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Phys 84

front 1

At 2 weeks post-implantation, which structure develops fastest relative to the fetus?
A. Fetal skeleton and muscles
B. Placenta and membranes
C. Fetal cerebral cortex
D. Fetal renal nephrons

back 1

B. Placenta and membranes

front 2

During the first 2–3 weeks after blastocyst implantation, the fetus is best described as:
A. Rapidly gaining fat mass
B. Approaching neonatal anatomy
C. Increasing length exponentially
D. Almost microscopic

back 2

D. Almost microscopic

front 3

After the early microscopic period, fetal length increases almost:
A. Proportionally with age
B. Inversely with age
C. Independently of age
D. Only in third trimester

back 3

A. Proportionally with age

front 4

A 12-week fetus most likely measures about:
A. About 5 cm
B. About 8 cm
C. About 10 cm
D. About 25 cm

back 4

C. About 10 cm

front 5

A 20-week fetus most likely measures about:
A. About 25 cm
B. About 10 cm
C. About 53 cm
D. About 5 cm

back 5

A. About 25 cm

front 6

At term, the fetus most likely measures about:
A. About 25 cm
B. About 53 cm
C. About 10 cm
D. About 40 cm

back 6

B. About 53 cm

front 7

An ultrasound at ~32 weeks estimates fetal weight. Average weight is closest to:
A. 1.5 lb
B. 2.0 lb
C. 4.5 lb
D. 3.0 lb

back 7

D. 3.0 lb

front 8

A fetus at ~36 weeks typically weighs closest to:
A. 7.0 lb
B. 3.0 lb
C. 4.5 lb
D. 11.0 lb

back 8

C. 4.5 lb

front 9

Which statement best matches typical birth weight patterns at term?
A. Avg 4.5 lb; 3–7
B. Avg 7 lb; 4.5–11
C. Avg 11 lb; 7–13
D. Avg 3 lb; 1–5

back 9

B. Avg 7 lb; 4.5–11

front 10

Beyond which point are fetal organs grossly similar to a neonate’s?
A. After month 4
B. After month 2
C. After month 1
D. After month 7

back 10

A. After month 4

front 11

Earliest expected onset of human cardiac contractions occurs around:
A. Week 2
B. Week 8
C. Week 6
D. Week 4

back 11

D. Week 4

front 12

When the fetal heart first begins beating, the rate is closest to:
A. 140 beats/min
B. 100 beats/min
C. 65 beats/min
D. 45 beats/min

back 12

C. 65 beats/min

front 13

Immediately before birth, typical fetal heart rate is closest to:
A. 140 beats/minA
B. 65 beats/min
C. 45 beats/min
D. 100 beats/min

back 13

A. 140 beats/min

front 14

Earliest nucleated red blood cells begin forming primarily at:
A. Week 6 liver
B. Week 4 bone marrow
C. Month 3 spleen
D. Week 3 yolk sac placenta

back 14

D. Week 3 yolk sac placenta

front 15

Initial production of non-nucleated RBCs begins around:
A. Month 3 lymphoid tissue
B. Weeks 4–5 mesenchyme endothelium
C. Week 3 yolk sac
D. Term bone marrow

back 15

B. Weeks 4–5 mesenchyme endothelium

front 16

The fetal liver begins forming blood cells at about:
A. Week 4
B. Month 4
C. Week 6
D. Week 12

back 16

C. Week 6

front 17

The spleen and other lymphoid tissues begin hematopoiesis around:
A. Second trimester start
B. Week 6
C. Third month
D. At term

back 17

C. Third month

front 18

From the third month onward, the principal source of RBCs becomes:
A. Yolk sac endoderm
B. Bone marrow
C. Placental mesothelium
D. Alveolar epithelium

back 18

B. Bone marrow

front 19

Even after bone marrow predominates, continued RBC production in lymphoid tissue especially includes:
A. Lymphocytes and plasma cells
B. Neutrophils and eosinophils
C. Platelets and reticulocytes
D. Monocytes and basophils

back 19

A. Lymphocytes and plasma cells

front 20

Why can respiration not occur during fetal life?
A. Surfactant absent until term
B. Diaphragm cannot contract
C. Airway cartilage undeveloped
D. No air in amniotic cavity

back 20

D. No air in amniotic cavity

front 21

A late-gestation mechanism inhibits fetal “breathing” movements mainly to:
A. Prevent surfactant washout
B. Prevent meconium debris lung filling
C. Increase fetal oxygen demand
D. Enhance pulmonary blood flow

back 21

B. Prevent meconium debris lung filling

front 22

Up to the moment of birth, the fetal lungs are maintained with:
A. Debris-filled aspirate
B. Meconium-contaminated mucus
C. Small amounts of clean fluid
D. Completely dry alveoli

back 22

C. Small amounts of clean fluid

front 23

Most spinal cord and brainstem reflexes are present by:
A. First month
B. Sixth month
C. At term only
D. Third–fourth months

back 23

D. Third–fourth months

front 24

By midpregnancy, the fetus typically begins to:
A. Ingest and absorb amniotic fluid
B. Synthesize mature antibodies
C. Complete renal acid-base control
D. Replace placenta with lungs

back 24

A. Ingest and absorb amniotic fluid

front 25

During the last 2–3 months, which function approaches that of a normal neonate?
A. Cardiac conduction system
B. Bone marrow stem-cell niche
C. Gastrointestinal function
D. Placental gas exchange

back 25

C. Gastrointestinal function

front 26

Meconium is best described as:
A. Mucus epithelial cells swallowed residue
B. Pure fetal urine concentrate
C. Surfactant mixed with plasma
D. Placental trophoblast fragments

back 26

A. Mucus epithelial cells swallowed residue

front 27

Second-trimester fetal urine contributes approximately what fraction of amniotic fluid?
A. 10–20%
B. 30–40%
C. 50–60%
D. 70–80%

back 27

D. 70–80%

front 28

Severe fetal kidney dysfunction most directly increases risk of:
A. Polyhydramnios with macrosomia
B. Oligohydramnios and fetal death
C. Meconium ileus with obstruction
D. Neonatal hypocalcemia only

back 28

B. Oligohydramnios and fetal death

front 29

Fetal renal regulation of ECF volume, electrolytes, and acid-base is:
A. Fully mature by midpregnancy
B. Mature by birth
C. Nearly absent until late fetal life
D. Hyperactive in second trimester

back 29

C. Nearly absent until late fetal life

front 30

The fetus primarily uses which fuel for energy?
A. Glucose
B. Ketone bodies
C. Free fatty acids
D. Amino acids

back 30

A. Glucose

front 31

Fetal calcium + phosphate needs are about what fraction of maternal bone stores?
A. About 20%
B. About 10%
C. About 2%
D. About 50%

back 31

C. About 2%

front 32

Which nutrient accumulates faster than calcium/phosphate in the fetus?
A. Iron
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin K

back 32

A. Iron

front 33

Early embryonic iron uptake occurs primarily via:
A. Maternal hepatocytes
B. Amniotic epithelium
C. Fetal renal tubules
D. Trophoblastic cells

back 33

D. Trophoblastic cells

front 34

Hemolysis in erythroblastosis fetalis severe cases can cause fetal death mainly from:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Coagulopathy
D. Lack of adequate RBCs

back 34

D. Lack of adequate RBCs

front 35

Term fetal liver iron is most important after birth for:
A. Hemoglobin synthesis months
B. Surfactant production
C. Bone matrix formation
D. Coagulation factor activation

back 35

A. Hemoglobin synthesis months

front 36

Which combination is required for RBCs and nervous tissue growth?
A. Vitamin C and D
B. Vitamin K and C
C. Vitamin B12 and folate
D. Vitamin D and K

back 36

C. Vitamin B12 and folate

front 37

A deficiency impairing connective tissue matrix suggests low:
A. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin B12
D. Vitamin C

back 37

D. Vitamin C

front 38

Maternal vitamin most critical for GI calcium absorption is:
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin K
D. Vitamin B12

back 38

B. Vitamin D

front 39

Fetal vitamin K is used to form which coagulation factor?
A. Factor VII
B. Factor VIII
C. Factor XIII
D. Factor I

back 39

A. Factor VII

front 40

Maternal vitamin K insufficiency most directly causes deficiency of:
A. Factor VIII and fibrinogen
B. Factor IX and XII
C. Factor V and VIII
D. Factor VII and prothrombin

back 40

D. Factor VII and prothrombin

front 41

Most vitamin K is normally produced by bacteria in the:
A. Maternal ileum
B. Neonatal colon
C. Mother’s colon
D. Placental villi

back 41

C. Mother’s colon

front 42

Newborn vitamin K deficiency risk is highest initially because:
A. Placental transfer stops
B. No colonic flora
C. Liver cannot store
D. Kidneys excrete vitamins

back 42

B. No colonic flora

front 43

After an undepressed delivery, breathing begins:
A. Within one hour
B. After five minutes
C. After 40 minutes
D. Within seconds

back 43

D. Within seconds

front 44

Normal respiratory rhythm usually occurs within:
A. Less than 1 minute
B. Less than 10 minutes
C. About 40 minutes
D. About 5 minutes

back 44

A. Less than 1 minute

front 45

Maternal general anesthesia most commonly causes neonatal respiration to be:
A. Immediate vigorous breathing
B. Delayed several minutes
C. Apnea for hours
D. Tachypnea at birth

back 45

B. Delayed several minutes

front 46

Head trauma during delivery can impair breathing via:
A. Cord compression
B. Surfactant deficiency
C. Depressed respiratory center
D. Low vitamin K

back 46

C. Depressed respiratory center

front 47

Prolonged fetal hypoxia during delivery can cause:
A. Respiratory center depression
B. Increased respiratory drive
C. Increased surfactant secretion
D. Immediate rhythmic breathing

back 47

A. Respiratory center depression

front 48

Which delivery complication commonly causes fetal hypoxia?
A. Neonatal meconium passage
B. Maternal hyperventilation
C. Increased amniotic fluid
D. Umbilical cord compression

back 48

D. Umbilical cord compression

front 49

A sudden loss of placental exchange during labor suggests:
A. Umbilical vein dilation
B. Placental premature separation
C. Excess fetal swallowing
D. Early neonatal feeding

back 49

B. Placental premature separation

front 50

Classic erythroblastosis fetalis risk pairing is:
A. Fetus Rh−, mother Rh+
B. Fetus Rh+, mother Rh−
C. Fetus Rh−, mother Rh−
D. Fetus Rh+, mother Rh+

back 50

B. Fetus Rh+, mother Rh−

front 51

Excessive maternal anesthesia can worsen fetal hypoxia by:
A. Depresses maternal oxygenation
B. Increases uterine perfusion
C. Enhances fetal breathing
D. Increases placental exchange

back 51

A. Depresses maternal oxygenation

front 52

Some neonates may survive without breathing for up to:
A. Two minutes
B. Ten minutes
C. Thirty minutes
D. One hour

back 52

B. Ten minutes

front 53

At birth, alveoli are initially collapsed mainly because of:
A. Thick alveolar cartilage
B. No pulmonary capillaries
C. Surface tension of fluid
D. Excess surfactant

back 53

C. Surface tension of fluid

front 54

First opening of alveoli usually requires more than:
A. Greater than 5 mmHg
B. Greater than 10 mmHg
C. Greater than 15 mmHg
D. Greater than 25 mmHg

back 54

D. Greater than 25 mmHg

front 55

Breathing becomes completely normal approximately:
A. About 40 minutes
B. About 5 minutes
C. About 1 minute
D. About 10 minutes

back 55

A. About 40 minutes

front 56

Severe neonatal respiratory distress is most associated with:
A. Post-term infants
B. Maternal folate deficiency
C. Maternal vitamin C excess
D. Prematurity or maternal diabetes

back 56

D. Prematurity or maternal diabetes

front 57

A hallmark of respiratory distress syndrome is failure to secrete:
A. Excess lung fluid
B. Inadequate surfactant
C. Excess prothrombin
D. High fetal urine

back 57

B. Inadequate surfactant

front 58

Surfactant primarily helps alveoli by:
A. Increases fluid surface tension
B. Thickens alveolar mucus
C. Decreases alveolar surface tension
D. Dries alveolar lining

back 58

C. Decreases alveolar surface tension

front 59

Surfactant is produced by which cells?
A. Type II pneumocytes
B. Type I pneumocytes
C. Alveolar macrophages
D. Pulmonary fibroblasts

back 59

A. Type II pneumocytes

front 60

Meaningful surfactant secretion begins mainly during the last:
A. Last 1 week
B. Last 1 to 3 months
C. First 1 to 3 months
D. Midgestation only

back 60

B. Last 1 to 3 months

front 61

During fetal life, minimal cardiac output is directed through which organs?
A. Kidneys and skin
B. Brain and myocardium
C. Lungs and liver
D. Gut and spleen

back 61

C. Lungs and liver

front 62

The fetal heart must pump large quantities of blood through the:
A. Placenta
B. Coronary arteries
C. Cerebral arteries
D. Renal arteries

back 62

A. Placenta

front 63

Placental blood in the umbilical vein mainly bypasses the liver via the:
A. Ductus arteriosus
B. Foramen ovale
C. Portal vein
D. Ductus venosus

back 63

D. Ductus venosus

front 64

Well-oxygenated placental blood enters mainly the ______ side of the heart.
A. Right
B. Left
C. Posterior
D. Inferior

back 64

B. Left

front 65

The left ventricle preferentially supplies the:
A. Head and forelimbs
B. Placenta and kidneys
C. Liver and gut
D. Lungs and diaphragm

back 65

A. Head and forelimbs

front 66

Blood from the SVC is directed through which valve into the right ventricle?
A. Mitral valve
B. Pulmonic valve
C. Aortic valve
D. Tricuspid valve

back 66

D. Tricuspid valve

front 67

Most right-ventricular output reaches the descending aorta via the:
A. Foramen ovale
B. Ductus venosus
C. Ductus arteriosus
D. Coronary sinus

back 67

C. Ductus arteriosus

front 68

Deoxygenated fetal blood returns to the placenta primarily via the:
A. Pulmonary arteries
B. Umbilical arteries
C. Umbilical vein
D. Hepatic veins

back 68

B. Umbilical arteries

front 69

Approximately what fraction of fetal blood flow goes through the lungs?
A. About 12%
B. About 25%
C. About 45%
D. About 55%

back 69

A. About 12%

front 70

At birth, loss of placental flow causes systemic vascular resistance to:
A. Decrease slightly
B. Approximately double
C. Remain unchanged
D. Fall fivefold

back 70

B. Approximately double

front 71

After birth, pulmonary vascular resistance primarily:
A. Increases markedly
B. Remains high
C. Decreases greatly
D. Becomes zero

back 71

C. Decreases greatly

front 72

A fivefold fall in lung resistance most directly lowers:
A. Pulmonary arterial pressure
B. Aortic systolic pressure
C. Portal venous pressure
D. Umbilical arterial pressure

back 72

A. Pulmonary arterial pressure

front 73

Immediately after birth, which atrial pressure pattern promotes foramen ovale closure?
A. High RA, low LA
B. Low RA, low LA
C. High RA, high LA
D. Low RA, high LA

back 73

D. Low RA, high LA

front 74

The flap valve over the foramen ovale closes because blood now attempts to flow:
A. RA → LA
B. LA → RA
C. RV → LV
D. LV → RV

back 74

B. LA → RA

front 75

Failure of permanent foramen ovale closure is called:
A. Tetralogy of Fallot
B. Patent ductus arteriosus
C. Patent foramen ovale
D. Atrial septal aneurysm

back 75

C. Patent foramen ovale

front 76

In a patent foramen ovale, the valve stays shut mainly because:
A. RA exceeds LA pressure
B. RA equals LA pressure
C. LA equals RA pressure
D. LA exceeds RA by 2–4

back 76

D. LA exceeds RA by 2–4

front 77

After birth, blood begins to flow through the ductus arteriosus primarily:
A. Aorta → pulmonary artery
B. Pulmonary artery → aorta
C. Vena cava → aorta
D. Aorta → umbilical arteries

back 77

A. Aorta → pulmonary artery

front 78

“Functional closure” of the ductus arteriosus usually occurs within:
A. 1 hour
B. 1 to 3 hours
C. 1 to 8 days
D. 2 to 3 weeks

back 78

C. 1 to 8 days

front 79

Within hours after birth, the ductus arteriosus first:
A. Dilates widely
B. Constricts markedly
C. Becomes fibrotic
D. Shunts LA → RA

back 79

B. Constricts markedly

front 80

Ductus arteriosus closure is promoted by:
A. ↑O2, ↓PGE2 effects
B. ↓O2, ↑PGE2 effects
C. ↑PGE2, ↓SVR
D. ↓O2, ↑SVR

back 80

A. ↑O2, ↓PGE2 effects

front 81

A medication often used to close a PDA is:
A. Alprostadil
B. Furosemide
C. Propranolol
D. Indomethacin

back 81

D. Indomethacin

front 82

The ductus venosus typically closes within:
A. 1 to 8 days
B. 1 to 3 hours
C. 2 to 3 days
D. 1 to 3 months

back 82

B. 1 to 3 hours

front 83

After ductus venosus closure, portal venous pressure rises to about:
A. 2 to 4 mm Hg
B. 25 mm Hg
C. 6 to 10 mm Hg
D. 30 to 40 mm Hg

back 83

C. 6 to 10 mm Hg

front 84

The rise in portal pressure after birth mainly forces blood to flow through:
A. Ductus arteriosus lumen
B. Foramen ovale
C. Umbilical arteries
D. Liver sinuses

back 84

D. Liver sinuses

front 85

del

back 85

del

front 86

Typical neonatal weight change in the first 2–3 days is:
A. 5 to 10% loss
B. 5 to 10% gain
C. 20% gain
D. No measurable change

back 86

A. 5 to 10% loss

front 87

Normal neonatal respiratory rate is closest to:
A. 12 breaths/min
B. 20 breaths/min
C. 60 breaths/min
D. 40 breaths/min

back 87

D. 40 breaths/min

front 88

If ~55% of blood goes through placenta, about how much goes through fetal tissues?
A. About 12%
B. About 25%
C. About 45%
D. About 80%

back 88

C. About 45%

front 89

Average neonatal cardiac output is closest to:
A. 500 mL/min
B. 250 mL/min
C. 1000 mL/min
D. 150 mL/min

back 89

A. 500 mL/min

front 90

Relative to body weight, neonatal output is:
A. One-third adult per kg
B. Same as adult per kg
C. Half adult per kg
D. Twice adult per kg

back 90

D. Twice adult per kg

front 91

First-day neonatal arterial pressure averages:
A. 60/40 mm Hg
B. 70/50 mm Hg
C. 90/60 mm Hg
D. 110/70 mm Hg

back 91

B. 70/50 mm Hg

front 92

Immediately after birth, neonatal WBC count is about:
A. 9,000 per mm³
B. 15,000 per mm³
C. 25,000 per mm³
D. 45,000 per mm³

back 92

D. 45,000 per mm³

front 93

Physiologic anemia of infancy is typical at:
A. 6 to 12 weeks
B. 6 to 12 months
C. 1 to 2 weeks
D. First 72 hours

back 93

A. 6 to 12 weeks

front 94

Physiologic hyperbilirubinemia is most typical during:
A. 6 to 12 weeks
B. 3 to 6 months
C. First 2 weeks
D. After 1 year

back 94

C. First 2 weeks

front 95

The neonate rids bilirubin primarily through the:
A. Placenta
B. Neonate’s liver
C. Neonate’s kidneys
D. Neonate’s lungs

back 95

B. Neonate’s liver

front 96

Early neonatal bilirubin excretion is limited by poor:
A. Renal bilirubin filtration
B. Hepatic bile acid synthesis
C. Albumin bilirubin binding
D. Glucuronic acid conjugation

back 96

D. Glucuronic acid conjugation

front 97

Mild jaundice from physiologic hyperbilirubinemia lasts:
A. 12 to 24 hours
B. 6 to 12 weeks
C. 6 months
D. 1 to 2 weeks

back 97

D. 1 to 2 weeks

front 98

Most important abnormal cause of severe neonatal jaundice:
A. Breast milk jaundice
B. Erythroblastosis fetalis
C. Gilbert syndrome
D. Crigler-Najjar syndrome

back 98

B. Erythroblastosis fetalis

front 99

del

back 99

del

front 100

In erythroblastosis fetalis, the mother becomes:
A. Immunized against Rh factor
B. Tolerant to Rh factor
C. Unable to make antibodies
D. Immunized against ABO antigens

back 100

C. Unable to make antibodies

front 101

del

back 101

del

front 102

Hemolysis in erythroblastosis fetalis releases excess:
A. Glucose
B. Bilirubin
C. Calcium
D. Prothrombin

back 102

B. Bilirubin

front 103

Severe cases can cause fetal death mainly from:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Coagulopathy
D. Lack of adequate RBCs

back 103

D. Lack of adequate RBCs

front 104

Bilirubin is conjugated in the liver with:
A. Glycine
B. Sulfate
C. Glucuronic acid
D. Glutathione

back 104

C. Glucuronic acid

front 105

Neonatal hepatic production of coagulation factors is:
A. Excessive
B. Too little
C. Fully normal
D. Platelet-limited only

back 105

B. Too little

front 106

A neonate struggles with starch digestion due to low:
A. Lactase
B. Trypsin
C. Pancreatic lipase
D. Pancreatic amylase

back 106

D. Pancreatic amylase

front 107

Compared with older children, neonatal fat absorption is:
A. Much higher
B. Somewhat less
C. Complete at birth
D. Absent until weaning

back 107

B. Somewhat less

front 108

Early neonatal liver function makes ____ unstable and low:
A. Chloride
B. Creatinine
C. Glucose
D. Urea

back 108

C. Glucose

front 109

Neonates lose heat readily mainly because of:
A. Low respiratory rate
B. High subcutaneous fat
C. Low cardiac output
D. Large surface area ratio

back 109

D. Large surface area ratio

front 110

Rapid bone ossification increases need for:
A. Iron
B. Calcium
C. Iodine
D. Sodium

back 110

B. Calcium

front 111

Breast milk vitamin supply is adequate unless mother has severe:
A. Vitamin D deficiency
B. Vitamin K deficiency
C. Vitamin C deficiency
D. Folate deficiency

back 111

C. Vitamin C deficiency

front 112

Maternal antibodies reach the fetus mainly via the:
A. Placenta
B. Umbilical arteries
C. Neonatal colon
D. Amniotic fluid

back 112

A. Placenta

front 113

The neonate forms antibodies to a significant extent:
A. By the first day
B. By the first week
C. By the first month
D. Not significantly early on

back 113

D. Not significantly early on

front 114

Maternal antibodies protect the infant for about:
A. 2 weeks
B. 2 years
C. 6 months
D. 6 years

back 114

C. 6 months

front 115

Inherited antibodies are typically insufficient against:
A. Whooping cough
B. Measles
C. Diphtheria
D. Polio

back 115

A. Whooping cough

front 116

For full safety, pertussis immunization is needed within:
A. First 24 hours
B. First month
C. First year
D. First 6 months

back 116

B. First month

front 117

Excess fetal androgen exposure in a female fetus can cause:
A. Turner syndrome
B. Müllerian agenesis
C. Hermaphroditism
D. Androgen insensitivity

back 117

D. Androgen insensitivity

front 118

Maternal antibodies protect against major infections including:
A. Pertussis influenza varicella
B. Diphtheria measles polio
C. RSV rotavirus norovirus
D. Candida HSV toxoplasma

back 118

B. Diphtheria measles polio

front 119

A 2-day-old has breast enlargement with milky discharge; a small subset develop inflammatory mastitis. Most likely cause of the milk secretion is:
A. High neonatal prolactin surge
B. Placental maternal sex hormones
C. Congenital duct obstruction
D. Neonatal hypothyroidism

back 119

B. Placental maternal sex hormones

front 120

A newborn of an untreated diabetic mother is at highest risk for which change?
A. Adrenal cortex hypofunction
B. Thyroid hyposecretion
C. Pancreatic acinar atrophy
D. Islet hypertrophy hyperfunction

back 120

D. Islet hypertrophy hyperfunction

front 121

In this infant (untreated diabetic mother), blood glucose can fall shortly after birth to:
A. Below 20 mg/dL
B. Below 40 mg/dL
C. Below 60 mg/dL
D. Below 100 mg/dL

back 121

A. Below 20 mg/dL

front 122

The most common maternal diabetes type associated with “large babies” is:
A. Maternal type 1 diabetes
B. Maternal type 2 diabetes
C. Maternal hyperthyroidism
D. Maternal adrenal insufficiency

back 122

B. Maternal type 2 diabetes

front 123

The key maternal metabolic feature driving this macrosomia is:
A. Absolute insulin deficiency
B. Autoimmune beta destruction
C. Low placental glucose transfer
D. Insulin resistance hyperinsulinemia

back 123

D. Insulin resistance hyperinsulinemia

front 124

Which best explains how type 2 diabetes increases fetal growth?
A. Fetal hyperinsulinemia plus nutrients
B. Low fetal insulin levels
C. Reduced placental nutrient delivery
D. Low maternal glucose levels

back 124

A. Fetal hyperinsulinemia plus nutrients

front 125

Uncontrolled maternal type 1 diabetes most likely leads to:
A. Macrosomia with low mortality
B. Normal growth normal maturation
C. Stunted growth, impaired maturity, mortality
D. Islet hypertrophy only

back 125

C. Stunted growth impaired maturity mortality

front 126

A neonate is born with hypofunctional adrenal cortices. A likely cause is:
A. Maternal hyperthyroidism exposure
B. Fetal pancreatic hypoplasia
C. Vitamin D excess
D. Agenesis or exhaustion atrophy

back 126

D. Agenesis or exhaustion atrophy

front 127

Maternal hyperthyroidism or excess thyroid hormone therapy most likely causes the infant’s thyroid to be:
A. Temporary thyroid hyposecretion
B. Permanent thyroid absence
C. Cortisol excess state
D. Neonatal hyperthyroidism

back 127

A. Temporary thyroid hyposecretion

front 128

A mother had her thyroid removed before pregnancy; very high gestational thyrotropin occurs. The infant may be born with:
A. Temporary neonatal hypothyroidism
B. Temporary neonatal hyperthyroidism
C. Permanent cretin dwarfism
D. Neonatal adrenal failure

back 128

B. Temporary neonatal hyperthyroidism

front 129

An infant is >2 months premature. Diet should be:
A. Low fat diet
B. High fat cow milk
C. High starch formula
D. Ketogenic diet

back 129

A. Low fat diet

front 130

In premature infants, immature liver function commonly leads to low plasma proteins causing:
A. Hyperproteinemia hypertension
B. Polycythemia jaundice
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Hypoproteinemic edema

back 130

D. Hypoproteinemic edema

front 131

A very premature infant receives high supplemental oxygen and later develops blindness (retrolental fibroplasia). The mechanism is:
A. Retinal ischemia from anemia
B. Lens proteins denature
C. Retinal vessel growth stops
D. Bilirubin stains retina

back 131

C. Retinal vessel growth stops

front 132

Brain mass growth is best described by which pairing (with near-adult size by end year 2)?
A. 55% birth 26% one-year
B. 80% birth 90% one-year
C. 10% birth 30% one-year
D. 26% birth 55% one-year

back 132

D. 26% birth 55% one-year

front 133

True respiration cannot occur in fetal life (no air), but respiratory attempts begin around:
A. Week 4
B. Month 4
C. Month 6
D. End first trimester

back 133

D. End first trimester

front 134

Most reflexes involving spinal cord and brainstem are present by the 3rd–4th month; meanwhile the:
A. Cerebral cortex fully mature
B. Brainstem reflexes; cortex immature
C. Cortex dominates respiration
D. Cortex fully myelinated

back 134

B. Brainstem reflexes; cortex immature

front 135

Myelination of major tracts becomes complete at about:
A. At birth
B. End second year
C. About one year
D. At puberty

back 135

C. About one year

front 136

Meconium late in pregnancy is best described as:
A. Pure fetal urine concentrate
B. Only maternal blood pigments
C. Surfactant with lung proteins
D. Residue mucus; excreted amniotic

back 136

D. Residue mucus; excreted amniotic

front 137

Fetal kidneys begin urine excretion when, and urine makes what fraction of amniotic fluid?
A. First trimester; 10–20%
B. Third trimester; 30–40%
C. Second trimester; 70–80%
D. After birth; 70–80%

back 137

C. Second trimester; 70–80%

front 138

Abnormal fetal kidney development reducing amniotic fluid (and risking fetal death) is called:
A. Polyhydramnios
B. Oligohydramnios
C. Hydronephrosis
D. Ascites

back 138

B. Oligohydramnios

front 139

Half of the 22.5 g fetal calcium accumulation occurs mainly during the:
A. Last four weeks
B. First four weeks
C. Second trimester
D. First trimester

back 139

A. Last four weeks

front 140

Which vitamin mapping is correct for fetal needs?
A. D for RBC; C for nerves
B. K for bones; A for RBC
C. C for RBC; B12 for bones
D. B12, folate, RBC nerves; D bones

back 140

D. B12, folate, RBC nerves; D bones

front 141

The “slightly asphyxiated” state of birth primarily stimulates breathing via:
A. Hyperoxia and alkalosis
B. Hypoglycemia and ketosis
C. Hypocapnia and alkalosis
D. Hypoxia and hypercapnia

back 141

D. Hypoxia and hypercapnia

front 142

The key sensory trigger that supports breathing onset is:
A. Sudden cooling of skin
B. Umbilical venous stretch
C. Fetal swallowing reflex
D. Pupillary light response

back 142

A. Sudden cooling of skin

front 143

During delivery, which event can directly cause fetal hypoxia?
A. Early colonic colonization
B. Increased fetal urine output
C. Umbilical cord compression
D. Maternal vitamin C deficiency

back 143

C. Umbilical cord compression

front 144

Another intrapartum cause of fetal hypoxia is:
A. Premature placental separation
B. Neonatal pancreatic amylase deficiency
C. Excess neonatal surfactant secretion
D. Early ductus venosus closure

back 144

A. Premature placental separation

front 145

Which pair contains only causes of fetal hypoxia during delivery?
A. Maternal fever, uterine relaxation
B. Meconium passage, tachycardia
C. Hyperventilation, cord dilation
D. Uterine contracture, maternal anesthesia

back 145

D. Uterine contracture, maternal anesthesia

front 146

Adults often survive ~4 minutes apneic; neonates may survive apneic for about:
A. 2 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 6 minutes
D. 20 minutes

back 146

B. 10 minutes

front 147

Fluid-filled, collapsed alveoli usually require more than what negative pressure to open initially?
A. 5 mmHg
B. 10 mmHg
C. 25 mmHg
D. 60 mmHg

back 147

C. 25 mmHg

front 148

The first breath is typically strongest, reaching approximately:
A. −25 mmHg
B. −10 mmHg
C. −5 mmHg
D. −60 mmHg

back 148

D. −60 mmHg

front 149

After the initial breaths (with the second breath easier), breathing becomes completely normal by about:
A. 40 minutes
B. 5 minutes
C. 3 hours
D. 1 day

back 149

A. 40 minutes

front 150

A neonate develops respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). Highest-risk groups include premature infants and infants of:
A. Maternal hypothyroidism
B. Diabetic mothers
C. Maternal iron deficiency
D. Maternal hypertension only

back 150

B. Diabetic mothers

front 151

Premature infants tend toward which acid–base status, given high metabolism and kidney immaturity?
A. Acidotic tendency
B. Alkalotic tendency
C. Always normal pH
D. Respiratory alkalosis only

back 151

A. Acidotic tendency

front 152

In neonatal RDS, alveoli may fill with proteinaceous fluid and desquamated cells, termed:
A. Meconium aspiration syndrome
B. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
C. Neonatal pneumonia
D. Hyaline membrane disease

back 152

D. Hyaline membrane disease

front 153

Meaningful surfactant secretion begins mainly during the last:
A. 1 week
B. 6 months
C. First trimester
D. 1 to 3 months

back 153

D. 1 to 3 months

front 154

A key consequence of inadequate surfactant is:
A. Alveolar collapse, pulmonary edema
B. Increased lung compliance
C. Decreased surface tension forces
D. Permanent alveolar hyperinflation

back 154

A. Alveolar collapse, pulmonary edema

front 155

Oxygenated blood entering the right atrium from the IVC is directed mainly through the:
A. Tricuspid valve
B. Pulmonary valve
C. Foramen ovale
D. Coronary sinus

back 155

C. Foramen ovale

front 156

Deoxygenated SVC blood reaches the descending aorta mainly through the:
A. Ductus arteriosus
B. Ductus venosus
C. Foramen ovale
D. Mitral valve

back 156

A. Ductus arteriosus

front 157

In fetal life, pulmonary vessels are relatively constricted mainly because:
A. Aeration induces vasodilation
B. Hypoxia induces vasoconstriction
C. Surfactant causes vasospasm
D. Hypercapnia causes vasodilation

back 157

B. Hypoxia induces vasoconstriction

front 158

After birth, lung aeration/expansion causes pulmonary vessels to:
A. Remain constricted
B. Constrict further
C. Become unresponsive
D. Vasodilate

back 158

D. Vasodilate

front 159

A large fall in pulmonary resistance after birth most directly lowers:
A. Pulmonary arterial, RV, RA pressures
B. Aortic, LV, LA pressures
C. Portal venous pressure only
D. Umbilical arterial pressure only

back 159

A. Pulmonary arterial, RV, RA pressures

front 160

A patent foramen ovale is often clinically minor because:
A. RA pressure keeps it closed
B. LA pressure keeps it closed
C. Aortic pressure seals it shut
D. Pulmonary pressure seals it shut

back 160

B. LA pressure keeps it closed

front 161

A premature infant receives high oxygen and later develops blindness from abnormal retinal vessel changes. This condition is called:
A. Hyaline membrane disease
B. Kernicterus
C. Retrolental fibroplasia
D. Meconium aspiration syndrome

back 161

C. Retrolental fibroplasia