Use the figure to match the following.

• Descending colon
• Anal canal
• Rectum
• Anus
• Sigmoid colon
• Vermiform appendix
• Ascending colon
• Transverse colon
• Cecum

A. Ascending colon

B. Cecum

C. Vermiform appendix

D. Anus

E. Transverse colon

F. Descending colon

G. Sigmoid colon

H. Rectum

I. Anal canal

(p. 869)

The chemical and mechanical processes of food breakdown are called ________.

A. Secretion

B. Digestion

C. Ingestion

D. Absorption

B. Digestion

"Digestion involves a series of steps in which enzymes secreted into the lumen (cavity) of the alimentary canal break down complex food molecules to their chemical building blocks. That is, digestion is a catabolic process" (p. 871)

Explanation:

A, C, and D are incorrect because...

A. Secretion; is not one of the major processes that occur during digestive system activity

C. Ingestion; "Ingestion is taking food into the digestive tract (eating)" (p. 870)

D. Absorption; "Absorption is the passage of digested end products (plus vitamins, minerals, and water) from the lumen of the GI tract through the mucosal cells by active or passive transport into the blood or lymph" (p. 871)

When we ingest large molecules such as lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins, they must undergo catabolic reactions whereby enzymes split these molecules. This series of reactions is called ________.

A. mechanical digestion

B. absorption

C. secretion

D. chemical digestion

D. chemical digestion

"Digestion involves a series of steps in which enzymes secreted into the lumen (cavity) of the alimentary canal break down complex food molecules to their chemical building blocks. That is, digestion is a catabolic process" (p. 871)

Explanation:

A-C are incorrect because...

A. mechanical digestion; ? ; Q - would a gastrointestinal tube (g-tube) be considered as a mechanical process since it bypasses the chemical process by going straight into the stomach or small intestines

B. absorption; "Absorption is the passage of digested end products (plus vitamins, minerals, and water) from the lumen of the GI tract through the mucosal cells by active or passive transport into the blood or lymph" (p. 871)

C. secretion; is not one of the major processes that occur during digestive system activity

Peristaltic waves are ________.

A. churning movements of the gastrointestinal tract

B. segmental regions of the gastrointestinal tract

C. waves of muscular contractions that propel contents from one point to another

D. pendular movements of the gastrointestinal tract

C. waves of muscular contractions that propel contents from one point to another

"Peristalsis, the major means of propulsion, involves alternating waves of contraction and relaxation of muscles in the organ walls" (p. 870)

Explanation:

A, B, and D are incorrect because...

A. churning movements of the gastrointestinal tract; refers to mechanical breakdown (p. 871) #digestivesystemactivity

B. B. segmental regions of the gastrointestinal tract; refers to mechanical breakdown (p. 871) #digestivesystemactivity

D. pendular movements of the gastrointestinal tract; idk which digestive system activity this is referring to.

Chemical digestion reduces large complex molecules to simpler compounds by the process of ________.

A. mastication

B. catabolism

C. fermentation

D. anabolism

B. catabolism

"Digestion involves a series of steps in which enzymes secreted into the lumen (cavity) of the alimentary canal break down complex food molecules to their chemical building blocks. That is, digestion is a catabolic process" (p. 871)

Explanation:

A, C, and D are incorrect because...

A. mastication; "As food enters the mouth, its mechanical breakdown begins with mastication, or chewing" (p. 881)

C. fermentation; refers to a chemical process where molecules (e.g glucose) are broken down anaerobically, meaning w/o oxygen #google

D. anabolism; "Anabolism is the general term for all reactions that build larger molecules or structures from smaller ones, such as the bonding together of amino acids to build proteins" (chapter 24.3)

The major means of propulsion through the alimentary canal is peristalsis.

True

"Peristalsis, the major means of propulsion, involves alternating waves of contraction and relaxation of muscles in the organ walls" (p. 870)

The major means of propelling food through the digestive tract is __________.

A. segmentation

B. peristalsis

C. churning

D. swallowing

B. peristalsis

"Peristalsis, the major means of propulsion, involves alternating waves of contraction and relaxation of muscles in the organ walls" (p. 870)

Explanation:

A, C, and D are incorrect because...

A. segmentation; refers to mechanical breakdown #digestivesystemactivity

C. churning; refers to mechanical breakdown #digestivesystemactivity

"Mechanical breakdown increases the surface area of ingested food, physically preparing it for digestion by enzymes. Mechanical processes include chewing, mixing food with saliva by the tongue, churning food in the stomach, and segmentation (rhythmic local constrictions of the small intestine). Segmentation mixes food with digestive juices and makes absorption more efficient by repeatedly moving different parts of the food mass over the intestinal wall" (p. 871)

D. swallowing; refers to one of the actions made by propulsion; "Propulsion, which moves food through the alimentary canal, includes swallowing, which is initiated voluntarily, and peristalsis, an involuntary process" (p. 870)

Which major process involves the elimination of indigestible substances from the body via the anus?

A. Absorption

B. Defecation

C. Ingestion

D. Mechanical breakdown

B. Defecation

"Defecation eliminates indigestible substances from the body via the anus in the form of feces" (p. 871)

Explanation:

A, C, and D are incorrect because...

A. Absorption; "Absorption is the passage of digested end products (plus vitamins, minerals, and water) from the lumen of the GI tract through the mucosal cells by active or passive transport into the blood or lymph" (p. 871)

C. Ingestion; "Ingestion is taking food into the digestive tract (eating)" (p. 870)

D. Mechanical breakdown; "Mechanical breakdown increases the surface area of ingested food, physically preparing it for digestion by enzymes. Mechanical processes include chewing, mixing food with saliva by the tongue, churning food in the stomach, and segmentation (rhythmic local constrictions of the small intestine)" (p. 871)

Where does the process of segmentation occur?

A. Anus

B. Small intestine

C. Esophagus

D. Stomach

B. Small intestine

"Mechanical breakdown increases the surface area of ingested food, physically preparing it for digestion by enzymes. Mechanical processes include chewing, mixing food with saliva by the tongue, churning food in the stomach, and segmentation (rhythmic local constrictions of the small intestine)" (p. 871)

Explanation:

A, C, and D are incorrect because...

A. Anus-

C. Esophagus-

D. Stomach-

How would you classify chewing food?

A. Mechanical breakdown

B. Digestion

C. Propulsion

D. Ingestion

A. Mechanical breakdown

"Mechanical breakdown increases the surface area of ingested food, physically preparing it for digestion by enzymes. Mechanical processes include chewing, mixing food with saliva by the tongue, churning food in the stomach, and segmentation (rhythmic local constrictions of the small intestine)" (p. 871)

The mechanical and chemical receptors that control digestive activity are located ________.

A. in the oral cavity

B. in the pons and medulla

C. in the glandular tissue that lines the organ lumen

D. in the walls of the tract organs

D. in the walls of the tract organs

"..."

The __________ is the serous membrane that lines the abdominal body wall.

A. mesentery

B. parietal peritoneum

C. visceral peritoneum

D. omenta

B. parietal peritoneum

"The visceral peritoneum covers the external surfaces of most digestive organs and is continuous with the parietal peritoneum that lines the body wall" (p. 872)

Explanation:

A, C, and D are incorrect because...

A. mesentery; "A mesentery is a double layer of peritoneum- a sheet of two serous membrane fused back to back- that extends to the digestive organs from the body wall" (p. 872)

C. visceral peritoneum; "The visceral peritoneum covers the external surfaces of most digestive organs and is continuous with the parietal peritoneum that lines the body wall" (p. 872)

D. omenta; "Some digestive organ mesenteries have specific names (such as omenta), or are called "ligaments" (even though these peritoneal folds are nothing like the fibrous ligaments that connect bones" (p. 872)

Use the figure to match the following.

• Serosa
• Intrinsic nerve plexuses
• Submucosa
• Mucosa
• Muscularis externa

A. Intrinsic nerve plexuses

B. Mucosa

C. Submucosa

D. Muscularis externa

E. Serosa

(p. 873)

Use the figure to match the following.

• Lamina propria
• Myenteric nerve plexus
• Circular muscle
• Muscularis mucosae
• Epithelium
• Submucosal nerve plexus
• Submucosa
• Longitudinal muscle

A. Myenteric nerve plexus

B. Submucosal nerve plexus

C. Epithelium

D. Circular muscle

E. Lamina propria

F. Muscularis mucosae

G. Submucosa

H. Longitudinal muscle

(p. 873)

The peritoneum is the most extensive serous membrane in the body.

True

"The peritoneum of the abdominopelvic cavity is the most extensive of these membranes" (p. 872)

The sheets of peritoneal membrane that hold the digestive tract in place are called ________.

A. mesenteries

B. lamina propria

C. serosal lining

D. mucosal lining

A. mesenteries

"A mesentery is a double layer of peritoneum- a sheet of two serous membrane fused back to back- that extends to the digestive organs from the body wall. Mesenteries have the following functions: they provide routes for blood vessels, lymphatics, and nerves to reach the digestive viscera, they hold organs in place, and they store fat" (p. 872)

Explanation:

B-D are incorrect because...

B. lamina propria;

C. serosal lining;

D. mucosal lining;

From the esophagus to the anal canal, the walls of every organ of the alimentary canal are made up of the same four basic layers. Arrange them in order from the lumen.

A. serosa, mucosa, submucosa, and muscularis externa

B. muscularis externa, serosa, mucosa, and submucosa

C. submucosa, serosa, muscularis externa, and mucosa

D. mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa

D. mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa

(p. 873)

If an incision has to be made in the small intestine to remove an obstruction, the first layer of tissue to be cut is the ________.

A. serosa

B. submucosa

C. muscularis externa

D. mucosa

A. serosa

"The serosa, the outermost layer of the intraperitoneal organs, is the visceral peritoneum" (p. 873)

Explanation:

B-D are incorrect because...

B. submucosa; "The submucosa, just external to the mucosa, is areolar connective tissue containing a rich supply of blood and lymphatic vessels, lymphoid follicles, and nerve fibers that supply the surrounding tissues of the GI tract wall" (p. 873)

C. muscularis externa; "Surrounding the submucosa is the muscularis externa, also simply called the muscularis" (p. 873)

D. mucosa; "The innermost layer is the mucosa, or mucous membrane, a moist epithelial membrane that lines the alimentary canal lumen from mouth to anus" (p. 872)

The lamina propria is composed of ________.

A. dense regular connective tissue

B. loose connective tissue

C. reticular connective tissue

D. dense irregular connective tissue

B. loose connective tissue

"The lamina propria, which underlies the epithelium, is loose areolar connective tissue" (p. 873)

The layer of the digestive tube that contains blood vessels, lymphatic nodules, and a rich supply of elastic fibers is the ________.

A. submucosa

B. mucosa

C. muscularis externa

D. serosa

A. submucosa

"The submucosa, just external to the mucosa, is areolar connective tissue containing a rich supply of blood and lymphatic vessels, lymphoid follicles, and nerve fibers that supply the surrounding tissues of the GI tract wall" (p. 873)

Explanation:

B-D are incorrect because...

B. muscosa; "The innermost layer is the mucosa, or mucous membrane, a moist epithelial membrane that lines the alimentary canal lumen from mouth to anus" (p. 872)

C. muscularis externa; "Surrounding the submucosa is the muscularis externa, also simply called the muscularis" (p. 873)

D. serosa; "The serosa, the outermost layer of the intraperitoneal organs, is the visceral peritoneum" (p. 873)

Which of these is not part of the splanchnic circulation?

A. Inferior vena cava

B. Hepatic portal vein

C. Superior mesenteric artery

D. Celiac artery

A. Inferior vena cava

"The splanchnic circulation includes those arteries that branch off the abdominal aorta to serve the digestive organs and the hepatic portal circulation. The arterial supply- the branches of the celiac trunk that serve the spleen, liver, and stomach, and the mesenteric arteries that serve the small and large intestines -normally receives one-quarter of the cardiac output" (p. 874)

Explanation:

The inferior vena cava has no relationship with the splanchnic circulation.

Use the figure to match the following.

• Mucosa
• Smooth muscle layer
• Duodenal glands found here

A. Mucosa

B. Duodenal glands found here

C. Smooth muscle layer

D. N/A

(p. 873)

Which histological layer of the digestive tract is composed primarily of epithelial tissue?

A. Adventitia

B. Submucosa

C. Lamina propria

D. Mucosa

D. Mucosa

"Except for that of the mouth, esophagus, and anus where it is stratified squamous, the epithelium of the mucosa is a simple columnar epithelium rich in mucus-secreting cells" (p. 873)

Explanation:

A-C are incorrect because...

A. Adventitia; "In the esophagus, which is located in the thoracic instead of the abdominopelvic cavity, the serosa is replaced by an adventitia, ordinary dense connective tissue the binds the esophagus to surrounding structures" (p. 874)

B. Submucosa; "The submucosa, just external to the mucosa, is areolar connective tissue containing a rich supply of blood and lymphatic vessels, lymphoid follicles, and nerve fibers that supply the surrounding tissues of the GI tract wall" (p. 873)

C. Lamina propria; "The lamina propria, which underlies the epithelium, is loose areolar connective tissue" (p. 873)

The __________ circulation includes all of the major abdominal arteries that serve the digestive organs.

A. peritoneal

B. visceral

C. splanchnic

D. hepatic portal

C. splanchnic

"The splanchnic circulation includes those arteries that branch off the abdominal aorta to serve the digestive organs and the hepatic portal circulation" (p. 874)

Explanation:

A, B, and D are incorrect because...

A. peritoneal;

B. visceral;

D. hepatic portal; "The hepatic portal circulation collects nutrient-rich venous blood draining from the digestive viscera and delivers it to the liver" (p. 874)

The innermost tissue layer of the alimentary canal is the __________.

A. submucosa

B. muscularis

C. serosa

D. mucosa

D. mucosa

"The innermost layer is the mucosa, or mucous membrane, a moist epithelial membrane that lines the alimentary canal lumen from mouth to anus" (p. 872)

Explanation:

A-C are incorrect because...

A. submucosa;

B. muscularis;

C. serosa;

The nervous system does not regulate digestive activity.

False

"The nervous system controls digestive activity via both intrinsic controls (involving short reflexes entirely within the enteric nervous system) and extrinsic controls (involving long reflexes)" (p. 875)

Which layer of the alimentary canal is constructed from either stratified squamous or simple columnar epithelium?

A. Mucosa

B. Serosa

C. Submucosa

D. Muscularis externa

A. Mucosa

"More complex than most other mucosae in the body, the typical digestive mucosa consists of three sublayers: a lining epithelium, a lamina propria, and a muscularis mucosae. Except for that of the mouth, esophagus, and anus where it is stratified squamous, the epithelium of the mucosa is a simple columnar epithelium rich in mucus-secreting cells" (p. 873)

Explanation:

B-D are incorrect because...

B. Serosa;

C. Submucosa;

D. Muscularis externa;

Use the figure to match the following.

• Trachea
• Uvula
• Epiglottis
• Hard palate
• Oropharnyx
• Tongue
• Esophagus
• Oral cavity

A. Hard palate

B. Oral cavity

C. Tongue

D. Epiglottis

E. Trachea

F. Uvula

G. Oropharynx

H. Esophagus

(p. 876)

Use the figure to match the following.

• Upper lip
• Gingivae
• Uvula
• Hard palate
• Soft palate
• Lower lip
• Vestibule
• Sublingual fold

A. Gingivae

B. Soft palate

C. Uvula

D. Sublingual fold

E. Lower lip

F. Upper lip

G. Hard palate

H. Vestibule

Use the figure to match the following.

• Gingivae
• Tongue
• Superior labial frenulum
• Inferior labial frenulum
• Palatopharyngeal arch
• Lingual frenulum
• Palatogossal arch

A. Palatoglossal arch

B. Tongue

C. Gingivae

D. Superior labial frenulum

E. Palatopharyngeal arch

F. Lingual frenulum

G. Inferior labial frenulum

(p. 876)

Use the figure to match the following.

• Submandibular duct
• Parotid duct
• Submandibular gland
• Ducts of sublingual gland
• Sublingual gland
• Parotid gland

A. Ducts of sublingual gland

B. Sublingual gland

C. Parotid duct

D. Submandibular gland

E. Parotid gland

F. Submandibular gland

(p. 878)

Dentin anchors the tooth in place.

False

"Dentin, a protein-rich bonelike material, underlies the enamel cap and forms the bulk of a tooth" (p. 880)

Explanation:

The periodontal ligament anchors the tooth in place (p. 880)

What part of the tooth bears the force of chewing?

A. Pulp

B. Cementum

C. Enamel

D. Crown

C. Enamel

"Enamel, a brittle ceramic-like material thick as a dime, directly bears the force of chewing" (p. 880)

Which of the following is true concerning the number and type of permanent teeth?

A. The number of upper permanent teeth is not equal to the number of lower permanent teeth.

B. The number of permanent teeth is always equal to the number of primary teeth.

C. There are 27 permanent teeth, and the first molars are usually the last to emerge.

D. There are 32 permanent teeth, and the wisdom teeth are the last to emerge.

D. There are 32 permanent teeth, and the wisdom teeth are the last to emerge.

"There are usually 32 permanent teeth in a full set, but sometimes the wisdom teeth never erupt or are completely absent" (p. 880)

Which of the following is not true of saliva?

A. Moistens food and aids in compacting of the bolus

B. Cleanses the mouth

C. Dissolves food chemicals so they can be tasted

D. Contains enzymes that begin the breakdown of proteins

D. Contains enzymes that begin the breakdown of proteins

"Saliva:

• Cleanses the mouth
• Dissolves food chemicals so they can be tasted
• Moistens food and help compact it into a bolus
• Contains the enzyme amylase that begins the digestion of starchy food" (p. 877)

The salivary glands are composed of which two types of secretory cells?

A. Cuboidal epithelium and ciliated columnar cells

B. Goblet cells and squamous epithelial cells

C. Parietal cells and glial cells

D. Serous cells and mucous cells

D. Serous cells and mucous cells

"The salivary glands are composed of two types of secretory cells: serous and mucous. Serous cells produce a watery secretion containing enzymes, ions, and a tiny bit of mucin, whereas mucous cells produce mucus, a stringy viscous solution. The parotid and submandibular glands contain mostly serous cells. Buccal glands have approximately equal numbers of serous and mucous cells. The sublingual glands contain mostly mucous cells" (p. 878)

The solutes contained in saliva include ________.

A. only proteases and amylase

B. mucin, lysozyme, electrolytes, salts, and minerals

C. electrolytes, digestive enzyme, mucin, lysozyme, wastes, and IgA

D. only salts and minerals

C. electrolytes, digestive enzyme, mucin, lysozyme, wastes, and IgA

"Saliva protects against microorganisms because it contains:

• IgA antibodies
• Lysozyme, a bacterial enzyme that inhibits bacterial growth in the mouth and may help prevent tooth decay
• Defensins. Besides acting as a local antibiotic, defensins function as cytokines to call defensive cells (lymphocytes, neutrophils , etc.) into the mouth for battle" (p. 879)

The dental formula for an adult is 2-1-2-3. What does the 1 stand for?

A. Premolar tooth

B. Incisor tooth

C. Canine tooth

D. Molar tooth

C. Canine tooth

"Similarly, the permanent dentition [two incisors, one canine, two premolars (PM), and three molars] is 2I, 1C, 2PM, 3M ÷ 2I, 1C, 2PM, 3M x 2 = 32 teeth" (p. 880)

Which of the following are types of papillae on the tongue that contain taste buds?

A. Fungiform, circumvallate, and filiform

B. Fungiform and circumvallate

C. Circumvallate and filiform

D. Palatine and circumvallate

B. Fungiform and circumvallate

"The fungiform papillae, vallate papillae, and foliate papillae house taste buds" (p. 877)

Select the statement that is true concerning primary teeth.

A. There are 20 primary teeth, and by 24 months of age most children have all 20.

B. There are 24 primary teeth, and no new primary teeth appear after 13 months.

C. There are 32 primary teeth, and by 36 months of age, most children have all 32.

D. There are 27 primary teeth, and the molars are permanent.

A. There are 20 primary teeth, and by 24 months of age most children have all 20.

"Additional pairs of teeth erupt at one- to two -month intervals until about 24 months, when all 20 milk teeth have emerged" (p. 879)

Surgical cutting of the lingual frenulum would occur in which part of the body?

A. Esophagus

B. Oral cavity

C. Salivary glands

D. Nasal cavity

B. Oral cavity

"The labia frenulum is a median fold that joins the internal aspect of each lip to the gum" (p. 876)

The primary dentition consists of __________ teeth.

A. 32

B. 20

C. 10

D. 16

B. 20

"Additional pairs of teeth erupt at one- to two -month intervals until about 24 months, when all 20 milk teeth have emerged" (p. 879)

Use the figure to match the following.

• Neck
• Gingival sulcus
• Root canal
• Periodontal ligament
• Cement
• Gingiva
• Dentin
• Root
• Enamel
• Crown

A. Crown

B. Neck

C. Root

D. Enamel

E. Dentin

F. Gingival sulcus

G. Gingiva

H. Cemet

I. Root canal

J. Periodontal ligament

(p. 880)

Use the figure to match the following.

• Canine
• Central incisors
• Second premolar
• Lateral incisors
• First molar
• Wisdom tooth
• Second molar
• First premolar

A. Central incisors

B. Lateral incisors

C. Canine

D. First premolar

E. Second premolar

F. First molar

G. Second molar

H. Wisdom tooth (third molar)

(p. 879)

How many total deciduous teeth are there?

A. 10

B. 20

C. 5

D. 16

B. 20

"Additional pairs of teeth erupt at one- to two -month intervals until about 24 months, when all 20 milk teeth have emerged" (p. 879)

How are wisdom teeth (third molars) classified?

A. Primary teeth

B. Milk teeth

C. Permanent teeth

D. Incisors

C. Permanent teeth

"..."

Which teeth are best suited for cutting or nipping off pieces of food in the permanent dentition?

A. Incisors

B. Premolars (bicupids)

C. Molars

D. Canines

A. Incisors

"The chisel-shaped incisors are adapted for cutting or nipping off pieces of food" (p. 880)

What muscle forms the labia of the mouth?

A. Buccinator

B. Orbicularis oculi

C. Orbicularis oris

D. Zygomaticus

C. Orbicularis oris

"The orbicularis oris muscle forms the fleshly lips; the cheeks are formed largely by the buccinators" (p. 876)

What is the function of the soft palate?

A. The soft palate provides a surface against which the tongue forces food during chewing.

B. The soft palate secures the tongue to the floor of the mouth and limits its posterior movement.

C. The soft palate cleanses the mouth.

D. The soft palate rises reflexively to close off the nasopharynx when swallowing occurs.

D. The soft palate rises reflexively to close off the nasopharynx when swallowing occurs.

"The soft palatine is a mobile fold formed mostly of skeletal muscle that rises reflexively to close off the nasopharynx when we swallow" (p. 877)

What is the opening to the mouth called?

A. Oral vestibule

B. Oral cavity proper

C. Oral orifice

D. Oral cavity

C. Oral orifice

"Its anterior opening is the oral orifice" (p. 876)

Which of the following is NOT a function of saliva?

A. Saliva cleanses the mouth.

B. Saliva contains enzymes that begin the chemical breakdown of proteins.

C. Saliva moistens food and helps compact it into a bolus.

D. Saliva dissolves food chemicals so they can be tasted.

B. Saliva contains enzymes that begin the chemical breakdown of proteins.

"A number of glands associated with the oral cavity secrete saliva. Saliva:

• Cleanses the mouth
• Dissolves food chemicals so they can be tasted
• Moistens food and helps compact it into a bolus
• Contains the enzyme amylase that begins the digestion of starchy foods" (p. 877)

The __________ guards the entry of food into the stomach.

A. cardiac sphincter

B. ileocecal valve

C. diaphragm

D. pyloric sphincter

A. cardiac sphincter

"The cardial orifice is surrounded by the gastroesophageal or cardiac sphincter, which is a physiological sphincter...The muscular diaphragm, which surrounds this sphincter, helps keep it closed when food is not being swallowed" (p. 882-883)

The pharyngeal-esophageal phase of swallowing is involuntary and is controlled by the swallowing center in the thalamus and lower pons.

False

"..."

Which digestive process normally occurs only in the mouth?

A. Mechanical digestion

B. Absorption

C. Ingestion

D. Segmentation

C. Ingestion

"..."

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the stomach?

A. The stomach produces a double-layered coat of alkaline mucus.

B. The stomach has three layers of muscle in the muscularis tunic.

C. The stomach mucosa is folded into rugae.

D. The stomach releases enzymes to digest carbohydrates.

D. The stomach releases enzymes to digest carbohydrates.

"..."

Use the figure to match the following.

• Oblique layer
• Submucosa
• Lamina propria
• Serosa
• Surface epithelium
• Longitudinal layer
• Circular layer
• Muscularis mucosae

A. Surface epithelium

B. Lamina propria

C. Muscularis mucosae

D. Submucosa

E. Circular layer

F. Serosa

G. Oblique layer

H. Longitudinal layer

(p. 886)

Use the figure to match the following.

• Gastric gland
• Parietal cell
• Surface epithelium
• Mucous neck cells
• Gastric pit
• Chief pit
• Enteroendocrine cell

A. Gastric pit

B. Gastric gland

C. Enteroendocrine cell

D. Surface epithelium

E. Mucous neck cells

F. Parietal cell

G. Chief cell

(p. 886)

Pepsinogen is the precursor to the gastric enzyme for protein digestion and is secreted by the parietal cells.

False

"..."

Fats significantly delay the emptying of the stomach.

True

"..."

In addition to storage and mechanical breakdown of food, the stomach ________.

A. initiates protein digestion and denatures proteins

B. is the first site where chemical digestion of starch takes place

C. is the only place where fats are completely digested

D. is the first site where absorption takes place

A. initiates protein digestion and denatures proteins

"..."

Chyme is created in the ________.

A. stomach

B. mouth

C. small intestine

D. esophagus

A. stomach

"..." (p. 885)

Hydrochloric acid is secreted by which of the secretory cells of the stomach?

A. Parietal cells

B. Serous cells

C. Mucous neck cells

D. Chief cells

A. Parietal cells

"..."

Gastrin, histamine, endorphins, serotonin, cholecystokinin, and somatostatin are hormones or paracrines that are released directly into the lamina propria. Which of the following cell types synthesize and secrete these products?

A. Zymogenic cells

B. Parietal cells

C. Enteroendocrine cells

D. Mucous neck cells

C. Enteroendocrine cells

"..."

There are three phases of gastric secretion. The cephalic phase occurs ________.

A. when the meal is excessively high in acids and neutralization is required

B. before food enters the stomach and is triggered by aroma, sight, or thought

C. at the end of a large meal, and the juices secreted are powerful and remain in the GI tract for a long period of time

D. immediately after food enters the stomach, preparing the small intestine for the influx of a variety of nutrients

B. before food enters the stomach and is triggered by aroma, sight, or thought

"..."

Gastrin is a digestive hormone that is responsible for the stimulation of acid secretions in the stomach. These secretions are stimulated by the presence of ________.

A. starches and complex carbohydrates

B. fatty acids

C. protein and peptide fragments

D. simple carbohydrates and alcohols

C. protein and peptide fragments

"..."

Pepsinogen, a digestive enzyme, is secreted by the ________.

A. Brunner's glands

B. chief cells of the stomach

C. goblet cells of the small intestine

D. parietal cells of the duodenum

B. chief cells of the stomach

"..."

Parietal cells of the stomach produce ________.

A. pepsinogen

B. mucin

C. rennin

D. hydrochloric acid

D. hydrochloric acid

"..."

Which of the following is not a phase of gastric secretion?

A. Cephalic

B. Enterogastric

C. Intestinal

D. Gastric

B. Enterogastric

"..."

Which vitamin requires intrinsic factor in order to be absorbed?

A. C

B. A

C. K

D. B₁₂

D. B₁₂

_"..."

Nervous control of gastric secretion is provided by ________.

A. the vagus nerve and enteric plexus

B. the reticulospinal and vestibulospinal tracts

C. the rubrospinal tracts

D. somatic neurons in the spinal cord

A. the vagus nerve and enteric plexus

"..."

Which of the following produce intrinsic factor?

A. Enteroendocrine cells

B. Parietal cells

C. Mucous neck cells

D. Zymogenic cells

B. Parietal cells

"..."

What stomach secretion is necessary for normal hemoglobin production in RBCs?

A. Gastric lipase

B. HCl

C. Pepsinogen

D. Intrinsic factor

D. Intrinsic factor

"..."

Select the correct statement about the regulation of gastric secretion.

A. Gastric secretion is enhanced by very low pH (below a pH of 2).

B. Vagus stimulation of the stomach results in decreased secretion of gastric juice.

C. Gastric secretion can be stimulated before food has entered the mouth.

D. The presence of food in the stomach prevents hormonal control of gastric secretion.

C. Gastric secretion can be stimulated before food has entered the mouth.

"..."

Hormones or paracrines that inhibit gastric secretion include ________.

A. secretin

B. histamine

C. gastrin

D. ACh

A. secretin

"..."

Match the following.

• Secretin
• Gastric inhibitory peptide
• Cholecystokinin
• Gastrin

1. Increases output of pancreatic juice rich in bicarbonate ions.

2. Stimulates insulin release and mildly inhibits HCl production.

3. Increases HCl secretion and stimulates contraction of intestinal muscle.

4. Increases output of enzymatic-rich pancreatic juice.

1. Secretin: Increases output of pancreatic juice rich in bicarbonate ions.

2. Gastric inhibitory peptide: Stimulates insulin release and mildly inhibits HCl production.

3. Gastrin: Increases HCl secretion and stimulates contraction of intestinal muscle.

4. Cholecystokinin: Increases output of enzymatic-rich pancreatic juice.

Which of the following is not a factor that helps create the stomach mucosal barrier?

A. Thick coating of bicarbonate-rich mucus

B. Replacing of damaged epithelial mucosa cells

C. Production of intrinsic factor

D. Tight junctions of epithelial mucosa cells

C. Production of intrinsic factor

"..."

Chief cells ________.

A. produce mucin

B. produce HCl

C. produce pepsinogen

D. produce gastrin

C. produce pepsinogen

"..."

Which of the following is (are) not important as a stimulus in the gastric phase of gastric secretion?

A. Peptides

B. Distention

C. Low acidity

D. Carbohydrates

D. Carbohydrates

"..."

What role of the stomach is essential to life?

A. Production of intrinsic factor

B. Production of VIP

C. Production of chyme

D. Production of hydrochloric acid

A. Production of intrinsic factor

"Despite the obvious benefits of preparing food to enter the intestine, the only stomach function essential to life is secretion of intrinsic factor. Intrinsic factor is required for intestinal absorption of vitamin B₁₂, needed to produce mature erythrocytes (RBC). In its absence, pernicious anemia results" (p. 889)

Notes:

"Pernicious anemia is a decrease in red blood cells that occurs when the intestines cannot properly absorb vitamin B₁₂" -Google

In the __________ phase of gastric secretion, chyme is moved into the duodenum.

A. cephalic

B. reflux

C. intestinal

D. gastric phase

C. intestinal

"The initial stimulatory part of the intestinal phase is set into motion as partially digested food fills the first part (duodenum) of the small intestine...Distension of the duodenum or the presence of acidic, fatty, or hypertonic chyme all trigger both neuronal and hormonal signals to tell the stomach "whoa, enough already...They also prevent a massive influx of chyme from overwhelming the digestive and absorptive capacities of the duodenum by matching the amount of entering chyme to the processing abilities of the small intestine" (p. 891)

The __________ is the last segment of the small intestine.

A. duodenum

B. colon

C. ileum

D. jejunum

C. ileum

"..."

Blood draining from the stomach is more alkaline (basic) than blood that serves the stomach.

True

"..."

Use the figure to match the following.

• Pyloric sphincter
• Pyloric antrum
• Cardia
• Greater curvature
• Fundus
• Lesser curvature
• Body
• Rugae

A. Cardia

B. Fundus

C. Lesser curvature

D. Pyloric sphincter

E. Pyloric antrum

F. Body

G. Rugae

H. Greater curvature

(p. 885)

Which tunic of the stomach is constructed of simple columnar epithelium composed entirely of mucous cells?

A. Submucosa

B. Serosa

C. Muscularis externa

D. Mucosa

D. Mucosa

"Except for that of the mouth, esophagus, and anus where it is stratified squamous, the epithelium of the mucosa is a simple columnar epithelium rich in mucus-secreting cells" (p. 873)

Which mesentery helps tether the stomach to the liver?

A. Fundus

B. Greater omentum

C. Pylorus

D. Lesser omentum

D. Lesser omentum

"The lesser omentum runs from the liver to the lesser curvature of the stomach, where it becomes continuous with the visceral peritoneum covering the stomach" (p. 885)

The mucosa collapses inward when the stomach is empty, forming large folds known as __________.

A. fundus

B. cardia

C. pylorus

D. rugae

D. rugae

"When empty, the stomach collapses inward, throwing its mucosa (and submucosa) into large, longitudinal folds called rugae" (p. 885)

Use the figure to match the following.

• Cystic duct
• Gallbladder
• Common hepatic duct
• Bile duct
• Duodenum
• Pancreatic duct
• Liver
• Pancreas

A. Cystic duct

B. Gallbladder

C. Bile duct

D. Duodenum

E. Liver

F. Common hepatic duct

G. Pancreas

H. Pancreatic duct

(p. 900)

Use the figure to match the following.

• Portal arteriole
• Bile duct
• Portal triad
• Hepatocytes
• Portal venule
• Bile canaliculi
• Central vein

A. Hepatocytes

B. Central vein

C. Bile canaliculi

D. Bile duct

E. Bile duct

F. Portal venule

G. Portal arteriole

H. Portal triad

(p. 896)

The circular folds of the small intestine enhance absorption by causing the chyme to spiral, rather than to move in a straight line, as it passes through the small intestine.

True

"The circular folds are deep, permanent folds of the mucosa and submucosa. Nearly 1 cm tall, these folds force chyme to a spiral through the lumen, slowing its movement and allowing time for full nutrient absorption" (p. 902)

Peyer's patches are found in the submucosa of the distal end of the small intestine.

True

"Peyer's patches are primarily located in the lamina propria but occasionally protrude into the submucosa below. Their increasing abundance towards the distal end of the small intestine reflects the fact that this region contains huge numbers of bacteria that must be prevented from entering the bloodstream" (p. 903)

The digestive function of the liver is to produce bile.

True

"..."

Which hormone causes an increased output of enzyme-rich pancreatic juice and stimulates gallbladder contraction to release bile?

A. Secretin

B. Cholecystokinin

C. Gastric inhibitor peptide

D. Gastrin

B. Cholecystokinin

"..." (p. 888)

The ducts that deliver bile and pancreatic juice from the liver and pancreas, respectively, unite to form the ________.

A. hepatopancreatic ampulla

B. bile canaliculus

C. portal vein

D. pancreatic acini

A. hepatopancreatic ampulla

"..."

The ________ contains lobules with sinusoids (lined with macrophages) that lead to a central venous structure.

A. pancreas

B. liver

C. spleen

D. stomach

B. liver

"..."

The function of the goblet cells is to ________.

A. secrete buffers in order to keep the pH of the digestive tract close to neutral

B. absorb nutrients from digested food and store them for future use

C. produce mucus that protects parts of the digestive organs from the effects of powerful enzymes needed for food digestion

D. provide protection against invading bacteria and other disease-causing organisms that enter the digestive tract in food

C. produce mucus that protects parts of the digestive organs from the effects of powerful enzymes needed for food digestion

"..."

A fluid secreted into the small intestine during digestion that contains cholesterol, emulsification agents, and phospholipids is ________.

A. pancreatic juice

B. bile

C. gastric juice

D. intestinal juice

B. bile

"..." (p. 897)

How are most nutrients absorbed through the mucosa of the intestinal villa?

A. Bulk flow

B. Facilitated diffusion

C. Simple diffusion

D. Active transport driven directly or indirectly by metabolic energy

D. Active transport driven directly or indirectly by metabolic energy

"..."

Chemical digestion in the small intestine involves ________.

A. cholecystokinin (CCK), an intestinal hormone responsible for gallbladder contraction

B. bile salts that help emulsify carbohydrates so that they can be easily digested by enzymatic action

C. secretions from the spleen that contain all enzymes necessary for complete digestion

D. a significant amount of enzyme secretion by the intestinal mucosa

A. cholecystokinin (CCK), an intestinal hormone responsible for gallbladder contraction

"..." (p. )

The ingestion of a meal high in fat content would cause which of the following to occur?

A. This type of food would cause secretion of gastrin to cease, causing digestive upset.

B. Bile would be released from the gallbladder to emulsify the fat in the duodenum.

C. Severe indigestion would occur, caused by the lack of sufficient digestive enzymes.

D. The acid secretions from the stomach would be sufficient to digest this food.

B. Bile would be released from the gallbladder to emulsify the fat in the duodenum.

The function of the hepatic portal circulation is to ________.

A. return glucose to the general circulation when blood sugar is low

B. collect absorbed nutrients for metabolic processing or storage

C. carry toxins to the venous system for disposal through the urinary tract

D. distribute hormones throughout the body

B. collect absorbed nutrients for metabolic processing or storage

The absorptive effectiveness of the small intestine is enhanced by increasing the surface area of the mucosal lining. Which of the following accomplish this task?

A. Plicae circulares, villi, and microvilli

B. Brunner's glands and Peyer Patches

C. The vast array of digestive enzymes

D. The rugae and haustra

A. Plicae circulares, villi, and microvilli

Hepatocytes do not ________.

A. process nutrients

B. detoxify toxic chemicals

C. produce digestive enzymes

D. store fat-soluble vitamins

C. produce digestive enzymes

"..."

Digestion of which of the following would be affected the most if the liver were severely damaged?

A. Carbohydrates

B. Starches

C. Proteins

D. Lipids

D. Lipids

"..."

Which organ of the digestive tract is the body's major digestive organ?

A. Small intestine

B. Large intestine

C. Liver

D. Stomach

A. Small intestine

"..."

What is the major digestive function of the pancreas?

A. Production of digestive enzymes

B. Production of bicarbonate ions

C. Production of insulin

D. Production of glucagon

A. Production of digestive enzymes

"..."

Which of the following is NOT a structural modification of the small intestine to increase surface area?

A. Circular folds

B. Villi

C. Rugae

D. Microvilli

C. Rugae

"..."

Bile is produced by the __________.

A. stomach

B. liver

C. pancreas

D. gallbladder

B. liver

Most digestion and absorption of nutrients occur in the __________.

A. liver

B. stomach

C. large intestine

D. small intestine

D. small intestine

"..."

The liver is able to regenerate even after 50% of its original mass is lost.

True

"..."

Use the figure to match the following.

• Microvilli
• Enteroendocrine cells
• Absorptive cells
• Duodenal gland
• Lacteal
• Villi
• Circular folds

A. Circular folds

B. Villi

C. Absorptive cells

D. Duodenal gland

F. Microvilli

G. Lacteal

H. Enteroendocrine cells

(p. 902)

What structural modification of the small intestine slows the movement of chyme through the lumen?

A. Circular folds

B. Lacteals

C. Villi

D. Microvilli

A. Circular folds

"The circular folds are deep, permanent folds of the mucosa and submucosa. Nearly 1 cm tall, these folds force chyme to spiral through the lumen, slowing its movement and allowing time for nutrient absorption" (p. 902)

Which cell in the small intestine's mucosa is a mucus-secreting cell?

A. Paneth cell

B. Enteroendocrine cell

C. Absorptive cell

D. Goblet cell

D. Goblet cell

"Goblet cells are mucus-secreting cells found in the epithelia of the villi and crypts" (p. 903)

Which cells of the small intestine secrete enterogastrones, such as secretin and cholecystokinin?

A. Enteroendocrine cells

B. Absorptive cells

C. Paneth cells

D. Goblet cells

A. Enteroendocrine cells

"Enteroendocrine cells are the source of the enterogastrones discussed earlier- secretin and cholecystokinin to name two. They are mostly found scattered in the crypts but some are also found in the villi" (p. 903)

Which duct carries bile out of bile ducts in the liver?

A. Bile duct

B. Common hepatic duct

C. Porta hepatis

D. Cystic duct

B. Common hepatic duct

"Bile entering the bile ducts eventually leaves the liver via the common hepatic duct to travel toward the duodenum" (p. 897)

Which component of bile emulsifies fats?

A. Stercobilin

B. Bile salts

C. Bilirubin

D. Cholesterol

B. Bile salts

"..."

Which vessel delivers nutrient-rich blood to the liver from the digestive tract?

A. Central vein

B. Hepatic vein

C. Hepatic portal vein

D. Inferior vena cava

C. Hepatic portal vein

"..."

Which chemical activates the transformation of trypsinogen to trypsin?

A. Carboxypeptidase

B. Amylase

C. Chymotrypsin

D. Enteropeptidase

D. Enteropeptidase

"..."

What is a major function of pancreatic juice?

A. Neutralizing chyme entering the small intestine from the stomach

B. Emulsifying fats by breaking them into smaller pieces

C. Acidifying the contents of the small intestine

D. Acidifying the contents of the stomach

A. Neutralizing chyme entering the small intestine from the stomach

"..."

What triggers the release of secretin from the small intestine?

A. Presence of acidic, fatty chyme in the small intestine

B. Presence of cholecystokinin (CCK) in the small intestine

C. Presence of bile in the small intestine

D. Presence of proteins in chyme entering the small intestine

A. Presence of acidic, fatty chyme in the small intestine

"..."

Use the figure to match the following.

• Sigmoid mesocolon
• Mesentery
• Transverse mesocolon
• Greater omentum

A. Greater omentum

B. Mesentery

C. Transverse mesocolon

D. SIgmoid mesocolon

Use the figure to match the following.

• Lesser omentum
• Parietal peritoneum
• Transverse mesocolon
• Greater omentum
• Visceral peritoneum
• Mesentery

A. Lesser omentum

B. Mesentery

C. Parietal peritoneum

D. Transverse mesocolon

E. Greater omentum

F. Visceral peritoneum

Use the figure to match the following.

• Rectum
• Ileum
• Descending colon
• Cecum
• Anal canal
• Transverse colon
• Ascending colon
• Sigmoid colon

A. Transverse colon

B. Ileum

C. Ascending colon

D. Cecum

E. Rectum

F. Anal canal

G. Sigmoid colon

H. Descending colon

Which of the following is an essential role played by large intestine bacteria?

A. Synthesize vitamin K and B-complex vitamins

B. Absorb bilirubin

C. Synthesize vitamins C and D

D. Produce gas

A. Synthesize vitamin K and B-complex vitamins

Which of the following is not characteristic of the large intestine? It ________.

A. is longer than the small intestine

B. has pocket-like sacs called haustra

C. exhibits external muscular bands called teniae coli

D. does not contain villi

A. is longer than the small intestine

Paneth cells ________.

A. secrete bicarbonate ions

B. secrete enzymes that kill bacteria

C. secrete hormones

D. secrete digestive enzymes

B. secrete enzymes that kill bacteria

Which of the following processes occurs only in the large intestine?

A. Deglutition

B. Absorption

C. Mechanical digestion

D. Defecation

D. Defecation

Which vitamins are made by the bacteria in the large intestine?

A. Vitamins C and D

B. Vitamins A and E

C. B complex and D vitamins

D. B complex and K vitamins

D. B complex and K vitamins

The major function of the large intestine is to __________.

A. absorb nutrients

B. produce vitamins

C. make intrinsic factor

D. absorb water

D. absorb water

__________ can result if food passes too slowly through the large intestine.

A. Constipation

B. Irritable bowel syndrome

C. Colitis

D. Diarrhea

A. Constipation

Bacteria that reside in the large intestine make vitamin K.

True

Use the figure to match the following.

• Appendix
• Haustrum
• Epiploic appendages
• Left colic flexure
• Right colic flexure
• Ileocecal valve
• Teniae coli

A. Right colic flexure

B. Hastrum

C. Ileocecal valve

D. Appendix

E. Left colic flexure

F. Epiploic appendages

G. Teniae coli

(p. )

Which of the following propels food residue over large areas of the colon three to four times a day?

A. Valsalva's maneuver

B. Defecation reflex

C. Haustral contractions

D. Mass movement

D. Mass movement

"..."

What is the function of the bacterial flora that inhabit the large intestine?

A. Bacterial flora release a bicarbonate-rich juice to help neutralize chyme from the stomach.

B. Bacterial flora facilitate nutrient absorption.

C. Bacterial flora synthesize B-complex vitamins and some of the vitamin K needed by the liver.

D. Bacterial flora emulsify fats.

C. Bacterial flora synthesize B-complex vitamins and some of the vitamin K needed by the liver.

"..."

Which of the following is the primary function of the large intestine?

A. Nutrient absorption

B. Mechanical breakdown

C. Defecation

D. Digestion

C. Defecation

"..."

You have just eaten a meal high in complex carbohydrates. Which of the following enzymes will help to digest the meal?

A. Cholecystokinin

B. Trypsin

C. Gastrin

D. Amylase

D. Amylase

The enzymatic breakdown of any type of food molecule is called ________.

A. denatured

B. hydrolysis

C. diffusion

D. active transport

B. hydrolysis

Short-chain triglycerides found in foods such as butterfat molecules in milk are split by a specific enzyme in preparation for absorption. Which of the following enzymes is responsible?

A. Lipase

B. Renin

C. Pepsin

D. Cholecystokinin

A. Lipase

Which of the following enzymes is specific for proteins?

A. Trysin

B. Lipase

C. Dextrinase

D. Amylase

A. Trysin

Select the correct statement about digestive processes.

A. Enterogastrone is a hormone that helps increase gastric motility.

B. Chyme entering the duodenum can decrease gastric motility via the enterogastric reflex.

C. All commonly ingested substances are significantly absorbed by the mucosa of the stomach.

D. Pepsin is an enzyme produced by the stomach for the purpose of starch digestion.

B. Chyme entering the duodenum can decrease gastric motility via the enterogastric reflex.

Match the following.

• Absorption
• Peristalsis
• Hydrolysis
• Digestion

1. Chemical or mechanical process of breaking down foodstuffs into simpler units.

2. Enzymatic breakdown of any type of food molecule.

3. Wavelike smooth muscle contractions that move foodstuffs through the alimentary tube.

4. Process by which simpler chemical units pass through the lumen of the gastrointestinal tract into the blood or lymph.

1. Digestion: Chemical or mechanical process of breaking down foodstuffs into simpler units.

2. Hydrolysis: Enzymatic breakdown of any type of food molecule.

3. Peristalsis: Wavelike smooth muscle contractions that move foodstuffs through the alimentary tube.

4. Absorption: Process by which simpler chemical units pass through the lumen of the gastrointestinal tract into the blood or lymph.

Proteins are digested into __________.

A. Nucleotides

B. Glycerol

C. Amino acids

D. Monosaccharides

C. Amino acids

Which of the following are mismatched?

A. Protease: lipid digestion

B. Lipase: fat digestion

C. Nuclease: DNA and RNA digestion

D. Amylase: carbohydrate digestion

A. Protease: lipid digestion

Select the correct statement about absorption.

A. Amino acid transport is linked to chloride transport.

B. Carbohydrates diffuse across the villus epithelium and are then actively transported into blood capillaries.

C. Eighty percent of ingested materials have been absorbed by the end of the large intestine.

D. If intact proteins are transported across the villus epithelium, an immune response may be generated.

D. If intact proteins are transported across the villus epithelium, an immune response may be generated.

Which part of the digestive system is the major location for absorption of the end products of digestion?

A. Large intestine

B. Small intestine

C. Stomach

D. Liver

B. Small intestine

Which of the following is considered a primary sex organ in females?

A. Mammary glands

B. Uterus

C. Ovary

D. Vagina

C. Ovary

"Although many people think of sex organs as being the external reproductive structures (external genitalia), the primary sex organs are actually the gonads- the testes in males and the ovaries in females" (p. 1042)

Use the figure to match the following.

• Epididymis
• Prostate
• Bulbo-urethral gland
• Ductus deferens
• Ejaculatory duct
• Testis
• Seminal gland
• Scrotum

A. Seminal gland

B. Ejaculatory duct

C. Prostate

D. Bulbo-urethral gland

E. Ductus deferens

F. Scrotum

G. Epididymis

H. Testis

(p. 1047)

Use the figure to match the following.

• Rete testis
• Ductus deferens
• Seminiferous tubule
• Spermatic cord
• Tunica albuginea
• Body of epididymis
• Testis

A. Ductus deferens

B. Rete testis

C. Body of epididymis

D. Seminiferous tubule

E. Spermatic cord

F. Testis

G. Tunica albuginea

(p. 1049)

The male urethra serves the urinary system only.

False

"The urethra is the terminal portion of the male duct system. It transports urine and semen (at different times), so it serves both the urinary and reproductive system" (p. 1050)

A scrotal muscle that contracts in response to cold environmental temperature is the cremaster.

True

"Furthermore, the scrotum is affected by temperature changes. When it is cold, the testes are pulled closer to the warm body wall...Two sets of muscles act to help maintain a fairly constant intrascrotal temperature:

• The dartos muscle, a layer of smooth muscle in the superficial fascia, wrinkles the scrotal skin.
• The cremaster muscles, bands of skeletal muscle that arise from the internal oblique muscles of the trunk, elevate the testes" (p. 1048)

The dartos and cremaster muscles are important to the integrity of the male reproductive system. Which of the following is true about the role they play?

A. They regulate the temperature of the testes

B. They contract to push sperm along the ductus deferens

C. They are responsible for penile erection

D. They contract to allow ejaculation

"Furthermore, the scrotum is affected by temperature changes. When it is cold, the testes are pulled closer to the warm body wall...Two sets of muscles act to help maintain a fairly constant intrascrotal temperature:

• The dartos muscle, a layer of smooth muscle in the superficial fascia, wrinkles the scrotal skin.
• The cremaster muscles, bands of skeletal muscle that arise from the internal oblique muscles of the trunk, elevate the testes" (p. 1048)

The ability of sperm cells to move along the ductus deferens is due to ________.

A. peristaltic contractions

B. enzymatic activity

C. hormonal action

D. gravity

A. peristaltic contractions

"During ejaculation, the smooth muscle in its walls creates strong peristaltic waves that squeeze the sperm forward along the tract and into the urethra" (p. 1050)

Which of the following glands are responsible for about 70% of the volume of semen?

A. The pituitary

B. The seminal glands

C. The bulbo-urethral glands

D. The prostate

B. The seminal glands

"The secretions of the seminal glands, or seminal vesicles, account for some 70% of semen volume" (p. 1052)

How do the testes respond to exposure to excessive body warmth?

A. They move away from the pelvic cavity.

B. Excessive warmth has no effect on the testicles because of their location in the scrotum.

C. Excessive warmth is actually beneficial in that it speeds up the maturation of sperm.

D. They move close to the pelvic cavity.

A. They move away from the pelvic cavity.

"..." confirm with professor about paragraph citation

The cells that produce testosterone in the testis are called ________.

A. interstitial endocrine cells

B. spermatocytes

C. spermatogonia

D. sustenocytes

A. interstitial endocrine cells

"Interstitial endocrine cells, also called Leydig cells, lie in the soft connective tissue surrounding the seminiferous tubules. These cells produce androgens (most importantly testosterone) and small amounts of estrogens, which they secrete into the surrounding interstitial fluid" (p. 1055)

The duct system of the male reproductive system does not include the ________.

A. ductus deferens

B. epididymis

C. urethra

D. corpus spongiosum

D. corpus spongiosum

View figure 27.5 (p. 1047)

Prostate cancer is _______.

A. sometimes a slow-growing cancer that may never represent a threat to the patient

B. often the result of a distortion of the urethra

C. most common in Asians

D. the number-one cause of death in men

A. sometimes a slow-growing cancer that may never represent a threat to the patient

"..." (p. 1053)

It is necessary for the testes to be kept below body temperature for abundant, viable sperm formation.

True

"..." (p. 1048)

The most important risk for testicular cancer in young males is ________.

A. a diet high in fat

B. sexually transmitted infections

C. undescended testes

D. smoking

C. undescended testes

Why are the male testes located in the scrotum outside the body?

A. The testes develop better outside the body.

B. Immature sperm are temperature sensitive.

C. Their external location is necessary for penile development.

D. It helps the male secondary sexual characteristics develop.

B. Immature sperm are temperature sensitive.

Sperm is produced in the __________ of the testes.

A. tunica albuginea

B. myoid cells

C. tunica vaginalis

D. seminiferous tubules

D. seminiferous tubules

Sperm are stored in the __________.

A. seminiferous tubules

B. ductus deferens

C. epididymis

D. ejaculatory duct

C. epididymis

Which of the following does NOT add substances to seminal fluid?

A. Prostate gland

B. Urethra

C. Bulbo-urethral glands

D. Seminal glands

B. Urethra

"..." because its not apart of the accessory glands (p. 1052)

Viable sperm production is optimal at the body's core temperature.

False

"However, because viable sperm cannot be produced in abundance at core body temperature (37°C), the superficial location of the scrotum, which provides a temperature about 3°C lower, is an essential adaptation" (p. 1048)

Use the figure to match the following.

• Ejaculatory duct
• Testis
• Ductus deferens
• Seminal gland
• Epididymis
• Bulbo-urethral gland
• Prostate

A. Prostate

B. Testis

C. Seminal gland

D. Ejaculatory duct

E. Bulbo-urethral gland

F. Ductus deferens

G. Epididymis

(p. 1051)

Use the figure to match the following.

• Body of penis
• Spongy urethra
• Root of penis
• Urinary bladder
• Prostatic urethra
• Intermediate part of urethra
• Prepuce
• Glans penis

A. Urinary bladder

B. Root of penis

C. Body of penis

D. Glans penis

E. Prostatic urethra

F. Intermediate part of urethra

G. Spongy urethra

H. Prepuce

(p. 1051)

Which of the following is the site where sperm are stored until they are ejaculated?

A. Tail of the epididymis

B. Rete testis

C. Seminiferous tubule

D. Body of the epididymis

A. Tail of the epididymis

"The immature sperm pass through the head, the body, and then move into the tail of the epididymis, where they are stored until ejaculation" (p. 1049)

Which cells produce androgens such as testosterone?

A. Sustentocytes (Sertoli cells)

B. Myoid cells

C. Spermatogenic cells

D. Interstitial endocrine (Leydig) cells

D. Interstitial endocrine (Leydig) cells

"Interstitial endocrine cells, also called Leydig cells, lie in the soft connective tissue surrounding the seminiferous tubules. These cells produce androgens (most importantly testosterone) and small amounts of estrogens, which they secrete into the surrounding interstitial fluid" (p. 1055)

Which of the following is housed within the spermatic cord?

A. Seminiferous tubules

B. Epididymis

C. Testicular arteries and veins

D. Rete testis

C. Testicular arteries and veins

"..."

Which portion of the penis is removed through a procedure known as circumcision?

A. Prepuce (foreskin)

B. Bulb of penis

C. Glans penis

D. Crus of the penis

A. Prepuce (foreskin)

"The skin covering the penis is loose, and extends distally around the glans to form a cuff called the prepuce, or foreskin. Sometimes, the foreskin is surgically removed shortly after birth, a procedure called circumcision" (p. 1050)

Which of these male accessory ducts transports both sperm and urine?

A. Epididymis

B. Ductus (vas) deferns

C. Ejaculatory duct

D. Urethra

D. Urethra

"The urethra is the terminal portion of the male duct system. It transports urine and semen (at different times), so it serves both the urinary and reproductive system" (p. 1050)

During vasectomy, what accessory duct is cut as a form of birth control?

A. Ejaculatory duct

B. Epididymis

C. Urethra

D. Ductus (vas) deferens

D. Ductus (vas) deferens

"Some men opt for permanent birth control by having a vasectomy. In this relatively minor operation, the physician makes a small incision into the scrotum and then cuts through and ligates (ties off) or cauterizes each ductus deferens" (p. 1050)

The stage in meiosis where chromosomal exchange takes place is telophase.

False

"..." but where does it occur in? Metaphase?

The secretions of the bulbo-urethral glands neutralize traces of acidic urine in the urethra and serve as a lubricant during sexual intercourse.

True

"The paired bulbo-urethral glands are pea sized...They produce a thick, clear mucus, some of which drains into the spongy urethra where it neutralizes traces of acidic urine. In addition, this mucus lubricates the glans penis when a man becomes sexually excited" (p. 1053)

The molecule that enhances the ability of testosterone to promote spermatogenesis is inhibin.

False

"..." (p. 1058)

The ability of a male to ejaculate is due to the action of ________.

A. the bulbospongiosus muscles

B. parasympathetic nerves

C. the dartos muscle

D. lutenizing hormone

A. the bulbospongiosus muscles

"..." (p. 1054)

Which of the following hormones stimulates the release of anterior pituitary gonadotropins?

A. GnRH

B. FSH

C. LH

D. Testosterone

A. GnRH

"..."

If gametes were diploid like somatic cells, how many chromosomes would the zygote contain?

A. Half the diploid number with no change in development

B. Triple the diploid number, and with every succeeding generation, the chromosome number would continue to triple and normal development would not occur

C. Twice the diploid number, and with every succeeding generation, the chromosome number would continue to double and normal development could not occur

D. There is no relationship between gametes and somatic cells.

C. Twice the diploid number, and with every succeeding generation, the chromosome number would continue to double and normal development could not occur

Human egg and sperm are similar in that ________.

A. they have the same number of chromosomes

B. they have the same degree of motility

C. about the same number of each is produced per month

D. they are about the same size

A. they have the same number of chromosomes

The constancy of the chromosome number from one generation to the next is maintained through ________.

A. meiosis

B. cytokinesis

C. DNA synthesis

D. mitosis

A. meiosis

"..." (p. 1044)

Spermiogenesis involves the ________.

A. movement of sperm in the female genital tract

B. formation of four haploid cells from a spermatogonium

C. sequence of events in the rete testisformation of a functional sperm by the stripping away of superfluous cytoplasm

C. sequence of events in the rete testisformation of a functional sperm by the stripping away of superfluous cytoplasm

"..." (p.)

The testicular cells that construct the blood-testis barrier are the ________.

A. sustenocytes

B. spermatocytes

C. spermatogonia

D. interstitial endocrine cells

A. sustenocytes

"..." (p. 1055, 1056)

Select the correct statement about male sexual response.

A. Expansion of the penile tissues results in dilation of the venous outflow.

B. Erection is the result of vascular spaces in the erectile tissues filling with blood.

C. Ejaculation is the result of parasympathetic stimulation.

D. Sympathetic impulses are responsible for causing penile arteriolar dilation, resulting in erection.

B. Erection is the result of vascular spaces in the erectile tissues filling with blood.

"..."

Which of the choices below is not a function of testosterone?

A. Contributes to male sexual behavior and spermatogenesis

B. Stimulates protein synthesis

C. Stimulates the male pattern of development

D. Stimulates mammary gland development

D. Stimulates mammary gland development

"..."

Why doesn't semen enter the urinary bladder during ejaculation?

A. There is no urge to urinate during sexual intercourse because of the suppression of LH by testosterone buildup in the blood.

B. The smooth muscle sphincter at the base of the urinary bladder closes.

C. Ejaculation is a parasympathetic reflex resulting in no response by urinary contraction muscles.

D. There is no common duct between the reproductive system and the urinary system.

B. The smooth muscle sphincter at the base of the urinary bladder closes.

"..."

The brain-testicular axis ________.

A. is the tight relationship between the cortex and the control of testicular function

B. involves a positive feedback loop control of spermatogenesis

C. involves posterior pituitary release of regulating hormones

D. involves FSH and LH release

D. involves FSH and LH release

"..."

Select the correct statement about testosterone control.

A. The pineal gland is believed to be the gland that exerts the most influence in testosterone control.

B. GnRH from the hypothalamus causes FSH and LH release from the anterior pituitary.

C. FSH stimulates testicular production of testosterone.

D. Inhibin and testosterone exert positive feedback on the hypothalamus and pituitary.

B. GnRH from the hypothalamus causes FSH and LH release from the anterior pituitary.

"..."

A boy who has not passed through puberty sustains an injury to his anterior pituitary such that FSH is no longer released, but LH is normal. After he grows to maturity, one would expect that he would ________.

A. have impaired function of interstitial endocrine cells

B. be sterile

C. not develop secondary sex characteristics

D. be impotent (unable to have an erection)

B. be sterile

"..."

A low secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) in the normal male adult would cause ________.

A. excessive beard growth

B. shrinkage of the anterior pituitary gland

C. decreased testosterone secretion

D. increased spermatogenesis

C. decreased testosterone secretion

"..."

Use the figure to match the following.

• Early spermatids
• Stem cell
• Primary spermatocyte
• First cells with n number of chromosomes
• Type B spermatogonia

A. Stem cell

B. Type B spermatogonia

C. Primary spermatocyte

D. First cells with n number of chromosomes

E. Early spermatids

(p. )

Use the figure to match the following.

• Acrosome
• Location of mitochondria
• Location of nucleus
• Flagellum

A. Flagellum

B. Location of mitochondria

C. Acrosome

D. Location of nucleus

"..."

Why is the blood testis barrier important?

A. Because immature sperm cells lose their motility when they encounter any blood component.

B. because the barrier traps sex hormones, keeping them at a higher level than the blood.

C. Because some blood contents are toxic to the spermatozoa

D. Because spermatozoa and developing cells produce surface antigens that are recognized as foreign by the immune system

D. Because spermatozoa and developing cells produce surface antigens that are recognized as foreign by the immune system

"This barrier prevents the membrane antigens of differentiating sperm from escaping through the basal lamina into the bloodstream where they could activate the immune system" (p. 1058)

Erection of the penis results from ________.

A. a parasympathetic reflex

B. dilation of the veins in the penis

C. parasympathetic activation of the bulbo-urethral glands

D. a sympathetic reflex

A. a parasympathetic reflex

"..." (p. 1054)

Which male hormone inhibits the secretion of FSH?

A. ACTH

B. ICSH

C. Inhibin

D. GnRH

C. Inhibin

"..."

Which of the choices below is not a part of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis?

A. Hypothalamus

B. Interstitial endocrine cells

C. Anterior pituitary gland

D. Thalamus

D. Thalamus

"..."

Which of the following statements about spermatogenesis is not true?

A. Each spermatid forms two sperm.

B. The secondary spermatocytes each form two spermatids.

C. The spermatogonium forms the primary spermatocyte.

D. The primary spermatocyte forms two secondary spermatocytes.

A. Each spermatid forms two sperm.

"..."

Use the figure to match the following.

• Area of compacted DNA
• Midpiece

A. Midpiece

B. Area of compacted DNA

What is the product of spermatogenesis?

A. Capacitation of spermatozoa

B. Formation of haploid spermatozoa

C. Development of the male reproductive organs

D. Formation of semen

B. Formation of haploid spermatozoa

"..."

Which of the following organs is NOT a part of the HPG axis?

A. Hypothalamus

B. Anterior pituitary gland

C. Testis

D. Posterior pituitary gland

D. Posterior pituitary gland

What is the function of the blood testis barrier?

A. To filter out male sex hormones

B. To provide only select nutrients to the developing sperm

C. To prevent activation of the immune system of the male against the developing sperm

D. To ensure that semen only contains sperm and seminal fluid

C. To prevent activation of the immune system of the male against the developing sperm

The number of chromosomes in a human gamete is __________; this is referred to as the __________ chromosome number.

A. 23; haploid

B. 46; diploid

C. 23; diploid

D. 46; haploid

A. 23; haploid

Which of the following occurs during spermiogenesis?

A. Sustentacular cells are produced

B. Sperm are produced

C. Spermatids are produced

D. Spermatogonia are produced

B. Sperm are produced

Enzymes that allow sperm to penetrate the egg are located in the __________ of the sperm cell.

A. acrosome

B. mitochondria

C. tail

D. midpiece

A. acrosome

The release of __________ encourages interstitial endocrine cells to release __________.

A. luteinizing hormone; androgen-binding protein

B. follicle-stimulating hormone; androgen-binding protein

C. luteinizing hormone; testosterone

D. inhibin; testosterone

C. luteinizing hormone; testosterone

Gametes are produced by meiosis.

True

Use the figure to match the following.

• Spermatozoa
• Primary spermatocyte
• Type B daughter cell
• Spermatogonium
• Secondary spermatocytes
• Sustentocyte cell nucleus
• Late spermatids

A. Spermatogonium

B. Type B daughter cell

C. Primary spermatocyte

D. Late spermatids

E. Spermatozoa

F. Sustentocyte cell nucleus

G. Secondary spermatocytes

(p. 1056)

Which of the following inhibits the release of FSH from the anterior pituitary and GnRH from the hypothalamus when the sperm count is high?

A. Estradiol

B. Inhibin

C. Androgen-binding protein (ABP)

D. Luteinizing hormone (LH)

B. Inhibin

Which of the following keeps the concentration of testosterone in the vicinity of the spermatogenic cells high to stimulate spermatogenesis?

A. Inhibin

B. Androgen-binding protein (ABP)

C. GnRH

D. Dihydrotestosterone (DHT)

B. Androgen-binding protein (ABP)

Which hormone promotes the formation of secondary sex characteristics such as the appearance of pubic, axillary, and facial hair, enhanced hair growth on the chest, and a deepening voice?

A. FSH

B. GnRH

C. LH

D. Testosterone

D. Testosterone

Why does meiosis involve two nuclear divisions rather than one, as in mitosis?

A. Meiosis reduces the chromosome number by half.

B. Meiosis creates gametes with double the original chromosome number.

C. Meiosis produces four cells, each with identical chromosomes.

D. Meiosis produces two genetically identical cells through the two nuclear divisions.

A. Meiosis reduces the chromosome number by half.

At what point during meiosis do homologous chromosomes pair up?

A. Metaphase I

B. Anaphase I

C. Prophase I

D. Prophase II

C. Prophase I

During meiosis, what does crossover promote?

A. Crossover promotes a reduction in the number of chromosomes.

B. Crossover promotes increased genetic variability among gametes.

C. Crossover promotes a reduction in the number of cells produced.Crossover promotes the production of genetically identical gametes.

B. Crossover promotes increased genetic variability among gametes.

Which of the following results from spermiogenesis?

A. Spermatogonium or type A daughter cell.

B. Secondary spermatocyte

C. Sperm

D. Spermatid

C. Sperm

Which of the following is the haploid cell produced as a result of meiosis I?

A. Secondary spermatocyte

B. Spermatogonium

C. Type A daughter cell

D. Primary spermatocyte

A. Secondary spermatocyte

Which of the following cells is returned to the basal lamina to continue the pool of dividing germ cells?

A. Secondary spermatocyte

B. Type A daughter cell or spermatogonium

C. Primary spermatocyte

D. Type B daughter cell

B. Type A daughter cell or spermatogonium

Ovarian follicles contain mature eggs.

False

The soft mucosal lining of the uterus is the endometrium.

True

The primary function of the uterus is to ________.

A. receive, retain, and nourish a fertilized ovum

B. synthesize female hormones

C. regulate the ovarian and menstrual cycles

D. protect the ovaries

A. receive, retain, and nourish a fertilized ovum

The structures that receive the ovulated oocyte, providing a site for fertilization, are called the ________.

A. uterine tubes

B. fimbriae

C. infundibula

D. Graafian follicles

A. uterine tubes

Which of the following statements is true concerning the mammary glands of both males and females?

A. The mammary glands are modified sweat glands that are actually part of the integumentary system.

B. The only time hormones target breast tissue is during pregnancy and lactation.

C. Both sexes are equally prone to breast cancer.

D. All lumps identified in breast tissue are malignant.

A. The mammary glands are modified sweat glands that are actually part of the integumentary system.

Which of the following is a correct statement about uterine tubes?

A. The infundibulum is the funnel-shaped region near the ovary.

B. The ampulla is the narrow constricted region.

C. The isthmus is the normal site of fertilization.

D. The mesometrium supports the uterine tubes along their entire length.

A. The infundibulum is the funnel-shaped region near the ovary.

Fertilization generally occurs in the ________.

A. uterus

B. uterine tubes

C. vagina

D. ovary

B. uterine tubes

Which of the choices below is not a function of the vagina?

A. Serves as a passageway for the primary oocyte

B. Receives semen from the penis during sexual intercourse

C. Serves as the birth canal

D. Serves as a passageway for menstrual flow

A. Serves as a passageway for the primary oocyte

Which layer of the uterus is the site for implantation of a fertilized egg?

A. Perimetrium

B. Stratum basalis of the endometrium

C. Stratum functionalis of the endometrium

D. Myometrium

C. Stratum functionalis of the endometrium

Which of the following female sex hormones is most responsible for estrogenic effects?

A. Estradiol

B. Progesterone

C. Estrone

D. Estriol

A. Estradiol

The __________ connects the uterus to the vagina.

A. fallopian tube

B. fimbriae

C. cervix

D. round ligament

C. cervix

The __________, a layer of the endometrium, is shed during each menstruation and is then regenerated by the __________.

A. stratum basalis; stratum functionalis

B. stratum functionalis; stratum basalis

C. stratum functionalis; myometrium

D. myometrium; perimetrium

B. stratum functionalis; stratum basalis

Which of the following is FALSE regarding the vagina of an adult female?

A. The pH of the adult vagina is alkaline.

B. The mucosa of the vagina is stratified squamous epithelium.

C. The vaginal mucosa lacks glands.

D. The vagina is also called the birth canal.

A. The pH of the adult vagina is alkaline.

"..."

The ovaries are situated in the peritoneal cavity flanking the uterus.

True

"..."

The mammary glands are present in both sexes.

True

Use the figure to match the following.

• Body of uterus
• Fimbriae
• Infundibulum
• Round ligament of uterus
• Fundus of uterus
• Isthmus
• Uterine tube
• Ampulla

A. Body of uterus

B. Fundus of uterus

C. Isthmus

D. Ampulla

E. Infundibulum

F. Fimbriae

G. Round ligament of uterus

H. Uterine tube

(p. 1063)

Use the figure to match the following.

• Clitoris
• Labium majus
• Labium minus
• Hymen
• Mons pubis
• Cervix

A. Cervix

B. Hymen

C. Labium majus

D. Mons pubis

E. Clitoris

F. Labium minus

(p. )

Use the figure to match the following.

• Cervix
• Perimetrium
• Vagina
• Internal os
• External os
• Myometrium
• Endometrium
• Cervical canal

A. Internal os

B. Cervical canal

C. Endometrium

D. Cervix

E. Myometrium

F. Perimetrium

G. External os

H. Vagina

(p. 1063)

Use the figure to match the following.

• Vestibule
• Urethral orifice
• Clitoris
• Vaginal orifice
• Labia majora
• Hymen
• Mons pubis
• Labia minora

A. Mons pubis

B. Vestibule

C. Labia majora

D. Vaginal orifice

E. Clitoris

F. Labia minora

G. Urethral orifice

H. Hymen

(p. 1066)

Use the figure to match the following.

• Suspensory ligament
• Uterine tube
• Uterus
• Vagina
• Infundibulum
• Ovary
• Fimbriae

A. Infundibulum

B. Fimbriae

C. Uterus

D. Vagina

E. Suspensory ligament

F. Uterine tube

G. Ovary

(p. 1061)

Use the figure to match the following.

• Areola
• Lactiferous duct
• Nipple
• Lobe
• Suspensory ligament

A. Lobe

B. Lactiferous duct

C. Suspensory ligament

D. Areola

E. Nipple

(p. 1068)

What part of the female duct system is the usual site of fertilization of the ovulated oocyte?

A. Uterine (fallopian) tube (oviduct)

B. Cervical canal

C. Uterus

D. Vagina

A. Uterine (fallopian) tube (oviduct)

"..."

Which layer of the uterine wall is made of smooth muscle?

A. Endometrium

B. Mesometrium

C. Myometrium

D. Perimetrium

C. Myometrium

"..."

Which specific layer of the uterus is shed during menstruation, approximately every 28 days?

A. Mesometrium

B. Stratum functionalis of the endometrium

C. Stratum basalis of the endometrium

D. Myometrium

B. Stratum functionalis of the endometrium

"The endometrium has two chief layers. The functional layer, or stratum functionalis, undergoes cyclic changes in response to blood levels of ovarian hormones and is shed during mensuration (about every 28 days). Stem cells found in the thinner, deeper basal layer, or stratum basalis, form a new functional layer after menstruation ends" (p. 1065)

Specifically, what encloses the vestibule which houses the openings of the urethra and vagina?

A. Fourchette

B. Labia majora

C. Clitoris

D. Labia minora

D. Labia minora

"The labia minora enclose a recess called the vestibule, which contains the external openings of the urethra and the vagina" (p. 1067)

Which structure of the female's external genitalia has erectile tissue like the penis?

A. Mons pubis

B. Clitoris

C. Labia majora

D. Vulva

B. Clitoris

"Just anterior to the vestibule is the clitoris, a small, protruding structure composed largely of erectile tissue, which is homologous to the penis of the male" (p. 1067)

What are the two fatty, hair-covered skin folds that run posteriorly from the mons pubis?

A. Greater vestibular glands

B. Clitoris

C. Labia majora

D. Labia minora

C. Labia majora

"Running posteriorly from the mons pubis are two elongated, hair-covered fatty skin folds, the labia majora" (p. 1067)

The mammary glands belong to which of the following systems?

A. Endocrine system

B. Reproductive system

C. Integumentary system

D. Immune system

C. Integumentary system

What is the pigmented ring of skin situated slightly below the center of each breast?

A. Sebaceous glands

B. Areola

C. Lobe

D. Lactiferous ducts

B. Areola

"Slightly below the center of each breast is a ring of pigmented skin, the areola, which surrounds a central protruding nipple" (p. 1069)

Ovulation occurs near the end of the ovarian cycle.

False

"Ovulation occurs when the ballooning ovary wall ruptures and expels the secondary oocyte, still surrounded by its corona radiata, into the peritoneal cavity" (p. 1074)

The zona pellucida is formed as the follicle becomes a secondary follicle.

True

"When a primordial follicle is recruited, the squamous cells surrounding the primary oocyte grow and become cuboidal cells. The oocyte enlarges. The follicle is now called a primary follicle. At the same time, the oocyte secretes a glycoprotein-rich substance that forms a thick transparent extracellular layer called the zona pellucida" (p. 1073)

In humans, separation of the cells at the two-cell state following fertilization may lead to the production of twins, which in this case would be ________.

A. of different sexes

B. dizygotic

C. identical

D. fraternal

C. identical

"Identical twins can result from the fertilization of a single oocyte by a single sperm, followed by separation of the fertilized egg's daughter cells during early development" (p. 1074)

Effects of estrogen include ________.

A. growth of the larynx

B. growth of the breasts at puberty

C. increased oiliness of the skin

D. deepening of the voice

B. growth of the breasts at puberty

"The estrogen-induced secondary sex characteristics of female include:

• Breast development
• Increasing deposition of subcutaneous fat, especially in the hips and breasts
• Development of a wider and lighter pelvis (adaptations for childbirth)" (p. 1078)

Explanation:

A, C, and D are incorrect because-

A.

C.

D. deepening of the voice; testosterone

Which is not a part of the proliferative phase of the female menstrual cycle?

A. Late in this phase, cervical mucus becomes thin and crystalline

B. Corpus luteum

C. Vesicular follicle growth

D. Development of endometrial cells

B. Corpus luteum

"In this phase, the endometrium rebuilds itself: Under the influence of rising blood levels of estrogens, the basal layer of the endometrium generates a new functional laver. As this new layer thickens, its glands enlarge and its spiral arteries increase in number. Consequently, the endometrium once again becomes velvety, thick, and well vascularized. During this phase, estrogens also induce the endometrial cells to synthesize progesterone receptors, readying them for interaction with progesterone. Normally, cervical mucus is thick and sticky, but rising estrogen levels cause it to thin and form channels that facilitate sperm passage into the uterus. Ovulation occurs at the end of the proliferative stage (day 14) in response to the LH surge from the anterior pituitary" (p. 1076)

During the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle ________.

A. progesterone levels are at their highest

B. LH reaches its highest levels

C. estrogen reaches its highest levels

D. the Graafian follicle forms

A. progesterone levels are at their highest

Normally menstruation occurs when ________.

A. the corpus luteum secretes estrogen

B. blood levels of estrogen and progesterone decrease

C. blood levels of FSH fall off

D. blood levels of estrogen and progesterone increase

B. blood levels of estrogen and progesterone decrease

The basic difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis is that ________.

A. during spermatogenesis two more polar bodies are produced

B. in oogenesis, one mature ovum is produced, and in spermatogenesis four mature sperm are produced from the parent cell

C. the mature ovum is n, while the sperm is 2n

D. spermatogenesis involves mitosis and meiosis, but oogenesis involves meiosis only

B. in oogenesis, one mature ovum is produced, and in spermatogenesis four mature sperm are produced from the parent cell

Occasionally three polar bodies are found clinging to the mature ovum. One came from an unequal division of the ovum, but from where did the other two arise?

A. What you really see are two polar bodies and the sperm that will fertilize the egg.

B. There were originally four polar bodies and one disappeared.

C. The first polar body has also divided to produce two polar bodies.

D. One is an undeveloped primary oocyte that failed to mature.

C. The first polar body has also divided to produce two polar bodies.

Which of the following will occur after ovulation?

A. The corpus luteum prepares to become a corpus albicans.

B. The secretion of anterior pituitary gonadotropins is enhanced.

C. The endometrium enters its secretory phase.

D. The corpus luteum secretes estrogen only.

C. The endometrium enters its secretory phase.