presents with a BMI of 22.1. Based on your ranges, which category applies?
A. Overweight/preobese
B. Healthy weight
C. Class I obesity
D. Class II obesity

back 40

B. Healthy weight

front 41

A 52-year-old with BMI 27.8. Which category matches your notes?
A. Healthy weight
B. Overweight/preobese
C. Class I obesity
D. Class III obesity

back 41

B. Overweight/preobese

front 42

A patient’s BMI is 33.2. Which classification is correct?
A. Class I obesity
B. Class II obesity
C. Class III obesity
D. Overweight/preobese

back 42

A. Class I obesity

front 43

A bariatric surgery candidate has BMI 37.0 without major comorbidities. Classification?
A. Overweight/preobese
B. Class I obesity
C. Class II obesity
D. Class III obesity

back 43

C. Class II obesity

front 44

A 45-year-old with BMI 41.3 asks about risk category. Which classification applies?
A. Class II obesity
B. Class III obesity
C. Class I obesity
D. Overweight/preobese

back 44

B. Class III obesity

front 45

A famine-relief intake clinic triages adults by BMI. Which threshold aligns with protein-calorie malnutrition degree I?
A. <16
B. 16–16.9
C. 17–18.4
D. 18.5–24.9

back 45

C. 17–18.4

front 46

A refugee with BMI 16-16.9 is flagged for urgent nutrition support. Which malnutrition degree matches?
A. Degree I
B. Degree II
C. Degree III
D. Healthy

back 46

B. Degree II

front 47

A cachectic patient with BMI under 16 needs inpatient refeeding. Which malnutrition degree is recorded?
A. Degree I
B. Degree II
C. Degree III
D. Overweight

back 47

C. Degree III

front 48

A pediatrician confirms carbohydrate needs for a healthy 10-year-old. According to your notes, the daily recommended carbohydrate intake for children and adults is:
A. 90 g/day
B. 110 g/day
C. 130 g/day
D. 160 g/day

back 48

C. 130 g/day

front 49

A dietitian documents a definition for a guideline that links intake ranges to reduced disease risk while ensuring adequacy of essential nutrients. This defines:
A. RDA
B. AMDR
C. UL
D. EAR

back 49

B. AMDR

front 50

For a 2,400-kcal diet plan, which percentage range for carbohydrate aligns with the guideline in your notes?
A. 20–35%
B. 30–45%
C. 45–65%
D. 65–80%

back 50

C. 45–65%

front 51

A 45-year-old starting a weight-loss plan asks what fraction of daily calories should come from fat. According to your notes (AMDR), the recommended range is:
A. 10–20%
B. 20–35%
C. 35–50%
D. 5–15%

back 51

B. 20–35%

front 52

A pharmacology lecture links several autacoids to inflammation and thrombosis. Which group correctly lists eicosanoids?
A. Catecholamines, serotonin, histamine
B. Prostaglandins, thromboxanes, leukotrienes
C. Bradykinin, endorphins, nitric oxide
D. Endocannabinoids, endorphins, prostacyclin

back 52

B. Prostaglandins, thromboxanes, leukotrienes

front 53

A cardiology fellow reviews fatty acid–derived mediators. Which set contains only precursors of eicosanoids per your notes?
A. Oleate, palmitate, stearate
B. Alpha-linolenic, linoleic, EPA, DHA
C. Arachidate, palmitoleate, butyrate
D. Propionate, acetate, lactate

back 53

B. Alpha-linolenic, linoleic, EPA, DHA

front 54

A vegetarian patient asks which amino acids are essential. Which option lists only essentials from your notes?
A. Lysine, leucine, valine, tryptophan, phenylalanine, methionine, threonine, isoleucine, histidine
B. Alanine, lysine, tyrosine, glycine, methionine, glutamate, threonine, isoleucine, histidine
C. Aspartate, glutamine, leucine, proline, serine, threonine, isoleucine, histidine
D. Cysteine, tyrosine, leucine, glycine, arginine, threonine, isoleucine, histidine

back 54

A. Lysine, leucine, valine, tryptophan, phenylalanine, methionine, threonine, isoleucine, histidine

front 55

A phenylketonuria (PKU) discussion highlights a conditionally essential amino acid. Tyrosine is synthesized from:
A. Tryptophan
B. Phenylalanine
C. Methionine
D. Histidine

back 55

B. Phenylalanine

front 56

Cysteine can be synthesized using sulfur from:
A. Lysine
B. Methionine
C. Leucine
D. Threonine

back 56

B. Methionine

front 57

In critical care, amino acids have multiple fates. Which is NOT one of the three fates in your notes?
A. Oxidized as fuel to yield energy
B. Used to make proteins
C. Serve as precursors for essential nitrogen-containing compounds
D. Converted to cholesterol as the primary route

back 57

D. Converted to cholesterol as the primary route

front 58

Per your notes, nitrogen atoms are excreted primarily in the _____ as _____.
A. Feces; ammonia
B. Urine; urea
C. Sweat; nitrate
D. Bile; uric acid

back 58

B. Urine; urea

front 59

A diet log tracks “N-in vs N-out.” The difference between nitrogen intake and nitrogen loss each day defines:
A. Nitrogen efficiency
B. Nitrogen balance
C. Nitrogen partitioning
D. Nitrogen turnover fraction

back 59

B. Nitrogen balance

front 60

A malnutrition screening in pediatrics uses the single best indicator per your notes. What is it?
A. Mid-arm circumference
B. Height-for-age
C. Weight-for-height measurement
D. Head circumference percentile

back 60

C. Weight-for-height measurement

front 61

A 3-year-old on a maize-heavy diet presents with edema, hypoalbuminemia, anemia, pot belly, and hair changes. Most likely diagnosis?
A. Marasmus
B. Kwashiorkor
C. Scurvy
D. Beriberi

back 61

B. Kwashiorkor

front 62

A famine-exposed adult shows severe wasting without edema and profound energy deficiency. This pattern is most consistent with:
A. Kwashiorkor
B. Marasmus
C. Pellagra
D. Ariboflavinosis

back 62

B. Marasmus

front 63

During a vitamin overview, the class divides micronutrients into two broad types. The two classifications are:
A. Macro and micro
B. Essential and nonessential
C. Water-soluble and fat-soluble
D. Organic and inorganic

back 63

C. Water-soluble and fat-soluble

front 64

A patient trying to boost antioxidant intake asks about vitamin C sources. Which set fits your notes?
A. Citrus, peppers, broccoli
B. Dairy, eggs, fish
C. Beef, liver, shellfish
D. Whole grains, pork, legumes

back 64

A. Citrus, peppers, broccoli

front 65

A 64-year-old with bleeding gums, poor wound healing, and perifollicular hemorrhages likely has vitamin C deficiency leading to:
A. Pellagra
B. Beriberi
C. Scurvy
D. Ariboflavinosis

back 65

C. Scurvy

front 66

A community program adds thiamin to staples. Which foods are listed as sources in your notes?
A. Pork; legumes; seeds; nuts
B. Cereals, breads, pork
C. Pork, legumes, seeds, nuts
D. Pork; legumes; seeds; nuts

back 66

B. Cereals, breads, pork

front 67

A patient with edema, irritability, decreased short-term memory, anorexia, and cardiomegaly is suspected of a vitamin deficiency. Which deficiency syndrome is described?
A. Pellagra (niacin)
B. Scurvy (vitamin C)
C. Beriberi (thiamin)
D. Ariboflavinosis (riboflavin)

back 67

C. Beriberi (thiamin)

front 68

Which option matches riboflavin (B2) sources per your notes?
A. Dairy, meat, legumes
B. Citrus fruits, potatoes, peppers
C. Enriched grains, pork, nuts
D. Animal products only

back 68

A. Dairy, meat, legumes

front 69

A patient has sore throat, hyperemia and edema of oral mucosa, seborrheic dermatitis, and normocytic anemia. This constellation fits:
A. Pellagra (niacin deficiency)
B. Ariboflavinosis (riboflavin deficiency)
C. Scurvy (vitamin C deficiency)
D. Beriberi (thiamin deficiency)

back 69

B. Ariboflavinosis (riboflavin deficiency)

front 70

Which foods supply niacin according to your sheet?
A. Meat; all protein-containing foods
B. Leafy greens and citrus only
C. Dairy products and fish only
D. Seeds and nuts exclusively

back 70

A. Meat; all protein-containing foods

front 71

A dermatology consult notes a pigmented rash in sun-exposed areas with vomiting, constipation, and neurologic symptoms. Most consistent deficiency?
A. Thiamin
B. Niacin
C. Riboflavin
D. Vitamin C

back 71

B. Niacin

front 72

Which list contains vitamin B6 sources per your notes?
A. Meat, oats, noncitrus fruits
B. Dairy, legumes, fish, oats
C. Leafy greens, citrus, oats,
D. Animal products only, oats

back 72

A. Meat, oats, noncitrus fruits

front 73

A patient presents with seborrheic dermatitis, microcytic anemia, depression, confusion, and seizures. The deficiency most consistent with this pattern is:
A. Vitamin B6
B. Riboflavin
C. Thiamin
D. Niacin

back 73

A. Vitamin B6

front 74

Which food sources provide folate in your notes?
A. Animal products
B. Liver and egg yolk
C. Citrus fruits and leafy green vegetables
D. Dairy and fish

back 74

C. Citrus fruits and leafy green vegetables

front 75

A pregnant patient with impaired cell division and megaloblastic anemia is counselled on preventing neural tube defects. Which deficiency explains all three findings per your notes?
A. Vitamin B12
B. Folate
C. Vitamin C
D. Riboflavin

back 75

B. Folate

front 76

A vegan without supplementation is at risk for which vitamin deficiency based on your source list?
A. Vitamin B12
B. Vitamin C
C. Thiamin
D. Niacin

back 76

A. Vitamin B12

front 77

A chef following a “nose-to-tail” diet likely gets biotin from which of these per your notes?
A. Leafy greens
B. Citrus
C. Liver and egg yolk
D. Fortified grains

back 77

C. Liver and egg yolk

front 78

Conjunctivitis, CNS abnormalities, alopecia, and scaly dermatitis arise in the context of deficiency of which vitamin in your notes?
A. Thiamin
B. Biotin
C. Riboflavin
D. Vitamin C

back 78

B. Biotin

front 79

A patient with irritability, fatigue, malaise, GI complaints, and neurologic symptoms is suspected of a single vitamin deficiency consistent with your sheet. Which one?
A. Pantothenic acid deficiency
B. Niacin deficiency
C. Folate deficiency
D. Vitamin C deficiency

back 79

A. Pantothenic acid deficiency

front 80

A 6-year-old with poor intake of plant and fish oils has reduced production of prostaglandins and leukotrienes. Which diet class directly supplies the precursors for these eicosanoids?
A. Nonessential fatty acids
B. Essential fatty acids
C. Medium-chain triglycerides
D. Trans-unsaturated fatty acids

back 80

B. Essential fatty acids

front 81

A nutritionist counsels on specific eicosanoid precursors. Which pair lists ONLY dietary sources named in your notes?
A. α-linolenic (plant oils), arachidonate (red meat)
B. α-linoleic/α-linolenic (plant oils), EPA/DHA (fish oils)
C. Palmitate/stearate (animal fats)
D. Butyrate/propionate (fermented fibers)

back 81

B. α-linoleic/α-linolenic (plant oils), EPA/DHA (fish oils)

front 82

A pregnant patient asks why arginine is emphasized in her prenatal plan. Per your notes, arginine in children and pregnancy is best classified as:
A. Nonessential at all life stages
B. Essential at all life stages
C. Conditionally required in the diet due to high synthesis demand
D. Toxic in high-protein diets

back 82

C. Conditionally required in the diet due to high synthesis demand

front 83

Adults efficiently recycle a certain amino acid but still need tiny amounts in the diet; in children and pregnant women the requirement rises disproportionately. Which amino acid is this?
A. Histidine
B. Arginine
C. Leucine
D. Methionine

back 83

A. Histidine

front 84

Which amino acids are “conditionally essential,” becoming diet-required when precursor intake or conversion is inadequate?
A. Alanine and serine
B. Tyrosine and cysteine
C. Leucine and valine
D. Lysine and threonine

back 84

B. Tyrosine and cysteine

front 85

A toddler with untreated phenylketonuria (PKU) has low tyrosine despite adequate protein intake. Which defective step explains this?
A. Tryptophan → niacin
B. Phenylalanine → tyrosine via phenylalanine hydroxylase
C. Methionine → cysteine sulfur transfer
D. Glutamate → glutamine amidation

back 85

B. Phenylalanine → tyrosine via phenylalanine hydroxylase

front 86

A patient with low intake of milk, liver, and eggs develops hepatic injury. Which deficiency matches?
A. Choline
B. Vitamin E
C. Vitamin A
D. Vitamin D

back 86

A. Choline

front 87

Night blindness, xerophthalmia, keratinization of GI/respiratory/GU epithelia, and dry scaly skin reflect deficiency of vitamin from milk, green leafy, and deep orange produce. Which vitamin?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin K
C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin D

back 87

A. Vitamin A

front 88

A newborn with hemorrhagic disease and a mother with poor intake of leafy greens, cabbage-family vegetables, and little gut flora exposure is most likely deficient in:
A. Vitamin E
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin K
D. Vitamin A

back 88

C. Vitamin K

front 89

A child with rachitic leg bowing improves with fortified milk, cereals, eggs, fatty fish, and safe sunlight. Which vitamin?
A. A
B. D
C. E
D. K

back 89

B. D

front 90

Progressive neurologic abnormalities and muscular dystrophy-like myopathy improve with vegetable oils, margarine, wheat germ, nuts, and greens. Which vitamin?
A. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin E
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin A

back 90

B. Vitamin E

front 91

Most vitamins in metabolism are used primarily as:
A. Hormones
B. Coenzymes
C. Structural lipids
D. Inorganic cofactors

back 91

B. Coenzymes

front 92

A label exceeds the highest daily intake with no known risk. The ceiling is termed:
A. RDA
B. AI
C. UL
D. EAR

back 92

C. UL

front 93

Which trio are the major electrolytes establishing ion gradients, maintaining water balance, and neutralizing protein charges?
A. Ca²⁺, Mg²⁺, PO₄³⁻
B. Na⁺, K⁺, Cl⁻
C. Na⁺, HCO₃⁻, Cl⁻
D. K⁺, Ca²⁺, Mg²⁺

back 93

B. Na⁺, K⁺, Cl⁻

front 94

Which two minerals serve as structural components of bone and teeth?
A. Calcium and phosphorus
B. Sodium and chloride
C. Iron and zinc
D. Magnesium and sulfate

back 94

A. Calcium and phosphorus

front 95

Which mineral is directly active in blood clotting and hormone action?
A. Iron
B. Calcium
C. Phosphorus
D. Magnesium

back 95

B. Calcium

front 96

Which mineral is required for formation of ATP and phosphorylated intermediates of metabolism?
A. Zinc
B. Phosphorus
C. Iron
D. Sulfur

back 96

B. Phosphorus

front 97

Which mineral activates enzymes and forms complexes with ATP?
A. Magnesium
B. Calcium
C. Sodium
D. Chloride

back 97

A. Magnesium

front 98

Which mineral functions as the oxygen-carrier component of hemoglobin, with deficiency causing anemia?
A. Phosphorus
B. Iron
C. Magnesium
D. Calcium

back 98

B. Iron

front 99

Dietary deficiency of which mineral leads to osteoporosis/osteomalacia with fragile, poorly mineralized bone?
A. Phosphorus
B. Iron
C. Calcium
D. Magnesium

back 99

C. Calcium

front 100

Dietary deficiency of which mineral causes bone loss with weakness, anorexia, malaise, and pain?
A. Phosphorus
B. Iron
C. Calcium
D. Magnesium

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A. Phosphorus

front 101

Sulfur is ingested principally in which amino acids listed in your notes?
A. Glycine and alanine
B. Cysteine and methionine
C. Lysine and leucine
D. Serine and threonine

back 101

B. Cysteine and methionine

front 102

High blood concentrations of cholesterol within which lipoprotein most contribute to atherosclerotic plaques?
A. HDL
B. LDL
C. VLDL
D. Chylomicrons

back 102

B. LDL

front 103

Which dietary pattern most increases circulating LDL cholesterol and accelerates atherosclerosis, per your notes?
A. High monounsaturated and omega-3 fats
B. High saturated fat and trans fat
C. High fiber and plant sterols
D. Low-fat, high-carbohydrate with omega-3s

back 103

B. High saturated fat and trans fat

front 104

Which statement best captures the definition you gave for “vitamins”?
A. Organic compounds synthesized in ample amounts endogenously
B. Organic compounds required in small amounts, not synthesized sufficiently by the body
C. Inorganic cofactors always acting as electrolytes, not synthesized sufficiently by the body
D. Macronutrients providing ≥4 kcal/g, synthesized in ample amounts endogenously

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B. Organic compounds required in small amounts, not synthesized sufficiently by the body

front 105

A postpartum patient on a vegetarian diet includes milk and eggs to avoid a specific deficiency. Which nutrient do these foods supply per your list?
A. Vitamin K
B. Choline
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin A

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B. Choline

front 106

A 52-year-old with chronically low intake of milk, liver, and eggs develops elevated transaminases without another cause. Which deficiency best fits your notes?
A. Choline deficiency
B. Vitamin C deficiency
C. Folate deficiency
D. Thiamin deficiency

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A. Choline deficiency

front 107

A 7-year-old with night blindness and xerophthalmia likely lacks foods emphasized in counseling. Which sources align with your sheet?
A. Fortified grains, pork, legumes
B. Milk, green leafy vegetables, deep orange fruits/vegetables
C. Fatty fish, sunlight exposure
D. Vegetable oils, margarine, nuts

back 107

B. Milk, green leafy vegetables, deep orange fruits/vegetables

front 108

A patient has keratinization of epithelial surfaces in the GI and respiratory tracts and dry scaly skin. The deficiency most consistent with your notes is:
A. Vitamin E
B. Vitamin K
C. Vitamin A
D. Vitamin D

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C. Vitamin A

front 109

A newborn presents with bleeding from heel sticks. Maternal counseling identifies dietary sources and gut flora as contributors to which vitamin?
A. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin E
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin A

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A. Vitamin K

front 110

A deficiency causing defective blood coagulation and hemorrhagic anemia of the newborn is most consistent with:
A. Vitamin E deficiency
B. Vitamin K deficiency
C. Vitamin C deficiency
D. Vitamin D deficiency

back 110

B. Vitamin K deficiency

front 111

Which list matches vitamin D sources you provided?
A. Citrus fruits, potatoes, peppers
B. Fatty fish, sunlight exposure
C. Green leafy vegetables, cabbage family, vegetable oils
D. Vegetable oils, margarine, wheat germ, nuts

back 111

B. Fatty fish, sunlight exposure

front 112

Bowing of the legs and widened growth plates in a child are most consistent with deficiency of which vitamin?
A. Vitamin E
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin A
D. Vitamin K

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B. Vitamin D

front 113

A 60-year-old with progressive ataxia and decreased vibratory sense asks about dietary sources listed for the relevant vitamin. Which set matches vitamin E sources?
A. Vegetable oils, margarine, wheat germ
B. Fortified milk, cereals, fish
C. Milk, liver, eggs
D. Green leafy vegetables, cabbage family, vegetable oils

back 113

A. Vegetable oils, margarine, wheat germ

front 114

Proximal muscle weakness with neurologic abnormalities is documented in a patient with chronically low intake of vegetable oils and nuts. Which deficiency best fits?
A. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin A

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C. Vitamin E

front 115

A dehydrated athlete receives IV fluids targeting “major electrolytes.” Which trio matches your list?
A. Sodium, potassium, chloride
B. Calcium, phosphate, bicarbonate
C. Sodium, calcium, magnesium
D. Potassium, bicarbonate, sulfate

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A. Sodium, potassium, chloride

front 116

A biochemistry seminar emphasizes phosphorus in metabolism. Which functions match your notes?
A. Hemoglobin synthesis and oxygen storage
B. Formation of ATP and phosphorylated intermediates of metabolism
C. Collagen cross-linking and elastin recoil
D. Bile acid conjugation and micelle formation

back 116

B. Formation of ATP and phosphorylated intermediates of metabolism

front 117

A nutrition handout for a healthy patient lists a suggested cholesterol intake per day. Which recommendation matches your sheet?
A. <100 mg/day for all
B. <200 mg/day for healthy people; <300 mg/day for atherosclerosis
C. <300 mg/day healthy; <200 mg/day with atherosclerosis
D. <500 mg/day regardless of risk

back 117

C. <300 mg/day healthy; <200 mg/day with atherosclerosis

front 118

A patient tracking sodium sees your “recommended salt per day” line. Which amount matches your notes?
A. 1.5 g (¼ tbsp)
B. 2.3 g (1 tbsp)
C. 3.0 g (2 tbsp)
D. 5.0 g (½ tbsp)

back 118

B. 2.3 g (1 tbsp)

front 119

A teaching slide asks: Fuel is provided in the diet in which three forms?
A. Vitamins, minerals, water
B. Carbohydrates, fats, proteins
C. Carbohydrates, alcohol, fiber
D. Ketone bodies, glucose, amino acids

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B. Carbohydrates, fats, proteins

front 120

Energy is obtained from fuel by oxidizing it principally into which two compounds?
A. Urea and water
B. Carbon dioxide and water
C. Lactate and carbon dioxide
D. Ammonia and urea

back 120

B. Carbon dioxide and water

front 121

Unused dietary fuel can be stored in the body as:
A. Triacylglycerol and glycogen
B. Ketone bodies and lactate
C. Free fatty acids and creatine phosphate
D. Cholesterol esters and urea

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A. Triacylglycerol and glycogen

front 122

A counselor explains weight change: “It’s the balance of energy eaten vs. energy required for bodily functions and activity.” The amount consumed in 24 hours is called:
A. Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR)
B. Resting Energy Expenditure (REE)
C. Daily Energy Expenditure (DEE)
D. Thermic Effect of Food (TEF)

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C. Daily Energy Expenditure (DEE)

front 123

A 17-year-old presents with amenorrhea, bradycardia, and intense fear of weight gain, admitting self-induced restriction. Which diagnosis aligns?
A. Bulimia nervosa
B. Anorexia nervosa
C. Binge-eating disorder
D. Avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder

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B. Anorexia nervosa

front 124

A 70-year-old with a calcium-deficient diet has fragility fractures and inadequate bone mineralization. Per your list, this is:
A. Osteoporosis/osteomalacia
B. Rickets
C. Scurvy
D. Osteitis fibrosa cystica

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A. Osteoporosis/osteomalacia

front 125

Which primary process converts stored fuel from excess dietary intake into usable energy?
A. Reduction
B. Oxidation
C. Fermentation
D. Carboxylation

back 125

B. Oxidation

front 126

Which term describes amino acids the body needs but cannot synthesize and must obtain from the diet?
A. Nonessential amino acids
B. Glucogenic amino acids
C. Essential amino acids
D. Ketogenic amino acids

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C. Essential amino acids

front 127

A public health researcher estimates the daily nutrient intake level that would meet the requirements of half the individuals in a defined age- and sex-specific population. Which DRI value does this describe?
A. Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)
B. Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)
C. Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR)
D. Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL)

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B. Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)

front 128

A clinician develops a patient handout listing daily nutrient intakes that would satisfy the needs of nearly all (97–98%) healthy adults. Which reference value is being used?
A. RDA
B. EAR
C. AMDR
D. UL

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A. RDA

front 129

A dietitian designs a meal plan that specifies percentages of calories from carbohydrates, fats, and proteins to lower chronic disease risk while meeting nutrient needs. Which term applies?
A. EAR
B. UL
C. AMDR
D. RDA

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C. AMDR

front 130

A patient consumes large doses of a fat-soluble vitamin daily. The nutritionist warns that intake above a certain maximum safe level may cause toxicity. Which DRI parameter is referenced?
A. AMDR
B. EAR
C. RDA
D. UL

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D. UL

front 131

A factory worker inhales an industrial solvent in air that has no physiologic use and may be toxic. In your notes, this is a:
A. Conditionally essential nutrient
B. Dietary macronutrient
C. Xenobiotic compound
D. Essential amino acid

back 131

C. Xenobiotic compound

front 132

Per your notes, xenobiotic compounds are excreted primarily via:
A. Urine and feces
B. Sweat and tears
C. Breath and saliva
D. Bile only

back 132

A. Urine and feces

front 133

After complete fuel oxidation, which pairing matches elimination routes in your notes?
A. CO2 urine; water lungs
B. CO2 feces; water sweat
C. CO2 saliva; water bile
D. CO2 expired; water urine sweat

back 133

D. CO2 expired; water urine sweat

front 134

The cellular process of oxidizing fuel into carbon dioxide and water is called:
A. Lipogenesis
B. Catabolism
C. Glycogenesis
D. Gluconeogenesis

back 134

B. Catabolism

front 135

In your notes, electron transfer to oxygen during oxidation yields energy captured as:
A. Urea and ATP
B. Ketones and heat
C. Heat and ATP
D. Glucose and ATP

back 135

C. Heat and ATP

front 136

Although oxidation generates heat, your notes emphasize the main purpose of fuel oxidation is to:
A. Store glycogen
B. Synthesize vitamins
C. Produce CO2
D. Generate ATP

back 136

D. Generate ATP

front 137

A mitochondrial toxin drops ATP in rapidly proliferating intestinal crypt cells, impairing macromolecule building. Which ATP-driven process from your notes is most affected?
A. Biosynthetic reactions
B. Muscle contraction
C. Passive diffusion
D. Vitamin absorption

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A. Biosynthetic reactions

front 138

A patient with severe myocardial ischemia develops reduced contractility as ATP falls. Which ATP-driven process in your notes best explains the deficit?
A. Protein digestion
B. Muscle contraction
C. DNA methylation
D. Bile emulsification

back 138

B. Muscle contraction

front 139

In hypoxic brain injury, neurons lose Na⁺/K⁺ gradients and depolarize. Which ATP-driven process in your notes has failed?
A. Lipid digestion
B. Hormone secretion
C. Heat dissipation
D. Active transport

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D. Active transport

front 140

Your notes emphasize that glucose, fatty acids, and amino acids converge early to a shared intermediate before TCA oxidation. That intermediate is:
A. Acetyl-CoA
B. Lactate
C. Oxaloacetate
D. Citrate

back 140

A. Acetyl-CoA

front 141

A patient wants maximal stored calories with minimal added body mass. Per your notes, glycogen is a poor primary storage form compared with triacylglycerol because it:
A. Cannot be mobilized fasting
B. Cannot be synthesized adults
C. Binds substantial water mass
D. Requires oxygen for storage

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C. Binds substantial water mass

front 142

In the DEE equation from your notes, the term for energy required to process food eaten is:
A. Thermic effect of food
B. Basal metabolic rate
C. Resting metabolic rate
D. Diet-induced thermogenesis

back 142

D. Diet-induced thermogenesis

front 143

In your notes, minerals are generally divided into:
A. Organic and inorganic
B. Essential and nonessential
C. Macrominerals and trace minerals
D. Fat- and water-soluble

back 143

C. Macrominerals and trace minerals

front 144

Your notes define electrolytes as:
A. Inorganic ions in body fluids
B. Insoluble bone matrix minerals
C. Organic acids in plasma
D. Vitamins aiding enzymes

back 144

A. Inorganic ions in body fluids

front 145

In your notes, electrolytes are categorized as:
A. Trace minerals
B. Macrominerals
C. Water-soluble vitamins
D. Xenobiotic compounds

back 145

B. Macrominerals