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Patho 10,11,13,14,15

front 1

Blood flow throughout the periphery is regulated by

back 1

the autonomic nervous system

front 2

While in the hospital for management of acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL), a patient develops severe thrombocytopenia. The most appropriate action for this condition is

back 2

Activity restriction

front 3

Which type of leukemia primarily affects children?

back 3

ALL (Acute lymphoid leukemia)

front 4

A serious complication of deep vein thrombosis is

back 4

pulmonary embolus

front 5

Velocity of blood flow is measured in

back 5

Centimeters per second.

front 6

True or False: Seasonal allergic rhinitis is most involved in type II hypersensitivity reactions.

back 6

False

front 7

The principle Ig mediator of type I hypersensitivity reactions is

back 7

IgE.

front 8

Venous obstruction leads to edema because it ________ pressure.

back 8

increases capillary hydrostatic

front 9

The Philadelphia chromosome is a balanced chromosome translocation that forms a new gene called

back 9

bcr-abl.

front 10

When a patient is struck in the eye by a baseball, the result is redness and swelling. This increase in blood flow to a localized area is called

back 10

hyperemia.

front 11

The relationship of blood flow (Q), resistance (R), and pressure (P) in a vessel can be expressed by which equation?

back 11

Q = P/R

front 12

A 5-year-old patient’s parents report loss of appetite and fatigue in their child. The parents also state that the child refuses to walk as a result of pain. The child’s most likely diagnosis is

back 12

ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)

front 13

What is the correct definition of complete remission (CR) of leukemia?

back 13

CR is less than 5% blasts in marrow and normal CBC values.

front 14

A primary effector cell of the type I hypersensitivity response is

back 14

mast cells.

front 15

The hypersensitivity reaction that does not involve antibody production is type

back 15

IV.

front 16

Myasthenia gravis is a type II hypersensitivity disorder that involves

back 16

impaired muscle function.

front 17

Patients with immunodeficiency disorders are usually first identified because they

back 17

develop recurrent infections

front 18

Which form of leukemia demonstrates the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome?

back 18

CML (chronic myeloid leukemia)

front 19

What laboratory finding is usually found in aplastic anemia?

back 19

Pancytopenia

front 20

TRUE/FALSE The anemia resulting from a deficiency of either vitamin B12 (cobalamin) or folate is caused by a disruption in DNA synthesis of the blast cells in the bone marrow that produces very large abnormal bone marrow cells called megaloblasts.

back 20

True

front 21

Pernicious anemia is caused by a lack of

back 21

intrinsic factor.

front 22

Excessive red cell lysis can be detected by measuring the serum

back 22

bilirubin.

front 23

Which vessel normally demonstrates the most rapid blood flow?

back 23

The vena cava

front 24

Red blood cells obtain nearly all their energy from metabolism of

back 24

glucose.

front 25

The conversion of plasminogen to plasmin results in

back 25

fibrinolysis.

front 26

The strength of the bond between oxygen and hemoglobin is known as the

back 26

oxygen-hemoglobin affinity

front 27

A patient is diagnosed with a tortuous blood vessel of the right hand that bleeds spontaneously. This patient presents with

back 27

telangiectasia.

front 28

What is necessary for red blood cell production?

back 28

Iron

front 29

The primary source of erythropoietin is provided by the

back 29

kidney.

front 30

Which causes vasoconstriction?

back 30

Norepinephrine

front 31

An increase in hemoglobin affinity for oxygen occurs with

back 31

shift to the left.

front 32

TRUE/FALSE Vaccination for pneumococcal pneumonia should be performed before 1 year of age in patients with sickle cell anemia.

back 32

False

front 33

Thalassemia may be confused with iron-deficiency anemia, because they are both

back 33

microcytic.

front 34

The final step in clot formation is

back 34

clot retraction.

front 35

A deficiency of von Willebrand factor impairs

back 35

platelet adhesion to injured tissue.

front 36

A low mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) and mean corpuscular volume (MCV) are characteristic of which type of anemia?

back 36

Iron deficiency

front 37

The most appropriate treatment for secondary polycythemia is

back 37

measured to improve oxygenation

front 38

A child with a history of recent strep throat infection develops glomerulonephritis. This is most likely a type
_____ hypersensitivity reaction.

back 38

III

front 39

group of clinical findings describes the typical presentation of ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)?

back 39

Pain in long bones, infection, fever, bruising

front 40

In general, the best prognosis for long-term disease-free survival occurs with

back 40

ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)

front 41

Certain autoimmune diseases are associated with the presence of specific proteins on a person’s cells.
These proteins are called ________ proteins.

back 41

HLA or MHC

front 42

Autologous stem cell transplantation is a procedure in which

back 42

Stem cells are harvested from the patient and then returned to the same patient.

front 43

A 58-year-old woman is seen in the clinic for reports of severe back pain. Her chest x-ray demonstrates
generalized bone demineralization and compression fracture. Blood studies demonstrate elevated calcium
levels. The most likely diagnosis is

back 43

myeloma

front 44

The effects of histamine release include

back 44

increased vascular permeability

front 45

Renal insufficiency is a common complication of which disease?

back 45

myeloma

front 46

A newborn has melena, bleeding from the umbilicus, and hematuria. The newborn most likely experiencing

back 46

vitamin K deficiency bleeding

front 47

A laboratory test finding helpful in confirming the diagnosis of iron-deficiency anemia is

back 47

elevated total iron-binding capacity

front 48

Dysfunction of which organ would lead to clotting factor deficiency?

back 48

Liver

front 49

The strength of the bond between oxygen and hemoglobin is known as the

back 49

oxygen-hemoglobin affinity

front 50

The most appropriate treatment for secondary polycythemia is

back 50

measure to improve oxygenation

front 51

When systemic vascular resistance is decreased, blood flow

back 51

decreases

front 52

A commonly ingested substance associated with prolongation of the bleeding time is

back 52

asprin

front 53

TRUE/FALSE Vaccination for pneumococcal pneumonia should be performed before 1 year of age in patients with sickle
cell anemia.

back 53

False, Vaccination for pneumococcal pneumonia should be performed before 2 years of age in patients with
sickle cell anemia and booster vaccinations given 3 to 5 years later.

front 54

The prothrombin time (PT) and INR (international normalized ratio) measure the integrity of

back 54

extrinsic pathway

front 55

The megakaryocyte is a precursor to

back 55

platelets

front 56

The most effective therapy for anemia associated with kidney failure is

back 56

erythropoietin administration

front 57

Which condition is associated with an elevated reticulocyte count?

back 57

Hemolytic anemia

front 58

What are the two specific immune cells

back 58

T-cells & B-cells

front 59

What are the Non-Specific immune cells

back 59

Eosinophils, monocytes, macrophages, neutrophils, basophils.

front 60

What are the two types of alterations in the immune function

back 60

Excessive Immune response & Deficient immune response.

front 61

Excessive Immune response

back 61

Over-or hyper-functioning of immune system

front 62

Deficient Immune response

back 62

inefective imunne response

front 63

What is autoimmunity?

back 63

The immune system attacks its own tissues.

front 64

What appears to increase the risk of autoimmune disorders?

back 64

MHC gene (HLA)

females at higher risk

front 65

Hypersensitivity describes...

back 65

The mechanism of injury

front 66

True or False

Hypersensitivity and autoimmunity will eventually lead to inflammation.

back 66

True

front 67

Treatment for autoimmunity...

back 67

Individualized immunosuppressive therapy

1. Corticosteroids & Cytotoxins (MTX)

2. Tumor necrosis facto inhibitors

3. Therapeutic Plasmaphersis

front 68

Treatment for Type 1 hypersensitivity include:

back 68

IgE blocker therapy: Inhibits binding of IgE to mast cells; Antihistamines: Block the effects of histamine; Epinephrine: Counter effect of histamine (Epi Pen); Beta-adrenergic: decrease bronchoconstriction; Corticoidsteriods: Decrease inflammation response; Anticholinergics: Block parasympathetic system.

front 69

Malignant transformation of B-cell plasma cells

back 69

Plasma cell myeloma

front 70

Myeloid lineage or Lymphoid lineage?

B cells, T cells, and NK cells.

back 70

Lymphoid lineage

front 71

Myeloid lineage or Lymphoid lineage?

Red blood cells, platelets, monocytes, granulocytes.

back 71

Myeloid lineage

front 72

An example of neoplasms from the myeloid lineage include alterations in:

A. Granulocytes

B. B cells

C. T Cells

D. NKA cells

back 72

A. Granulocytes

front 73

Classification of hematologic neoplasms categories based on...

back 73

The cell type of the neoplasm

front 74

What are the three most common manifestations of Leukemia?

back 74

1. Anemia

2. Thrombocytopenia

3. Leukopenia (neutropenia)

front 75

Main typical symptoms of malignant disorders of white blood cells?

back 75

Recurrent infections and enlarged, non-tender lymph nodes.

front 76

Main treatments for malignant disorders of white blood cells...

back 76

Chemotherapy and Stem cell transplant

front 77

What type of leukemia:

-Adult
-Philadelphia chromosome (Ph+)
- bcr/abl
-High granulocyte count on the CBC
-does not respond well to chemotherapy

back 77

CML (Chronic myeloid leukemia)

front 78

What type of leukemia:

-Abrupt onset

-Adults

-Poor prognosis

back 78

AML (Acute myeloid leukemia)

front 79

What type of leukemia:

-Most common, B cell precursors

-Bone Marrow infiltration: Reduces production of RBC/platlets

-Malignant lymphocytes invade lymphoid tissues and bone marrow-disrupt function

-asymptomatic, Usually found by accident in routine blood examination.

-5% associated with more aggressive T cells.

back 79

CLL (chronic lymphoid leukemia)

front 80

What type of leukemia:

-Primarily in children

-Better prognosis in children than adults

back 80

ALL (Acute lymphoid leukemia)

front 81

Hodgkins or Non-Hodgkin?

B cells/ EB virus/ 20-40ys male/ Contiguous lymphatic pathways/ Cervical nodes/ single node or localized node chain/ 85% 5 yr survival rate

back 81

Hodgkins

front 82

Hodgkins or Non-Hodgkin?

B, T and NK cells/ Burkitt lymphoma, Epstein Barr virus and HIV/ Older male/ Non-predicatable growth/ 50% 5-year survival rate

back 82

Non-Hosgkins

front 83

Associated with Reed-Sternberg cells, Hodgkins or Non Hodgkins?

back 83

Hodgkins

front 84

In Hodgkins, where is the most common site for lymph node enlargement?

back 84

Cervical nodes

front 85

In Non-Hodgkins what are two serious oncological emergencies that can occur

back 85

1. Superior vena cava obstruction

2. Spinal cord compression

front 86

-Most numerous

-4.2-6.2 million cells/mm3

-Buffer blood Ph-Carbonic anhydrase

back 86

Erythrocytes - RBC

front 87

Where is erythropoeitin (EPO) made?

back 87

Kidneys (only) in adults

newborns: LIver and kidneys

front 88

Nutritional requirements for erythropoiesis

back 88

requires adequate amounts of iron, protein, vitamins, and minerals

front 89

What is anemia?

back 89

Deficiency of red cells

front 90

What is polycythemia?

back 90

excess red cells

front 91

Absorption of B12 in the small intestine requires _______ _______, which is produced by the ______ ______ __ __ ________.

back 91

intrinsic factor

parietal cells of the stomach

front 92

Intestinal bacteria convert conjugated bilirubin into urobilinogen; execreted primarily in the stool but also in the urine is apart of what?

back 92

red cell destruction

front 93

What are the compensatory mechanisms to restore tissue oxygenation?

back 93

Increase HR, cardiac output, circulatory rate, and flow to vital organs. Increase in erythropoietin production/activity

SNS (sympathetic nervous system) activation:

Hypertension, HF, dyshythmia

front 94

Low oxygen-carying capacity leads to...

back 94

hypoxia

front 95

Stem cell disorder characterized by the reductio of hematopoietic tissue, fatty marrow replacement, and pancytopenia.

back 95

Aplastic anemia

front 96

Low RBC, WBC, and platelets

back 96

pancytopenia

front 97

How do you diagnosis aplastic anemia?

back 97

Diagnosed with bone marrow biopsy

front 98

Treatment for aplastic anemia

back 98

bone marrow transplantation

front 99

Failure of the renal endocrine function impairs erythropoietin production and bone marrow compensation.

back 99

Anemia of chronic renal failure.

front 100

Treatment for anemia of chronic renal failure

back 100

Diayalis, administration of erythropoietin, replacement of iron, folate and B12

front 101

Disruption in DNA synthesis of blast cells produces megaloblasts (macrocytic).

back 101

Anemia related to vitamin B12 (cobalamin) or folate deficiency

front 102

Due to lack of intrisic factors leading to vitamin B12 deficiency

back 102

Pernicious anemia

front 103

Clinical manifestations of pernicious anemia

back 103

Increase MCV, low RBC, WBC, and platelet count.

megaloblastic dysplasia.

front 104

Most common nutritional deficiency in the world.

back 104

Iron deficiency anemia.

front 105

In which anemia does serum ferritin level decrease

serum iron level decreased,

total iron binding capacity (TIBC) increased.

-microcytic

back 105

iron deficiency anemia

front 106

True or false;

Does iron deficiency cause Pica?

back 106

True

front 107

Treatment for iron deficiency anemia

back 107

Oral administration of ferrous sulfate or IV ferric gluconate (only in severe cases) Used for 4-6months

front 108

Increased RBC destruction (hemolysis) resulting in decreased RBC survival rates.

microcytic

back 108

Thalassemia

front 109

In Thalassemia,

associated with the mutant gene that suppresses the rate of globin chain synthesis

back 109

Autosomal recessive

front 110

term meaning: red blood cell size is smaller than the normal range

back 110

microcytic

front 111

Genetically determined defect of hemoglobin synthesis resulting in hemoglobin instability and insolubility.

back 111

Sickle cell anemia

front 112

Sickle cell anemia causes...

back 112

vascular occlusion

front 113

In what race is sickle cell almost exclusively in?

back 113

Black race

front 114

what cures sickle cell anemia

back 114

stem cell transplant

front 115

Maternal antibodies against Rh+ antigen on fetal RBC not inherited from mother causes...

from Rh incompatibility

back 115

Hemolytic disease of the newborn

front 116

What is the treatment for hemolytic disease of the newborn>

back 116

A standard dose of anti-RH immune globulin (RhoGAm) is given to the mother before or after delivery.

front 117

Initial response to a vascular injury involving the interaction between platelets and the endothelium of the injured vessel is....

back 117

the primary stage of hemostasis

front 118

Involves the formation of a fibrin clot through intrinsic and extrinsic pathways; coagulation

back 118

secondary stage of hemostasis

front 119

clot retraction

back 119

final stage of hemostasis

front 120

What is fibrinolysis?

back 120

Clot dissolution

front 121

When does fibrinolysis occur?

back 121

as fibrin clot is forming

front 122

What is the process of fibrinolysis?

back 122

Plasminogen activators

Plasmin digests fibrinogen and fibrin and inactivates factors V and VIII

front 123

What are critical for hemostasis?

back 123

Ca++ and Vit K

front 124

How do we evaluate primary and secondary hemostasis?

back 124

Laboratory test: CBC; Bleeding time: evaluates the vascular status and platelet function; PT/INR: assesses the extrinsic pathway of coagulation; aPTT assesses the intrinsic pathway.

front 125

In evaluating primary and secondary hemostasis, what does D-dimer reflect?

back 125

fibrinolysis

front 126

Caused by:Bone marrow suppression from chemotherapy; recent immunizations; alcohol ingestion

back 126

Thrombocytopenia

front 127

What is thrombocytopenia

back 127

Low platelet count. Prolonged bleeding time, petechiae, purpura.

front 128

What is the most common coagulation disorder?

back 128

Hemophilia

front 129

In laboratory test for the evaluation of primary and secondary hemostasis what foes PT/INR asses?

back 129

The extrinsic pathway of coagulation

front 130

What results from hemophilia?

back 130

excessive bleeding

front 131

Hemophilia is inherited by....

back 131

x linked recesisve (male dominant)

front 132

Hemophilia A is...

back 132

factor VII deficiency

front 133

Hemophilia B is...

back 133

(Christmas disease) factor IX deficiency

front 134

In hemophilia what is hallmark?

back 134

hemarthrosis

front 135

Autosomal dominant (equally make and female populaiton) caused by excessive bleeding.

back 135

Von Willebrand Disease

front 136

What are the causes of excessive bleeding in Von Willebrand Disease?

back 136

Prolonged bleeding time; prolonged aPTT

Normal platelet count, normal PT/INR

front 137

Acquired hemorrhagic syndrome in which clotting and bleeding occur simultaneouslt

back 137

(DIC) Disseminated Intravascular coagulation

front 138

Causes of DIC

back 138

trauma, malignancy, burns, shock and abruptio placentae

front 139

What happens to fibrinogen levels and platelet count in DIC

back 139

Decreases

front 140

Does bleeding time increase or decrease in DIC?

back 140

Increase

front 141

What happens to PT/INR/aPTT in DIC?

back 141

It is elevated

front 142

What happens to D-dimer/fibrin split products in DIC?

back 142

it is elevated

front 143

Treatment for DIC?

back 143

Fresh frozen plasma, packed RBC, platelets, or cryoprecipitate.

front 144

What is the treatment for hepatic disease?

back 144

Vitamin K administration and Platelet transfusion, fresh frozen plasma or whole/packed blood.

front 145

A stationary blood clot formed within a vessel or a chamber of the heart

back 145

Thrombus

front 146

Treatment for thrombus

back 146

anticoagulant therapy

thrombolytic drugs

surgery to remove thrombus

front 147

In a blood vessel obstruction, the arterial system obstruction manifests as...

back 147

distal ischemia

front 148

in a blood vessel obstruction, the venous system obstruction manifests as...

back 148

edema

front 149

An obstruction that results in reduced flow beyond the obstruction is....

back 149

downstream, ischemia

front 150

An obstruction that results in increased pressure before the obstruction

back 150

upstream, congestion

front 151

A traveling clot is a ....

back 151

embilus

front 152

An embolus leaving L ventricle is

back 152

Ischemia stroke

front 153

An embolus leaving R ventricle

back 153

pulmonary embolus

front 154

Hardening and narrowing in medium and large-sized arteries

back 154

Arteriosclerosis/atherosclerosis

front 155

In Arteriosclerosis/atherosclerosis

________ breach intimal layer; leukocytes and endothelial cells oxidize the lipids producing further damage.

back 155

Low-density lipoproteins

front 156

In Arteriosclerosis/atherosclerosis

Process______ to the arterial intima, initiating an inflammatory response and an increase in the vessel wall permeability.

back 156

initiated by endothelial surface damage.

front 157

In Arteriosclerosis/atherosclerosis

__________ normally confined to the other tunicas, drawn to the intima where they proliferate (hardening)

back 157

Media smooth muscle cells

front 158

In Arteriosclerosis/atherosclerosis

Excess lipid and debris accumulate within vessel wall and coalesce into lipid core.

back 158

Narrowing

front 159

In Arteriosclerosis/atherosclerosis, macrophages engulf the

back 159

lipids; foam cells

front 160

Arteriosclerosis/atherosclerosis, can lead to...

back 160

hypertension, cardiac and renal disease, peripheral arterial disease, stroke and myocardial infraction

front 161

what are nonmodifiable risk factors of Arteriosclerosis/atherosclerosis?

back 161

Age, gender, family history of CAD, ethnicity

front 162

what are modifiable risk factors of Arteriosclerosis/atherosclerosis?

back 162

physical activity, stress and mental health, tobacco usage, hypertension, cholesterol, obesity, glucose intolerance

front 163

Extreme vasoconstriction producing cessation of flow to fingers and toes.

back 163

Raynaud Syndrome

front 164

Localized arterial dilations, bulge otward

back 164

Aneurysms

front 165

Clinical manifestation of aneurysms

back 165

Aortic: sudden severe tearing pain, radiates into back/abdomen, shock

front 166

Classical signs of acute arterial occlusion (6P'S)

back 166

Pallor, paresthesia, paralysis, pain, polar, pulseless

front 167

Treatment for acute arterial occlusion

back 167

Medically and surgically