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Viewing:

Procedures

front 1

Which of the following radiologic procedures requires that a contrast medium be injected into the renal pelvis via a catheter placed within the ureter?

Retrograde urography

Nephrotomography

IVU

back 1

Retrograde urography

front 2

Which of the following statements is (are) correct regarding the parietoacanthial projection (Waters' method) of the skull?

1. The head is rested on the extended chin.

2. The orbitomeatal line (OML) is perpendicular to the (IR).

3. The maxillary antra should be projected above the petrosa.

back 2

1. the head is rested on the extended chin, 3. the maxillary antra should be projected above the petrosa.

front 3

In the RPO position of the cervical spine, which anatomy is demonstrated:

(1) Left intervertebral foramina

(2) Right pedicles

(3) Right intervertebral foramina

(4) Left pedicles

back 3

1. Left intervertebral foramina, 4. Left pedicles

front 4

The bilateral AP "frog leg" position of the femoral neck places the patient in a supine position with the femora:

1- adducted 40 degrees from the horizontal

2- abducted 25 degrees from the vertical

3- abducted 40 degrees from the vertical

back 4

3- abducted 40 degrees from the vertical

front 5

To demonstrate the first two cervical vertebrae in the AP recumbent projection, the patient is positioned so that:

1- A line between the maxillary occlusal plane and the mastoid tip is vertical.

2- The acanthiomeatal line is vertical

3- A line between the mentum and the mastoid tip is vertical.

back 5

1- A line between the maxillary occlusal plane and the mastoid tip is vertical.

front 6

The ideal position for demonstrating polyps and ulcers of the pylorus, duodenal bulb, and C-loop of the duodenum:

PA

Right Lateral

LPO

RAO

back 6

RAO

front 7

Single contrast BE studies are likely to demonstrate:

1- anatomy/tonus

2- mucosa

3- intraluminal lesions

back 7

1- anatomy/tonus

front 8

For the average patient, the CR for a lateral projection of a barium-filled stomach should enter:

1- midway between the mid-coronal line and the anterior abdominal surface

2- Perpendicular to the level of L2

3- at the mid-coronal line at the level of the level of the iliac crest

back 8

1- midway between the mid-coronal line and the anterior abdominal surface

front 9

The junction of articulation between the lambdoidal suture and the squamosal suture exists between what bones?

At the junction of the temporal, parietal, and occipital

At the junction of the occipital, frontal, and temporal

back 9

At the junction of the temporal, parietal, and occipital

front 10

Which of the following projections of the hand places the thumb in an oblique position?

PA oblique, external rotation

PA

Lateral in extension

back 10

PA oblique, external rotation

front 11

Blunting of the costophrenic angles seen on a PA projection of the chest can be an indication of:

1- Ascites

2- Emphysema

3- Pleural Effusion

back 11

3- Pleural Effusion

front 12

Some common mild side effects of intravenous administration of water-soluble iodinated contrast agents include:

1. Flushed feeling

2. Bitter taste

3. Urticaria

back 12

1. Flushed feeling, 2. Bitter taste

front 13

To obtain an exact axial projection of the clavicle, place the patient

1- supine and angle the central ray 15° cephalad.

2- in a lordotic position and direct the central ray at right angles to the coronal plane of the clavicle.

3- supine and angle the central ray 30° caudally.

back 13

2- in a lordotic position and direct the central ray at right angles to the coronal plane of the clavicle.

front 14

A patient is usually required to drink barium sulfate suspension to demonstrate which of the following structures?

1. Esophagus

2. Pylorus

3. Ilium

back 14

1. Esophagus

2. Pylorus

3. Ilium

front 15

Which surface of the forearm must be adjacent to the IR to obtain a lateral projection of the fourth digit/finger with optimal recorded detail?

Medial

back 15

Medial

front 16

To position a patient for a Danelius-Miller axiolateral cross-table projection of the hip:

The knee and the hip of the unaffected leg are flexed and elevated.

back 16

The knee and the hip of the unaffected leg are flexed and elevated.

front 17

Which of the following structures is (are) located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ)?

1. Spleen

2. Gallbladder

3. Hepatic flexure

back 17

2. Gallbladder, 3. Hepatic flexure

front 18

To radiograph an infant for suspected free air within the abdominal cavity, which of the following projections of the abdomen will demonstrate the condition with the least patient exposure?

Left lateral decubitus without grid

back 18

Left lateral decubitus without grid

front 19

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the PA axial projection (Caldwell) of the cranium?

1. The central ray is directed caudally to the OML.

2. The petrous pyramids are projected into the lower third of the orbits

3. The frontal sinuses are visualized

back 19

1. The central ray is directed caudally to the OML.

2. The petrous pyramids are projected into the lower third of the orbits

3. The frontal sinuses are visualized

front 20

Which of the following is a major advantage of the double-contrast UGI examination over the single-contrast UGI?

Small lesions on the mucosa are better demonstrated

back 20

Small lesions on the mucosa are better demonstrated

front 21

The tarsometatarsal joins have Ginglymus ( Hinge) movements?

False

back 21

False

front 22

Which of the following positions will most effectively move the gallbladder away from the vertebrae in an asthenic patient?

LAO

back 22

LAO

front 23

The innominate bone is located in the

pelvis

back 23

pelvis

front 24

What is the position of the stomach in a hypersthenic patient

High and Horizontal

back 24

High and Horizontal

front 25

Which of the following positions/projections is most likely to offer the best visualization of the pulmonary apices?

AP axial lordotic

back 25

AP axial lordotic

front 26

Spondylolysis is the dissolution of a vertebra, such as from aplasia

True

back 26

True

front 27

Which of the following are the most common routine projection/position (s) for demonstration of the sternum?

Right anterior oblique and lateral

back 27

Right anterior oblique and lateral

front 28

A patient presents with a potential intertrochanteric hip fracture. After the technologist has taken an initial AP projection, which of the following is the best way to proceed?

Use a cross-table lateral projection, with the central ray directed perpendicular to the femoral neck

back 28

Use a cross-table lateral projection, with the central ray directed perpendicular to the femoral neck

front 29

Although they are both classified as synovial joints, the hip joint is ______ while sacroiliac joints are ______.

diarthrotic; amphiarthrotic

back 29

diarthrotic; amphiarthrotic

front 30

Which of the following conditions would require an increase in exposure factors?

1. Congestive Heart Failure

2. Pleural Effusion

3. Emphysema

back 30

1. Congestive Heart Failure, 2. Pleural Effusion

front 31

Which of the following sinus groups is best demonstrated with the patient positioned for a parietoacanthial projection (Waters method) with the CR directed through the patient's open mouth?

Sphenoidal

back 31

Sphenoidal

front 32

In what order should the following studies be conducted?

1. Barium Enema

2. Intravenous urogram

3. UGI

back 32

2,1,3

front 33

Which of the following positions would demonstrate the right lumbar zygapophyseal articulations closest to the IR?

RPO

back 33

RPO

front 34

Correct preparation for a patient scheduled for an UGI series is most likely to be

NPO after midnight

back 34

NPO after midnight

front 35

In which of the following conditions is a double-contrast BE essential for the demonstration of the condition?

1. Polyps

2. Colitis

3. Diverticulosis

back 35

1. Polyps, 2. Colitis

front 36

With the patient in PA position and the OML and The CR perpendicular to the IR, the resulting image will demonstrate the petrous pyramids.

completely within the orbits

back 36

completely within the orbits

front 37

Fractures that can be due to trauma, osteoporosis, or metastatic disease could be

1- Stress Fractures

3- Compression Fractures

back 37

1- Stress Fractures

3- Compression Fractures

front 38

The liver is in the

Upper Right Quadrant

back 38

Upper Right Quadrant

front 39

All of the following bones are associated with condyles except the

Fibula

back 39

Fibula

front 40

Visualization of the nasal bones is best demonstrated with a

Lateral Projection of both sides

Parietoacanthial Projection, Waters Method

back 40

Lateral Projection of both sides

Parietoacanthial Projection, Waters Method

front 41

Shoulder arthrography is performed to :

1. evaluate humeral luxation

2. demonstrate complete or partial rotator cuff tear

3. evaluate the glenoid labrum

back 41

2. demonstrate complete or partial rotator cuff tear, 3. evaluate the glenoid labrum

front 42

Which of the following precautions should be observed when radiographing a patient who has sustained a traumatic injury to the hip?

1. When a fracture is suspected, any required manipulation of the affected extremity must be performed by a physician.

2. The axiolateral projection should be avoided.

3. To evaluate the entire region, the pelvis typically is included in the initial examination.

back 42

1. When a fracture is suspected, any required manipulation of the affected extremity must be performed by a physician, 3. To evaluate the entire region, the pelvis typically is included in the initial examination.

front 43

Which is the portion of the alimentary canal where digestion and the absorption of the food occur?

Small Intestine

back 43

Small Intestine

front 44

Where is the center of the IR positioned for the AP abdominal radiograph done in the Upright position?

2 inches above iliac crests

back 44

2 inches above iliac crests

front 45

A 6-year-old patient aspirated a coin. Which bronchus would the coin most likely enter and why?

The right because it is more vertical

back 45

The right because it is more vertical

front 46

Which position will best demonstrate the lumbar intervertebral foramina?

Lateral Position Lumbar Projection

back 46

Lateral Position Lumbar Projection

front 47

Contrast agents that can be used during excretory urography include all of the following except:

Barium Sulfate

back 47

Barium Sulfate

front 48

Which of the following radiographic procedures uses an intrathecal route of introducing a drug or contrast medium?

Myleogram

back 48

Myleogram

front 49

A substance or method used to cleanse the large bowel prior to a barium enema is called

1. a cathartic

2. a cleansing enema

3. a purgative

back 49

1. a cathartic

2. a cleansing enema

3. a purgative

front 50

Which of the following conditions is characterized by "flattening" of the hemidiaphragms?

Emphysema

back 50

Emphysema

front 51

The articular facets of L5-S1 are best demonstrated in a/an:

30° oblique

back 51

30° oblique

front 52

What part of the "Scotty dog," seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine, represents the lumbar transverse process?

Nose

back 52

Nose

front 53

Elements of correct positioning for PA projection of the chest include:

1. weight evenly distributed on feet

2. elevation of the chin

3. shoulders elevated and rolled forward

back 53

1 and 2 only

front 54

Which position of the shoulder demonstrates the lesser tubercle in profile medially?

Internal rotation

back 54

Internal rotation

front 55

When performing the AP projection of the scapula, The central ray should be directed toward a point 2 inches __________ to the Coracoid process

Inferior

back 55

Inferior

front 56

Which of the following examinations involves the introduction of a radiopaque contrast medium through a uterine cannula?

Hysterosalpingogram

back 56

Hysterosalpingogram

front 57

Correct preparation for a patient scheduled for a lower GI series is most likely to be

cathartics and cleansing enemas

back 57

cathartics and cleansing enemas

front 58

Which of the following is/are effective in reducing exposure to sensitive tissues for frontal views during scoliosis examinations?

1. Use of PA position

2. Use of breast shields

3. Use of compensating filtration

back 58

1. Use of PA position

2. Use of breast shields

3. Use of compensating filtration

front 59

Which of the following examinations most likely would be performed to diagnose Wilms' tumor?

IVU

back 59

IVU

front 60

Which of the following is a functional study used to demonstrate the degree of AP motion present in the cervical spine?

Flexion and extension laterals

back 60

Flexion and extension laterals

front 61

In a lateral projection of the nasal bones, the CR is directed

half inch distal to the nasion

back 61

half inch distal to the nasion

front 62

Deoxygenated blood from the head and thorax is returned to the heart by the

superior vena cava

back 62

superior vena cava

front 63

What projection of the calcaneus is obtained with the leg extended, the plantar surface of the foot vertical and perpendicular to the IR, and the CR directed 40 degrees cephalad?

Axial plantodorsal projection

back 63

Axial plantodorsal projection

front 64

With a patient in the PA position and the OML perpendicular to the table, a 15 degree-20 degree caudal angulation would place the petrous ridges in the lower third of the orbit. To achieve the same result in an infant or a small child, it is necessary for the radiographer to modify the angulation to

10 degree-15 degree caudal

back 64

10 degree-15 degree caudal

front 65

A patient unable to extend his or her arm is seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 90 degrees. The CR is directed 45 degrees medially. Which of the following structures will be demonstrated best?

1. Radial head

2. Capitulum

3. Coronoid Process

back 65

1 and 2 only

front 66

Identify the structure that is identify by letter E:

    1. Zygoma
    2. Mandible
    3. Petrous Ridge
    4. Maxillary sinus

back 66

  1. Zygoma

front 67

What is the patient position utilized in this radiograph?

    1. supine
    2. Lateral decubitus
    3. Prone
    4. Erect

back 67

    1. Erect

front 68

In the image below letter B is the?

    1. Right lung
    2. Esophagus
    3. Descending aorta
    4. Heart

back 68

Descending aorta

front 69

Identify the structure that is mark as an letter A

    1. Esophagus
    2. Region of the thyroid gland
    3. Lateral upper airway
    4. Air-filled trachea and larynx

back 69

Air-filled trachea and larynx

front 70

Which of the positions illustrated in Figures A will best demonstrate the lumbar intervertebral foramina?

1- Lateral position lumbar projection

2- Left Anterior Oblique Position

3- Left Posterior Oblique Position

back 70

1- Lateral position lumbar projection