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49 notecards = 13 pages (4 cards per page)

Viewing:

Embryo 2

front 1

In the uterine tube, capacitated sperm follow chemical signals released by the oocyte and follicular cells. These signals are called:
A. Cleavage
B. Compaction
C. Attractants
D. Blastogenesis

back 1

C (Attractants)

front 2

A patient’s sperm reach the oocyte but can’t disperse the corona radiata. Which pair best matches the two acrosomal factors named for dispersing those follicular cells?
A. Hyaluronidase, tubal mucosal enzymes
B. Acrosin, neuraminidase
C. Esterase, hyaluronidase
D. Neuraminidase, attractants

back 2

A (Hyaluronidase, tubal mucosal enzymes)

front 3

A sperm can reach the zona pellucida but can’t lyse it. Which acrosomal enzyme is listed as the most important for zona pellucida lysis?
A. Hyaluronidase
B. Tubal mucosal enzymes
C. Esterase
D. Acrosin

back 3

D (Acrosin)

front 4

Besides acrosin, which enzyme is also listed as part of the trio that lyses the zona pellucida?
A. Hyaluronidase
B. Esterase
C. Attractants
D. Early pregnancy factor

back 4

B (Esterase)

front 5

Besides acrosin and esterase, which additional enzyme is listed as contributing to zona pellucida lysis?
A. Neuraminidase
B. Hyaluronidase
C. Compaction
D. Blastogenesis

back 5

A (Neuraminidase)

front 6

After one sperm successfully passes through the zona pellucida, what change prevents entry of other sperm?
A. Cleavage
B. Compaction
C. Blastocyst cavity formation
D. Zona reaction

back 6

D (Zona reaction)

front 7

The notes describe the zona reaction as oocyte lysosomal enzymes being released into which space?
A. Uterine cavity
B. Blastocoele
C. Perivitelline space
D. Zona surface only

back 7

C (Perivitelline space)

front 8

The perivitelline space is the fluid-filled gap between the:
A. Oolemma and zona pellucida
B. Trophoblast and endometrium
C. Embryoblast and hypoblast
D. Morula and blastocoele

back 8

A (Oolemma and zona pellucida)

front 9

During sperm entry, which structure is stated to remain behind while the head and tail enter the oocyte cytoplasm?
A. Sperm tail
B. Sperm plasma membrane
C. Sperm head
D. Sperm pronucleus

back 9

B (Sperm plasma membrane)

front 10

A secondary oocyte completes the second meiotic division into a mature oocyte immediately after:
A. Morula formation
B. Zona shedding
C. Blastocoele formation
D. Penetration of the sperm

back 10

D (Penetration of the sperm)

front 11

During fertilization, the nucleus present in either the sperm or egg cell is called a:
A. Pronucleus
B. Ootid
C. Morula
D. Conceptus

back 11

A (Pronucleus)

front 12

A haploid cell formed by meiotic division of a secondary oocyte is termed:
A. Zygote
B. Blastocyst
C. Ootid
D. Trophoblast

back 12

C (Ootid)

front 13

The ootid becomes a zygote at the moment:
A. Cleavage begins
B. Pronuclei fuse diploid
C. Zona sheds
D. Hypoblast appears

back 13

B (Pronuclei fuse diploid)

front 14

Crossing over is emphasized because it:
A. Prevents polyspermy
B. Creates blastomeres
C. Forms the zona reaction
D. Shuffles maternal/paternal genes

back 14

D. Shuffles maternal/paternal genes

front 15

The value 1.05/1.00 in the notes represents:
A. Females per male
B. Blastomeres per zygote
C. Males per female
D. Morula cells per day

back 15

C (Males per female)

front 16

A fertility clinic stores early embryos long-term. The method named in the notes is:
A. Cryopreservation
B. Cleavage
C. Compaction
D. Blastogenesis

back 16

A. Cryopreservation

front 17

The surrogate-mother process in the notes is associated with a higher risk of:
A. Mosaicism
B. Birth defects
C. Zona reaction
D. Blastocoele

back 17

B. Birth defects

front 18

The repeated division of a zygote into blastomeres is called:
A. Implantation
B. Blastogenesis
C. Cleavage
D. Zona reaction

back 18

C. Cleavage

front 19

Approximately how long after fertilization do zygotes divide into blastomeres (per the notes)?
A. 12 hours
B. 18 hours
C. 6 days
D. 30 hours

back 19

D. 30 hours

front 20

After early divisions, blastomeres tightly align into a compact ball. This process is:
A. Compaction
B. Blastogenesis
C. Zona reaction
D. Implantation

back 20

A. Compaction

front 21

Which signaling pathway is listed as essential for segregating embryoblast from trophoblast?
A. Wnt signaling
B. Hippo signaling
C. Hedgehog signaling
D. Notch signaling

back 21

B. Hippo signaling

front 22

A solid, mulberry-shaped ball of 12–32 blastomeres formed 3–4 days after fertilization is a:
A. Blastocyst
B. Conceptus
C. Pronucleus
D. Morula

back 22

D. Morula

front 23

What is the stated cell-number range for a morula in these notes?
A. 12–32
B. 40–80
C. 80–120
D. 100–300

back 23

A. 12–32

front 24

In the notes, the morula develops about how long after fertilization?
A. 30 hours
B. 6 days
C. 3 days
D. 10 days

back 24

C. 3 days

front 25

A nondisjunction during an early cleavage division yields some normal and some abnormal chromosome counts. This is:
A. Cryopreservation
B. Mosaicism
C. Blastogenesis
D. Compaction

back 25

B. Mosaicism

front 26

The blastocyst cavity (blastocoele) forms when trophoblast cells:
A. Release lysosomal enzymes
B. Complete meiosis II
C. Fuse pronuclei
D. Pump fluid inward

back 26

D (Pump fluid inward)

front 27

The notes state the fluid for the blastocystic cavity comes from the:
A. Uterine cavity
B. Perivitelline space
C. Oocyte cytoplasm
D. Zona pellucida

back 27

A. Uterine cavity

front 28

Trophoblasts ultimately give rise to the major part of the:
A. Hypoblast
B. Pronucleus
C. Placenta
D. Oolemma

back 28

C. Placenta

front 29

Early pregnancy factor is described as a:
A. Zona-hardening enzyme
B. Steroid in maternal urine
C. Immunosuppressant serum protein
D. Tubal mucosal enzyme

back 29

C. Immunosuppressant serum protein

front 30

During the first ~10 days of development (per the notes), pregnancy testing relies on detecting:
A. hCG
B. Early pregnancy factor
C. Acrosin
D. Neuraminidase

back 30

B. Early pregnancy factor

front 31

The term meaning “development of the blastocyst” is:
A. Blastogenesis
B. Cleavage
C. Compaction
D. Implantation

back 31

A. Blastogenesis

front 32

The term meaning “embryo and its membranes” is:
A. Ootid
B. Morula
C. Pronucleus
D. Conceptus

back 32

D. Conceptus

front 33

An early-stage embryo typically 5–7 days post-fertilization with ~100–300 cells is a:
A. Morula
B. Ootid
C. Blastocyst
D. Zygote

back 33

C. Blastocyst

front 34

Which blastocyst component contains pluripotent cells that give rise to the entire fetal body?
A. Hypoblast
B. Embryoblast
C. Trophoblast
D. Blastocoele

back 34

B. Embryoblast

front 35

Which outer layer supplies nourishment and later forms the major part of the placenta?
A. Trophoblast
B. Hypoblast
C. Embryoblast
D. Perivitelline space

back 35

A. Trophoblast

front 36

Shedding of the zona pellucida is important because it permits the blastocyst to:
A. Start crossing over
B. Prevent cleavage
C. Grow rapidly in size
D. Form the ootid

back 36

C. Grow rapidly in size

front 37

Before implantation, the blastocyst derives nourishment from the:
A. Perivitelline space
B. Zona pellucida
C. Blastocoele
D. Uterine gland

back 37

D. Uterine gland

front 38

The blastocyst attaches to the endometrial epithelium at about:
A. 6 days
B. 3 days
C. 10 days
D. 30 hours

back 38

A. 6 days

front 39

The fluid-filled cavity within the early embryo is called the:
A. Perivitelline space
B. Morula
C. Conceptus
D. Blastocoele

back 39

D. Blastocoele

front 40

Which trophoblast layer is described as highly invasive?
A. Hypoblast
B. Embryoblast
C. Syncytiotrophoblast
D. Cytotrophoblast

back 40

C. Syncytiotrophoblast

front 41

Around ~7 days, the hypoblast appears on the surface of the embryoblast facing the:
A. Uterine cavity
B. Endometrial epithelium
C. Corona radiata
D. Blastocystic cavity

back 41

D. Blastocystic cavity

front 42

Removing 1–2 cells from an embryo during IVF for genetic testing is called:
A. Preimplantation genetic diagnosis
B. Blastogenesis
C. Cryopreservation
D. Zona reaction

back 42

A. Preimplantation genetic diagnosis

front 43

The notes list the early spontaneous abortion rate as:
A. 5%
B. 15%
C. 45%
D. 80%

back 43

C. 45%

front 44

The region next to the embryoblast where the invasive trophoblast expands is the:
A. Uterine pole
B. Embryonic pole
C. Ovarian pole
D. Cervical pole

back 44

B. Embryonic pole

front 45

The inner trophoblast layer formed at the embryonic pole is the:
A. Hypoblast
B. Embryoblast
C. Syncytiotrophoblast
D. Cytotrophoblast

back 45

D. Cytotrophoblast

front 46

The oocyte enzymes that drive the zona reaction are released into the:
A. Perivitelline space
B. Uterine cavity
C. Blastocoele
D. Corona radiata

back 46

A. Perivitelline space

front 47

The ootid forms when the secondary oocyte completes:
A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis II
C. Cleavage
D. Compaction

back 47

B. Meiosis II

front 48

A mixed population of normal and abnormal blastomeres most directly results from:
A. Failed zona shedding
B. Early cleavage nondisjunction
C. Poor uterine nourishment
D. Failed compaction

back 48

B. Early cleavage nondisjunction

front 49

  1. The fluid-filled cavity within the early embryo is called the:
    A. Perivitelline space
    B. Morula
    C. Conceptus
    D. Blastocoele

back 49

D. Blastocoele