For a newly evolving protist, what would be the advantage of using eukaryote -like cell division rather than binary fission? A) Binary fission would not allow for the formation of new organisms. B) Cell division would allow for the orderly and efficient segregation of multiple linear chromosomes. C) Cell division would be faster than binary fission. D) Cell division allows for lower rates of error per chromosome replication. E) Binary fission would not allow the organism to have complex cells.

B

How do the daughter cells at the end of mitosis and cytokinesis compare with their parent cell when it was in G1 of the cell cycle? A) The daughter cells have half the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of DNA. B) The daughter cells have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA. C) The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA. D) The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and the same amount of DNA. E) The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA.

D

Which term describes two centrosomes arranged at opposite poles of the cell? A) telophase B) anaphase C) prometaphase D) metaphase E) prophase

C

Which term describes centrioles beginning to move apart in animal cells? A) telophase B) anaphase C) prometaphase D) metaphase E) prophase

D

Which is the longest of the mitotic stages? A) telophase B) anaphase C) prometaphase D) metaphase E) prophase

D

Which term describes centromeres uncoupling, sister chromatids separating, and the two new chromosomes moving to opposite poles of the cell? A) telophase B) anaphase C) prometaphase D) metaphase E) prophase

B

If cells in the process of dividing are subjected to colchicine, a drug that interferes with the functioning of the spindle apparatus, at which stage will mitosis be arrested? A) anaphase B) prophase C) telophase D) metaphase E) interphase

D

A cell containing 92 chromatids at metaphase of mitosis would, at its completion, produce two nuclei each containing how many chromosomes? A) 12 B) 16 C) 23 D) 46 E) 92

D

If the cell whose nuclear material is shown in Figure 12.2 continues toward completion of mitosis, which of the following events would occur next? A) cell membrane synthesis B) spindle fiber formation C) nuclear envelope breakdown D) formation of telophase nuclei E) synthesis of chromatids

D

If there are 20 centromeres in a cell at anaphase, how many chromosomes are there in each daughter cell following cytokinesis? A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40 E) 80

B

If the cell whose nuclear material is shown in Figure 12.2 continues toward completion of mitosis, which of the following events would occur next? A) cell membrane synthesis B) spindle fiber formation C) nuclear envelope breakdown D) formation of telophase nuclei E) synthesis of chromatids

D

If there are 20 centromeres in a cell at anaphase, how many chromosomes are there in each daughter cell following cytokinesis? A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40 E) 80

B

If there are 20 chromatids in a cell at metaphase, how many chromosomes are there in each daughter cell following cytokinesis? A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40 E) 80

A

Of the following, the best conclusion concerning the difference between the S phases for beta and gamma is that A) gamma contains more DNA than beta. B) beta and gamma contain the same amount of DNA. C) beta contains more RNA than gamma. D) gamma contains 48 times more DNA and RNA than beta. E) beta is a plant cell and gamma is an animal cell.

A

The best conclusion concerning delta is that the cells A) contain no DNA. B) contain no RNA. C) contain only one chromosome that is very short. D) are actually in the G0 phase. E) divide in the G1 phase.

D

The best conclusion concerning delta is that the cells A) contain no DNA. B) contain no RNA. C) contain only one chromosome that is very short. D) are actually in the G0 phase. E) divide in the G1 phase.

B

If a cell has 8 chromosomes at metaphase of mitosis, how many chromosomes will it have during anaphase? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 8 E) 16

E

Cytokinesis usually, but not always, follows mitosis. If a cell completed mitosis but not cytokinesis, the result would be a cell with A) a single large nucleus. B) high concentrations of actin and myosin. C) two abnormally small nuclei. D) two nuclei. E) two nuclei but with half the amount of DNA.

D

Regarding mitosis and cytokinesis, one difference between higher plants and animals is that in plants A) the spindles contain microfibrils in addition to microtubules, whereas animal spindles do not contain microfibrils. B) sister chromatids are identical, but they differ from one another in animals. C) a cell plate begins to form at telophase, whereas in animals a cleavage furrow is initiated at that stage. D) chromosomes become attached to the spindle at prophase, whereas in animals chromosomes do not become attached until anaphase. E) spindle poles contain centrioles, whereas spindle poles in animals do not.

C

The formation of a cell plate is beginning across the middle of a cell and nuclei are re -forming at opposite ends of the cell. What kind of cell is this? A) an animal cell in metaphase B) an animal cell in telophase C) an animal cell undergoing cytokinesis D) a plant cell in metaphase E) a plant cell undergoing cytokinesis

E

Taxol is an anticancer drug extracted from the Pacific yew tree. In animal cells, taxol disrupts microtubule formation by binding to microtubules and accelerating their assembly from the protein precursor, tubulin. Surprisingly, this stops mitosis. Specifically, taxol must affect A) the fibers of the mitotic spindle. B) anaphase. C) formation of the centrioles. D) chromatid assembly. E) the S phase of the cell cycle.

A

Which of the following are primarily responsible for cytokinesis in plant cells? A) kinetochores B) Golgi-derived vesicles C) actin and myosin D) centrioles and basal bodies E) cyclin-dependent kinase

B

Chromosomes first become visible during which phase of mitosis? A) prometaphase B) telophase C) prophase D) metaphase E) anaphase

C

During which phases of mitosis are chromosomes composed of two chromatids? A) from interphase through anaphase B) from G1 of interphase through metaphase C) from metaphase through telophase D) from anaphase through telophase E) from G2 of interphase through metaphase

E

In which group of eukaryotic organisms does the nuclear envelope remain intact during mitosis? A) seedless plants B) dinoflagellates C) diatoms D) B and C only E) A, B, and C

D

Movement of the chromosomes during anaphase would be most affected by a drug that A) reduces cyclin concentrations. B) increases cyclin concentrations. C) prevents elongation of microtubules. D) prevents shortening of microtubules. E) prevents attachment of the microtubules to the kinetochore.

D

Measurements of the amount of DNA per nucleus were taken on a large number of cells from a growing fungus. The measured DNA levels ranged from 3 to 6 picograms per nucleus. In which stage of the cell cycle was the nucleus with 6 picograms of DNA? A) G0 B) G1 C) S D) G2 E) M

D

A group of cells is assayed for DNA content immediately following mitosis and is found to have an average of 8 picograms of DNA per nucleus. Those cells would have __________ picograms at the end of the S phase and __________ picograms at the end of G2. A) 8; 8 B) 8; 16 C) 16; 8 D) 16; 16 E) 12; 16

D

The somatic cells derived from a single-celled zygote divide by which process? A) meiosis B) mitosis C) replication D) cytokinesis alone E) binary fission

B

Imagine looking through a microscope at a squashed onion root tip. The chromosomes of many of the cells are plainly visible. In some cells, replicated chromosomes are aligned along the center (equator) of the cell. These particular cells are in which stage of mitosis? A) telophase B) prophase C) anaphase D) metaphase E) prometaphase

D

In order for anaphase to begin, which of the following must occur? A) Chromatids must lose their kinetochores. B) Cohesin must attach the sister chromatids to each other. C) Cohesin must be cleaved enzymatically. D) Kinetochores must attach to the metaphase plate. E) Spindle microtubules must begin to depolymerize.

C

Why do chromosomes coil during mitosis? A) to increase their potential energy B) to allow the chromosomes to move without becoming entangled and breaking C) to allow the chromosomes to fit within the nuclear envelope D) to allow the sister chromatids to remain attached E) to provide for the structure of the centromere

B

These Protists are intermediate in what sense? A) They reproduce by binary fission in their early stages of development and by mitosis when they are mature. B) They never coil up their chromosomes when they are dividing. C) They use mitotic division but only have circular chromosomes. D) They maintain a nuclear envelope during division. E) None of them form spindles.

D

What is the most probable hypothesis about these intermediate forms of cell division? A) They represent a form of cell reproduction which must have evolved completely separately from those of other organisms. B) They demonstrate that these species are not closely related to any of the other Protists and may well be a different Kingdom. C) They rely on totally different proteins for the processes they undergo. D) They may be more closely related to plant forms that also have unusual mitosis. E) They show some of the evolutionary steps toward complete mitosis but not all.

E

Which of the following best describes how chromosomes move toward the poles of the spindle during mitosis? A) The chromosomes are ʺreeled inʺ by the contraction of spindle microtubules. B) Motor proteins of the kinetochores move the chromosomes along the spindle microtubules. C) Non-kinetochore spindle fibers serve to push chromosomes in the direction of the poles. D) both A and B E) A, B, and C

B

Which of the following is a function of those spindle microtubules that do not attach to kinetochores? A) maintaining an appropriate spacing among the moving chromosomes B) producing a cleavage furrow when telophase is complete C) providing the ATP needed by the fibers attached to kinetochores D) maintaining the region of overlap of fibers in the cellʹs center E) pulling the poles of the spindles closer to one another

D

Which of the following questions might be answered by such a method? A) How many cells are produced by the culture per hour? B) What is the length of the S phase of the cell cycle? C) When is the S chromosome synthesized? D) How many picograms of DNA are made per cell cycle? E) When do spindle fibers attach to chromosomes?

B

The research team used the setup to study the incorporation of labeled nucleotides into a culture of lymphocytes and found that the lymphocytes incorporated the labeled nucleotide at a significantly higher level after a pathogen was introduced into the culture. They concluded that A) the presence of the pathogen made the experiment too contaminated to trust the results. B) their tissue culture methods needed to be relearned. C) infection causes lymphocytes to divide more rapidly. D) infection causes cell cultures in general to reproduce more rapidly. E) infection causes lymphocyte cultures to skip some parts of the cell cycle.

C

If mammalian cells receive a go-ahead signal at the G1 checkpoint, they will A) move directly into telophase. B) complete the cycle and divide. C) exit the cycle and switch to a nondividing state. D) show a drop in MPF concentration. E) complete cytokinesis and form new cell walls.

B

Cells that are in a nondividing state are in which phase? A) G0 B) G2 C) G1 D) S E) M

A

What causes the decrease in the amount of cyclin at a specific point in the cell cycle? A) an increase in production once the restriction point is passed B) the cascade of increased production once its protein is phosphorylated by Cdk C) the changing ratio of cytoplasm to genome D) its destruction by a process initiated by the activity of its complex with a cyclin E) the binding of PDGF to receptors on the cell surface

D

Which of the following is released by platelets in the vicinity of an injury? A) PDGF B) MPF C) protein kinase D) cyclin E) Cdk

A

Which is a general term for enzymes that activate or inactivate other proteins by phosphorylating them? A) PDGF B) MPF C) protein kinase D) cyclin E) Cdk

C

Fibroblasts have receptors for this substance on their plasma membranes: A) PDGF B) MPF C) protein kinase D) cyclin E) Cdk

A

Which of the following is a protein synthesized at specific times during the cell cycle that associates with a kinase to form a catalytically active complex? A) PDGF B) MPF C) protein kinase D) cyclin E) Cdk

D

Which of the following is a protein maintained at constant levels throughout the cell cycle that requires cyclin to become catalytically active? A) PDGF B) MPF C) protein kinase D) cyclin E) Cdk

E

Which of the following triggers the cellʹs passage past the G2 checkpoint into mitosis? A) PDGF B) MPF C) protein kinase D) cyclin E) Cdk

B

This is the shortest part of the cell cycle: A) G0 B) G1 C) S D) G2 E) M

E

DNA is replicated at this time of the cell cycle: A) G0 B) G1 C) S D) G2 E) M

C

The ʺrestriction pointʺ occurs here: A) G0 B) G1 C) S D) G2 E) M

B

Nerve and muscle cells are in this phase: A) G0 B) G1 C) S D) G2 E) M

A

The cyclin component of MPF is destroyed toward the end of this phase: A) G0 B) G1 C) S D) G2 E) M

E

In the figure above, mitosis is represented by which number? A) I B) II C) III D) IV E) V

D

G1 is represented by which number(s)? A) I and V B) II and IV C) III D) IV E) V

A

Which number represents DNA synthesis? A) I B) II C) III D) IV E) V

B

Which number represents the point in the cell cycle during which the chromosomes are replicated? A) I B) II C) III D) IV E) V

B

MPF reaches its threshold concentration at the end of this stage. A) I B) II C) III D) IV E) V

C

An enzyme that attaches a phosphate group to another molecule is called a A) phosphatase. B) phosphorylase. C) kinase. D) cyclase. E) ATPase.

C

Proteins that are involved in the regulation of the cell cycle, and that show fluctuations in concentration during the cell cycle, are called A) ATPases. B) kinetochores. C) centrioles. D) proton pumps. E) cyclins.

E

The MPF protein complex turns itself off by A) activating a process that destroys cyclin component. B) activating an enzyme that stimulates cyclin. C) binding to chromatin. D) exiting the cell. E) activating the anaphase-promoting complex.

A

A mutation results in a cell that no longer produces a normal protein kinase for the M phase checkpoint. Which of the following would likely be the immediate result of this mutation? A) The cell would prematurely enter anaphase. B) The cell would never leave metaphase. C) The cell would never enter metaphase. D) The cell would never enter prophase. E) The cell would undergo normal mitosis, but fail to enter the next G1 phase.

E

Density-dependent inhibition is explained by which of the following? A) As cells become more numerous, they begin to squeeze against each other, restricting their size and ability to produce control factors. B) As cells become more numerous, the cell surface proteins of one cell contact the adjoining cells and they stop dividing. C) As cells become more numerous, the protein kinases they produce begin to compete with each other, such that the proteins produced by one cell essentially cancel those produced by its neighbor. D) As cells become more numerous, more and more of them enter the S phase of the cell cycle. E) As cells become more numerous, the level of waste products increases, eventually slowing down metabolism.

B

Which of the following is true concerning cancer cells? A) They do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition when growing in culture. B) When they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell cycle. C) They are not subject to cell cycle controls. D) B and C only E) A, B, and C

E

Which of the following describe(s) cyclin-dependent kinase (Cdk)? A) Cdk is inactive, or ʺturned off,ʺ in the presence of cyclin. B) Cdk is present throughout the cell cycle. C) Cdk is an enzyme that attaches phosphate groups to other proteins. D) Both A and B are true. E) Both B and C are true.

E

A particular cyclin called cyclin E forms a complex with a cyclin-dependent kinase called Cdk 2. This complex is important for the progression of the cell from G1 into the S phase of the cell cycle. Which of the following statements is correct? A) The amount of cyclin E is greatest during the S phase. B) The amount of Cdk 2 is greater during G1 compared to the S phase. C) The amount of cyclin E is highest during G1. D) The amount of Cdk 2 is greatest during G1. E) The activity of the cyclin E/Cdk 2 complex is highest during G2.

C

Cells from an advanced malignant tumor most often have very abnormal chromosomes, and often an abnormal total number of chromosomes. Why might this occur? A) Cancer cells are no longer density dependent. B) Cancer cells are no longer anchorage dependent. C) Chromosomally abnormal cells can still go through cell cycle checkpoints. D) Chromosomally abnormal cells still have normal metabolism. E) Transformation introduces new chromosomes into cells.

B

Besides the ability of some cancer cells to overproliferate, what else could logically result in a tumor? A) metastasis B) changes in the order of cell cycle stages C) lack of appropriate cell death D) inability to form spindles E) inability of chromosomes to meet at the metaphase plate

B

Vinblastine is a standard chemotherapeutic drug used to treat cancer. Because it interferes with the assembly of microtubules, its effectiveness must be related to A) disruption of mitotic spindle formation. B) inhibition of regulatory protein phosphorylation. C) suppression of cyclin production. D) myosin denaturation and inhibition of cleavage furrow formation. E) inhibition of DNA synthesis.

A

A particular cell has half as much DNA as some other cells in a mitotically active tissue. The cell in question is most likely in A) G1 B) G2. C) prophase. D) metaphase. E) anaphase.

A

One difference between cancer cells and normal cells is that cancer cells A) are unable to synthesize DNA. B) are arrested at the S phase of the cell cycle. C) continue to divide even when they are tightly packed together. D) cannot function properly because they are affected by density-dependent inhibition. E) are always in the M phase of the cell cycle.

C

The decline of MPF activity at the end of mitosis is due to A) the destruction of the protein kinase Cdk. B) decreased synthesis of cyclin. C) the degradation of cyclin. D) synthesis of DNA. E) an increase in the cellʹs volume-to-genome ratio.

C

The drug cytochalasin B blocks the function of actin. Which of the following aspects of the cell cycle would be most disrupted by cytochalasin B? A) spindle formation B) spindle attachment to kinetochores C) DNA synthesis D) cell elongation during anaphase E) cleavage furrow formation

E

In the cells of some organisms, mitosis occurs without cytokinesis. This will result in A) cells with more than one nucleus. B) cells that are unusually small. C) cells lacking nuclei. D) destruction of chromosomes. E) cell cycles lacking an S phase.

A

Which of the following does not occur during mitosis? A) condensation of the chromosomes B) replication of the DNA C) separation of sister chromatids D) spindle formation E) separation of the spindle poles

B

ch 13

..

1) What is a genome? A) The complete complement of an organism's genes B) A specific set of polypeptides within each cell C) A specialized polymer of four different kinds of monomers D) A specific segment of DNA that is found within a prokaryotic chromosome E) An ordered display of chromosomes arranged from largest to smallest

A

2) Which of the following statements about genes is incorrect? A) Genes correspond to segments of DNA. B) Many genes contain the information needed for cells to synthesize enzymes and other proteins. C) During fertilization, both the sperm and the ovum contribute genes to the resulting fertilized egg. D) One gene only is used in a specific cell type. E) Genetic differences can result from changes in the DNA called mutations.

D

3) Asexual reproduction and sexual reproduction differ in all but which of the following ways? A) Individuals reproducing asexually transmit 100% of their genes to their progeny, whereas individuals reproducing sexually transmit only 50%. B) Asexual reproduction produces offspring that are genetically identical to the parents, whereas sexual reproduction gives rise to genetically distinct offspring. C) Asexual reproduction involves a single parent, whereas sexual reproduction involves two. D) Asexual reproduction requires only mitosis, whereas sexual reproduction always involves meiosis. E) Asexual reproduction is utilized only by fungi and protists, whereas sexual reproduction is utilized only by plants and animals.

E

5) Asexual reproduction results in identical offspring unless which of the following occurs? A) Natural selection B) Cloning C) Crossing over D) Mutation E) Environmental change

D

The human genome is minimally contained in which of the following? A) Every human cell B) Each human chromosome C) The entire DNA of a single human D) The entire human population E) Each human gene

A

7) A gene's location along a chromosome is known as which of the following? A) Allele B) Sequence C) Locus D) Variant E) Trait

C

8) What is a karyotype? A) The set of unique physical characteristics that define an individual B) The collection of all the mutations present within the genome of an individual C) The combination of chromosomes found in a gamete D) A system of classifying cell nuclei E) A display of every pair of homologous chromosomes within a cell, organized according to size and shape

E

) At which stage of mitosis are chromosomes usually photographed in the preparation of a karyotype? A) Prophase B) Metaphase C) Anaphase D) Telophase E) Interphase

B

10) The human X and Y chromosomes A) are both present in every somatic cell of males and females alike. B) are of approximately equal size and number of genes. C) are almost entirely homologous, despite their different names. D) include genes that determine an individual's sex. E) include only genes that govern sex determination

D

11) Which of the following is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n = 16? A) The species is diploid with 32 chromosomes per cell. B) The species has 16 sets of chromosomes per cell. C) Each cell has 8 homologous pairs. D) During the S phase of the cell cycle there will be 32 separate chromosomes. E) A gamete from this species has 4 chromosomes.

C

12) Eukaryotic sexual life cycles show tremendous variation. Of the following elements, which do all sexual life cycles have in common? I. Alternation of generations II. Meiosis III. Fertilization IV. Gametes V. Spores A) I, IV, and V B) I, II, and IV C) II, III, and IV D) II, IV, and V E) All of the above

C

13) Which of these statements is false? A) In humans, each of the 22 maternal autosomes has a homologous paternal chromosome. B) In humans, the 23rd pair, the sex chromosomes, determines whether the person is female (XX) or male (XY). C) Single, haploid (n) sets of chromosomes in ovum and sperm unite during fertilization, forming a diploid (2n), single-celled zygote. D) At sexual maturity, ovaries and testes produce diploid gametes by meiosis. E) Sexual life cycles differ with respect to the relative timing of meiosis and fertilization.

D

14) In animals, meiosis results in gametes, and fertilization results in A) spores. B) gametophytes. C) zygotes. D) sporophytes. E) clones.

C

15) Referring to a plant sexual life cycle, which of the following terms describes the process that leads directly to the formation of gametes? A) Sporophyte meiosis B) Gametophyte mitosis C) Gametophyte meiosis5 D) Sporophyte mitosis E) Alternation of generations

B

(Refer to figure 13.1 in test bank) 17) Which of the life cycles is typical for animals? A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) I and III

A

(Refer to figure 13.1 in test bank) 18) Which of the life cycles is typical for plants and some algae? A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) I and III

C

20) In part III of Figure 13.1, the progression of events corresponds to which of the following series? A) Zygote, mitosis, gametophyte, mitosis, fertilization, zygote, mitosis B) Sporophyte, meiosis, spore, mitosis, gametophyte, mitosis, gametes, fertilization C) Fertilization, mitosis, multicellular haploid, mitosis, spores, sporophyte D) Gametophyte, meiosis, zygote, spores, sporophyte, zygote E) Meiosis, fertilization, zygote, mitosis, adult, meiosis

B

21) In a life cycle such as that shown in part III of Figure 13.1, if the zygote's chromosome number is 10, which of the following will be true? A) The sporophyte's chromosome number per cell is 10 and the gametophyte's is 5. B) The sporophyte's chromosome number per cell is 5 and the gametophyte's is 10. C) The sporophyte and gametophyte each have 10 chromosomes per cell. D) The sporophyte and gametophyte each have 5 chromosomes per cell. E) The sporophyte and gametophyte each have 20 chromosomes per cell.

A

22) The karyotype of one species of primate has 48 chromosomes. In a particular female, cell division goes awry and she produces one of her eggs with an extra chromosome (25). The most probable source of this error would be a mistake in which of the following? A) Mitosis in her ovary B) Metaphase I of one meiotic event C) Telophase II of one meiotic event D) Telophase I of one meiotic event E) Either anaphase I or II

E

23) A given organism has 46 chromosomes in its karyotype. We can therefore conclude which of the following?7 A) It must be human. B) It must be a primate. C) It must be an animal. D) It must be sexually reproducing. E) Its gametes must have 23 chromosomes.

E

25) A karyotype results from which of the following? A) A natural cellular arrangement of chromosomes in the nucleus B) An inherited ability of chromosomes to arrange themselves C) The ordering of human chromosome images D) The cutting and pasting of parts of chromosomes to form the standard array E) The separation of homologous chromosomes at metaphase I of meiosis

C

26) After telophase I of meiosis, the chromosomal makeup of each daughter cell is A) diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid. B) diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids. C) haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid. D) haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids. E) tetraploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids.

D

27) How do cells at the completion of meiosis compare with cells that have replicated their DNA and are just about to begin meiosis? A) They have twice the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of DNA. B) They have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA. C) They have the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA. D) They have half the number of chromosomes and one-fourth the amount of DNA. E) They have half the amount of cytoplasm and twice the amount of DNA.

D

29) Tetrads of chromosomes are aligned at the equator of the spindle; alignment determines independent assortment. A) Prophase E) Prophase II B) Metaphase I F) Metaphase II C) Anaphase I G) Anaphase II D) Telophase I H) Telophase II

B

30) Synapsis of homologous pairs occurs; crossing over may occur. A) Prophase E) Prophase II B) Metaphase I F) Metaphase II C) Anaphase I G) Anaphase II D) Telophase I H) Telophase II

A

31) Centromeres of sister chromatids disjoin and chromatids separate. A) Prophase E) Prophase II B) Metaphase I F) Metaphase II C) Anaphase I G) Anaphase II D) Telophase I H) Telophase II

G

32) Which of the following happens at the conclusion of meiosis I? A) Homologous chromosomes are separated. B) The chromosome number per cell is conserved. C) Sister chromatids are separated. D) Four daughter cells are formed. E) The sperm cells elongate to form a head and a tail end.

A

(Refer to figure 13.2 in test bank) 33) Which diagram represents prophase I of meiosis? A) I B) II C) IV D) V E) VI

C

34) A cell divides to produce two daughter cells that are genetically different. A) The statement is true for mitosis only. B) The statement is true for meiosis I only. C) The statement is true for meiosis II only. D) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I. E) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II.

B

35) Homologous chromosomes synapse and crossing over occurs. A) The statement is true for mitosis only. B) The statement is true for meiosis I only. C) The statement is true for meiosis II only. D) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I. E) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II.

B

36) Chromatids are separated from each other. A) The statement is true for mitosis only. B) The statement is true for meiosis I only. C) The statement is true for meiosis II only. D) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I. E) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II.

E

(Refer to figure 13.3 in test bank) 39) If the cells were from a plant, which sample might represent a gametophyte cell? A) I B) II C) III D) Either I or II E) Either II or III

C

(Refer to figure 13.3 in test bank) 40) Which sample of DNA might be from a nerve cell arrested in G0 of the cell cycle? A) I B) II C) III D) Either I or II E) Either II or III

A

(Refer to figure 13.3 in test bank) 41) Which sample might represent an animal cell in G2 phase of the cell cycle? A) I B) II C) III D) Both I and II E) Both II and III

B

42

(Refer to figure 13.3 in test bank) 42) Which sample might represent a sperm cell? A) I B) II C) III D) Either I or II E) Either II or III

C

44) Which of the steps take place in both mitosis and meiosis? A) 2 B) 3 C) 5 D) 2 and 3 only E) 2, 3, and 5

B

45) Which of the following occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis? A) Chromosome replication B) Synapsis of chromosomes C) Production of daughter cells D) Alignment of chromosomes at the equator E) Condensation of chromatin

B

46) If an organism is diploid and a certain gene found in the organism has 18 known alleles (variants), then any given organism of that species can/must have which of the following? A) At most, 2 alleles for that gene B) Up to 18 chromosomes with that gene C) Up to 18 genes for that trait D) A haploid number of 9 chromosomes E) Up to, but not more than, 18 different traits

A

49) A tetrad includes which of the following sets of DNA strands? A) Two single-stranded chromosomes that have synapsed B) Two sets of sister chromatids that have synapsed C) Four sets of sister chromatids D) Four sets of unique chromosomes E) Eight sets of sister chromatids.

B

(Refer to figure 13.4 in test bank) 50) A certain female's chromosomes 12 both have the blue gene and chromosomes 19 both have the long gene. As cells in her ovaries undergo meiosis, her resulting eggs (ova) may have which of the following? A) Either two chromosomes 12 with blue genes or two with orange genes B) Either two chromosomes 19 with long genes or two with short genes C) Either one blue or one orange gene in addition to either one long and one short gene D) One chromosome 12 with one blue gene and one chromosome 19 with one long gen

D

53) Chiasmata are what we see under a microscope that let us know which of the following is occurring? A) Asexual reproduction B) Meiosis II C) Anaphase II D) Crossing over E) Separation of homologs

D

55) For a species with a haploid number of 23 chromosomes, how many different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes are possible for the gametes?14 A) 23 B) 46 C) 460 D) 920 E) About 8 million

E

ch 14

..

1) What do we mean when we use the terms monohybrid cross and dihybrid cross?

A) A monohybrid cross involves a single parent, whereas a dihybrid cross involves two parents.
B) A monohybrid cross produces a single progeny, whereas a dihybrid cross produces two progeny.
C) A dihybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for two characters and a monohybrid cross involves only one.
D) A monohybrid cross is performed for one generation, whereas a dihybrid cross is performed for two generations.
E) A monohybrid cross results in a 9:3:3:1 ratio whereas a dihybrid cross gives a 3:1 ratio.

C

2) Why did the F₁ offspring of Mendel's classic pea cross always look like one of the two parental varieties?
A) No genes interacted to produce the parental phenotype.
B) Each allele affected phenotypic expression.
C) The traits blended together during fertilization.
D) One phenotype was completely dominant over another.
E) Different genes interacted to produce the parental phenotype.

D

4) How many unique gametes could be produced through independent assortment by an individual with the genotype AaBbCCDdEE?
A) 4
B) 8
C) 16
D) 32
E) 64

B

5) The individual with genotype AaBbCCDdEE can make many kinds of gametes. Which of the following is the major reason?
A) segregation of maternal and paternal alleles
B) recurrent mutations forming new alleles
C) crossing over during prophase I
D) different possible alignments of chromosomes
E) the tendency for dominant alleles to segregate together

D

6) Why did Mendel continue some of his experiments to the F₂ or F₃ generation?

A) to obtain a larger number of offspring on which to base statistics
B) to observe whether or not a recessive trait would reappear
C) to observe whether or not the dominant trait would reappear
D) to distinguish which alleles were segregating
E) to be able to describe the frequency of recombination

B

9) A sexually reproducing animal has two unlinked genes, one for head shape (H) and one for tail length (T). Its genotype is HhTt. Which of the following genotypes is possible in a gamete from this organism?

A) tt
B) Hh
C) HhTt
D) T
E) HT

E

10) When crossing an organism that is homozygous recessive for a single trait with a heterozygote, what is the chance of producing an offspring with the homozygous recessive phenotype?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%

C

11) Mendel accounted for the observation that traits which had disappeared in the F₁ generation reappeared in the F₂ generation by proposing that
A) new mutations were frequently generated in the F₂ progeny, "reinventing" traits that had been lost in the F₁.
B) the mechanism controlling the appearance of traits was different between the F₁ and the F₂ plants.
C) traits can be dominant or recessive, and the recessive traits were obscured by the dominant ones in the F₁.
D) the traits were lost in the F₁ due to dominance of the parental traits.
E) members of the F₁ generation had only one allele for each trait, but members of the F₂ had two alleles for each trait.

C

16) Black fur in mice (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). Short tails (T) are dominant to long tails (t). What fraction of the progeny of crosses BbTt × BBtt will be expected to have black fur and long tails?

A) 1/16
B) 3/16
C) 3/8
D) 1/2
E) 9/16

D

17) In certain plants, tall is dominant to short. If a heterozygous plant is crossed with a homozygous tall plant, what is the probability that the offspring will be short?
A) 1
B) 1/2
C) 1/4
D) 1/6
E) 0

E

18) In the cross AaBbCc × AaBbCc, what is the probability of producing the genotype AABBCC?
A) 1/4
B) 1/8
C) 1/16
D) 1/32
E) 1/64

E

19) Given the parents AABBCc × AabbCc, assume simple dominance for each trait and independent assortment. What proportion of the progeny will be expected to phenotypically resemble the first parent?
A) 1/4
B) 1/8
C) 3/4
D) 3/8
E) 1

C

20) Which of the following is the best statement of the use of the addition rule of probability?
A) the probability that two or more independent events will both occur
B) the probability that two or more independent events will both occur in the offspring of one set of parents
C) the probability that either one of two independent events will occur
D) the probability of producing two or more heterozygous offspring
E) the likelihood that a trait is due to two or more meiotic events

C

21) Which of the following calculations require that you utilize the addition rule?
A) Calculate the probability of black offspring from the cross AaBb × AaBb, when B is the symbol for black.
B) Calculate the probability of children with both cystic fibrosis and polydactyly when parents are each heterozygous for both genes.
C) Calculate the probability of each of four children having cystic fibrosis if the parents are both heterozygous.
D) Calculate the probability of a child having either sickle-cell anemia or cystic fibrosis if parents are each heterozygous for both.
E) Calculate the probability of purple flower color in a plot of 50 plants seeded from a self-fertilizing heterozygous parent plant.

D

22) In cattle, roan coat color (mixed red and white hairs) occurs in the heterozygous (Rr) offspring of red (RR) and white (rr) homozygotes. Which of the following crosses would produce offspring in the ratio of 1 red:2 roan:1 white?

A) red × white
B) roan × roan
C) white × roan
D) red × roan
E) The answer cannot be determined from the information provided.

B

23) Which of the following describes the ability of a single gene to have multiple phenotypic effects?
A) incomplete dominance
B) multiple alleles
C) pleiotropy
D) epistasis

C

24) Cystic fibrosis affects the lungs, the pancreas, the digestive system, and other organs, resulting in symptoms ranging from breathing difficulties to recurrent infections. Which of the following terms best describes this?
A) incomplete dominance
B) multiple alleles
C) pleiotropy
D) epistasis
E) codominance

C

27) Which of the following provides an example of epistasis?

A) Recessive genotypes for each of two genes (aabb) results in an albino corn snake.
B) The allele b17 produces a dominant phenotype, although b1 through b16 do not.
C) In rabbits and many other mammals, one genotype (cc) prevents any fur color from developing.
D) In Drosophila (fruit flies), white eyes can be due to an X-linked gene or to a combination of other genes.
E) In cacti, there are several genes for the type of spines.

C

28) Most genes have many more than two alleles. However, which of the following is also true?

A) At least one allele for a gene always produces a dominant phenotype.
B) Most of the alleles will never be found in a live-born organism.
C) All of the alleles but one will produce harmful effects if homozygous.
D) There may still be only two phenotypes for the trait.
E) More than two alleles in a genotype is considered lethal.

D

33) The frequency of heterozygosity for the sickle-cell anemia allele is unusually high, presumably because this reduces the frequency of malaria. Such a relationship is related to which of the following?
A) Mendel's law of independent assortment
B) Mendel's law of segregation
C) Darwin's explanation of natural selection
D) Darwin's observations of competition
E) the malarial parasite changing the allele

C

36) One of two major forms of a human condition called neurofibromatosis (NF 1) is inherited as a dominant gene, although it may range from mildly to very severely expressed. If a young child is the first in her family to be diagnosed, which of the following is the best explanation?

A) The mother carries the gene but does not express it at all.
B) One of the parents has very mild expression of the gene.
C) The condition skipped a generation in the family.
D) The child has a different allele of the gene than the parents.

B

In a particular plant, leaf color is controlled by gene locus D. Plants with at least one allele D have dark green leaves, and plants with the homozygous recessive dd genotype have light green leaves. A true-breeding dark-leaved plant is crossed with a light-leaved one, and the F₁ offspring is allowed to self-pollinate. The predicted outcome of the F₂ is diagrammed in the Punnett square shown in Figure 14.1, where 1, 2, 3, and 4 represent the genotypes corresponding to each box within the square.

37) Which of the boxes marked 1-4 correspond to plants with dark leaves?
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2
C) 2 and 3
D) 4 only
E) 1, 2, and 3

E

In a particular plant, leaf color is controlled by gene locus D. Plants with at least one allele D have dark green leaves, and plants with the homozygous recessive dd genotype have light green leaves. A true-breeding dark-leaved plant is crossed with a light-leaved one, and the F₁ offspring is allowed to self-pollinate. The predicted outcome of the F₂ is diagrammed in the Punnett square shown in Figure 14.1, where 1, 2, 3, and 4 represent the genotypes corresponding to each box within the square.

38) Which of the boxes correspond to plants with a heterozygous genotype?
A) 1
B) 1 and 2
C) 1, 2, and 3
D) 2 and 3
E) 2, 3, and 4

D

In a particular plant, leaf color is controlled by gene locus D. Plants with at least one allele D have dark green leaves, and plants with the homozygous recessive dd genotype have light green leaves. A true-breeding dark-leaved plant is crossed with a light-leaved one, and the F₁ offspring is allowed to self-pollinate. The predicted outcome of the F₂ is diagrammed in the Punnett square shown in Figure 14.1, where 1, 2, 3, and 4 represent the genotypes corresponding to each box within the square.

39) Which of the plants will be true-breeding?
A) 1 and 4 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1, 2, 3, and 4
D) 1 only
E) 1 and 2 only

A

The following question refer to the pedigree chart in Figure 14.2 for a family, some of whose members exhibit the dominant trait, W. Affected individuals are indicated by a dark square or circle.

40) What is the genotype of individual II-5?
A) WW
B) Ww
C) ww
D) WW or ww
E) ww or Ww

C

The following question refer to the pedigree chart in Figure 14.2 for a family, some of whose members exhibit the dominant trait, W. Affected individuals are indicated by a dark square or circle.

41) What is the likelihood that the progeny of IV-3 and IV-4 will have the trait?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%

C

The following question refer to the pedigree chart in Figure 14.2 for a family, some of whose members exhibit the dominant trait, W. Affected individuals are indicated by a dark square or circle.

42) What is the probability that individual III-1 is Ww?
A) 3/4
B) 1/4
C) 2/4
D) 2/3
E) 1

E

Use the following pedigree (Figure 14.3) for a family in which dark-shaded symbols represent individuals with one of the two major types of colon cancer. Numbers under the symbols are the individual's age at the time of diagnosis.

43) What is the genotype of the deceased individual in generation II?
A) homozygous for a gene for colon cancer
B) homozygous for both cancer alleles from his mother
C) heterozygous for a gene for colon cancer
D) affected by the same colon cancer environmental factor as his mother
E) carrier of all of the several known genes for colon cancer

C

Use the following pedigree (Figure 14.3) for a family in which dark-shaded symbols represent individuals with one of the two major types of colon cancer. Numbers under the symbols are the individual's age at the time of diagnosis.

44) In each generation of this family after generation I, the age at diagnosis is significantly lower than would be found in nonfamilial (sporadic) cases of this cancer (~ 63 years). What is the most likely reason?

A) Members of this family know to be checked for colon cancer early in life.
B) Hereditary (or familial) cases of this cancer typically occur at earlier ages than do nonfamilial forms.
C) This is pure chance; it would not be expected if you were to look at a different family.
D) This cancer requires mutations in more than this one gene.
E) Affected members of this family are born with colon cancer, and it can be detected whenever they are first tested.

B

Use the following pedigree (Figure 14.3) for a family in which dark-shaded symbols represent individuals with one of the two major types of colon cancer. Numbers under the symbols are the individual's age at the time of diagnosis.

45) From this pedigree, how does this trait seem to be inherited?
A) from mothers
B) as an autosomal recessive
C) as a result of epistasis
D) as an autosomal dominant
E) as an incomplete dominant

D

Use the following pedigree (Figure 14.3) for a family in which dark-shaded symbols represent individuals with one of the two major types of colon cancer. Numbers under the symbols are the individual's age at the time of diagnosis.

46) The affected woman in generation IV is thinking about her future and asks her oncologist (cancer specialist) whether she can know whether any or all of her children will have a high risk of the same cancer. The doctor would be expected to advise which of the following?

I. genetic counseling
II. prenatal diagnosis when/if she becomes pregnant
III. testing to see whether she has the allele
IV. testing to see whether her future spouse or partner has the allele

A) I only
B) II only
C) I and II only
D) I, II, and III only
E) III and IV only

Answer: C

C

47

Two true-breeding stocks of pea plants are crossed. One parent has red, axial flowers and the other has white, terminal flowers; all F₁ individuals have red, axial flowers. The genes for flower color and location assort independently.

47) If 1,000 F₂ offspring resulted from the cross, approximately how many of them would you expect to have red, terminal flowers?
A) 65
B) 190
C) 250
D) 565
E) 750

B

48

Two true-breeding stocks of pea plants are crossed. One parent has red, axial flowers and the other has white, terminal flowers; all F₁ individuals have red, axial flowers. The genes for flower color and location assort independently.

48) Among the F₂ offspring, what is the probability of plants with white axial flowers?
A) 9/16
B) 1/16
C) 3/16
D) 1/8
E) 1/4

C

Labrador retrievers are black, brown, or yellow. In a cross of a black female with a brown male, results can be either all black puppies, 1/2 black to 1/2 brown puppies, or 3/4 black to 1/4 yellow puppies.

49) These results indicate which of the following?
A) Brown is dominant to black.
B) Black is dominant to brown and to yellow.
C) Yellow is dominant to black.
D) There is incomplete dominance.
E) Epistasis is involved.

E

50

Labrador retrievers are black, brown, or yellow. In a cross of a black female with a brown male, results can be either all black puppies, 1/2 black to 1/2 brown puppies, or 3/4 black to 1/4 yellow puppies.

50) How many genes must be responsible for these coat colors in Labrador retrievers?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5

B

Labrador retrievers are black, brown, or yellow. In a cross of a black female with a brown male, results can be either all black puppies, 1/2 black to 1/2 brown puppies, or 3/4 black to 1/4 yellow puppies.

51) In one type cross of black × black, the results were as follows:
9/16 black
4/16 yellow
3/16 brown
The genotype aabb must result in which of the following?
A) black
B) brown
C) yellow
D) a lethal result
E) white

C

52

Radish flowers may be red, purple, or white. A cross between a red-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant yields all-purple offspring. The part of the radish we eat may be oval or long, with long being the dominant characteristic.

52) If true-breeding red long radishes are crossed with true-breeding white oval radishes, the F₁ will be expected to be which of the following?
A) red and long
B) red and oval
C) white and long
D) purple and long
E) purple and oval

D

Radish flowers may be red, purple, or white. A cross between a red-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant yields all-purple offspring. The part of the radish we eat may be oval or long, with long being the dominant characteristic.

53) In the F₂ generation of the above cross, which of the following phenotypic ratios would be expected?
A) 9:3:3:1
B) 9:4:3
C) 1:1:1:1
D) 1:1:1:1:1:1
E) 6:3:3:2:1:1

E

54

Radish flowers may be red, purple, or white. A cross between a red-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant yields all-purple offspring. The part of the radish we eat may be oval or long, with long being the dominant characteristic.

54) The flower color trait in radishes is an example of which of the following?
A) a multiple allelic system
B) sex linkage
C) codominance
D) incomplete dominance
E) epistasis

D

57

Tallness (T) in snapdragons is dominant to dwarfness (t), while red (R) flower color is dominant to white (r). The heterozygous condition results in pink (Rr) flower color.

57) A dwarf, red snapdragon is crossed with a plant homozygous for tallness and white flowers. What are the genotype and phenotype of the F1 individuals?
A) ttRr—dwarf and pink
B) ttrr—dwarf and white
C) TtRr—tall and red
D) TtRr—tall and pink
E) TTRR—tall and red

D

Skin color in a certain species of fish is inherited via a single gene with four different alleles.

59) How many different types of gametes would be possible in this system?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 8
E) 16

C

Skin color in a certain species of fish is inherited via a single gene with four different alleles.

60) One fish of this type has alleles 1 and 3 (S1S3) and its mate has alleles 2 and 4 (S2S4). If each allele confers a unit of color darkness such that S1 has one unit, S2 has two units, and so on, then what proportion of their offspring would be expected to have five units of color?
A) 1/4
B) 1/5
C) 1/8
D) 1/2
E) 0

D

61

Gene S controls the sharpness of spines in a type of cactus. Cactuses with the dominant allele, S, have sharp spines, whereas homozygous recessive ss cactuses have dull spines. At the same time, a second gene, N, determines whether or not cactuses have spines. Homozygous recessive nn cactuses have no spines at all.

61) The relationship between genes S and N is an example of

A) incomplete dominance.
B) epistasis.
C) complete dominance.
D) pleiotropy.
E) codominance.

B

64

Feather color in budgies is determined by two different genes, Y and B, one for pigment on the outside and one for the inside of the feather. YYBB, YyBB, or YYBb is green; yyBB or yyBb is blue; YYbb or Yybb is yellow; and yybb is white.

64) A blue budgie is crossed with a white budgie. Which of the following results is not possible?
A) green offspring only
B) yellow offspring only
C) blue offspring only
D) green and yellow offspring
E) a 9:3:3:1 ratio

D

Feather color in budgies is determined by two different genes, Y and B, one for pigment on the outside and one for the inside of the feather. YYBB, YyBB, or YYBb is green; yyBB or yyBb is blue; YYbb or Yybb is yellow; and yybb is white.

65) Two blue budgies were crossed. Over the years, they produced 22 offspring, 5 of which were white. What are the most likely genotypes for the two blue budgies?
A) yyBB and yyBB
B) yyBB and yyBb
C) yyBb and yyBb
D) yyBB and yybb
E) yyBb and yybb

C

CH 15

.......

5) A woman is found to have 47 chromosomes, including three X chromosomes. Which of the following describes her expected phenotype?

A) masculine characteristics such as facial hair
B) enlarged genital structures
C) excessive emotional instability
D) normal female
E) sterile female

D

6) Males are more often affected by sex-linked traits than females because

A) male hormones such as testosterone often alter the effects of mutations on the X chromosome.
B) female hormones such as estrogen often compensate for the effects of mutations on the X chromosome.
C) X chromosomes in males generally have more mutations than X chromosomes in females.
D) males are hemizygous for the X chromosome.
E) mutations on the Y chromosome often worsen the effects of X-linked mutations.

D

7) SRY is best described in which of the following ways?

A) a gene present on the X chromosome that triggers female development
B) an autosomal gene that is required for the expression of genes on the Y chromosome
C) a gene region present on the Y chromosome that triggers male development
D) an autosomal gene that is required for the expression of genes on the X chromosome
E) a gene required for development, and males or females lacking the gene do not survive past early childhood

C

8) In cats, black fur color is caused by an X-linked allele; the other allele at this locus causes orange color. The heterozygote is tortoiseshell. What kinds of offspring would you expect from the cross of a black female and an orange male?
A) tortoiseshell females; tortoiseshell males
B) black females; orange males
C) orange females; orange males
D) tortoiseshell females; black males
E) orange females; black males

D

9) Red-green color blindness is a sex-linked recessive trait in humans. Two people with normal color vision have a color-blind son. What are the genotypes of the parents?
A) XcXc and XcY
B) XcXc and XCY
C) XCXC and XcY
D) XCXC and XCY
E) XCXc and XCY

E

13) Sex determination in mammals is due to the SRY region of the Y chromosome. An abnormality of this region could allow which of the following to have a male phenotype?
A) Turner syndrome, 45, X
B) translocation of SRY to an autosome of a 46, XX individual
C) a person with an extra X chromosome
D) a person with one normal and one shortened (deleted) X
E) Down syndrome, 46, XX

B

14) In humans, clear gender differentiation occurs, not at fertilization, but after the second month of gestation. What is the first event of this differentiation?
A) formation of testosterone in male embryos
B) formation of estrogens in female embryos
C) anatomical differentiation of a penis in male embryos
D) activation of SRY in male embryos and masculinization of the gonads
E) activation of SRY in females and feminization of the gonads

D

15) Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) is caused by a gene on the human X chromosome. The patients have muscles that weaken over time because they have absent or decreased dystrophin, a muscle protein. They rarely live past their 20s. How likely is it for a woman to have this condition?

A) Women can never have this condition.
B) One-half of the daughters of an affected man could have this condition.
C) One-fourth of the children of an affected father and a carrier mother could have this condition.
D) Very rarely would a woman have this condition; the condition would be due to a chromosome error.
E) Only if a woman is XXX could she have this condition.

D

18) How would one explain a testcross involving F₁ dihybrid flies in which more parental-type offspring than recombinant-type offspring are produced?

A) The two genes are closely linked on the same chromosome.
B) The two genes are linked but on different chromosomes.
C) Recombination did not occur in the cell during meiosis.
D) The testcross was improperly performed.
E) Both of the characters are controlled by more than one gene.

A

19) What does a frequency of recombination of 50% indicate?
A) The two genes are likely to be located on different chromosomes.
B) All of the offspring have combinations of traits that match one of the two parents.
C) The genes are located on sex chromosomes.
D) Abnormal meiosis has occurred.
E) Independent assortment is hindered.

A

20) What is the reason that linked genes are inherited together?
A) They are located close together on the same chromosome.
B) The number of genes in a cell is greater than the number of chromosomes.
C) Chromosomes are unbreakable.
D) Alleles are paired together during meiosis.
E) Genes align that way during metaphase I of meiosis.

A

21) Three genes at three loci are being mapped in a particular species. Each has two phenotypes, one of which is markedly different from the wild type. The unusual allele of the first gene is inherited with either of the others about 50% of the time. However, the unusual alleles of the other two genes are inherited together 14.4% of the time. Which of the following describes what is happening?
A) The genes are showing independent assortment.
B) The three genes are linked.
C) The first gene is linked but the other two are not.
D) The first gene is assorting independently from the other two that are linked.
E) The first gene is located 14.4 units apart from the other two.

D

23) Recombination between linked genes comes about for what reason?
A) Mutation on one homolog is different from that on the other homolog.
B) Independent assortment sometimes fails because Mendel had not calculated appropriately.
C) When genes are linked they always "travel" together at anaphase.
D) Crossovers between these genes result in chromosomal exchange.
E) Nonrecombinant chromosomes break and then re-join with one another.

D

24) Why does recombination between linked genes continue to occur?
A) Recombination is a requirement for independent assortment.
B) Recombination must occur or genes will not assort independently.
C) New allele combinations are acted upon by natural selection.
D) The forces on the cell during meiosis II always result in recombination.
E) Without recombination there would be an insufficient number of gametes.

C

25) Map units on a linkage map cannot be relied upon to calculate physical distances on a chromosome for which of the following reasons?
A) The frequency of crossing over varies along the length of the chromosome.
B) The relationship between recombination frequency and map units is different in every individual.
C) Physical distances between genes change during the course of the cell cycle.
D) The gene order on the chromosomes is slightly different in every individual.
E) Linkage map distances are identical between males and females.

A

27) If nondisjunction occurs in meiosis II during gametogenesis, what will be the result at the completion of meiosis?
A) All the gametes will be diploid.
B) Half of the gametes will be n + 1, and half will be n - 1.
C) 1/4 of the gametes will be n + 1, 1/4 will be n - 1, and 1/2 will be n.
D) There will be three extra gametes.
E) Two of the four gametes will be haploid, and two will be diploid.

C

26) Which of the following two genes are closest on a genetic map of Drosophila?
A) b and vg
B) vg and cn
C) rb and cn
D) cn and b
E) b and rb

E

28) One possible result of chromosomal breakage is for a fragment to join a nonhomologous chromosome. What is this alteration called?
A) deletion
B) transversion
C) inversion
D) translocation
E) duplication

D

29) A nonreciprocal crossover causes which of the following products?
A) deletion only
B) duplication only
C) nondisjunction
D) deletion and duplication
E) duplication and nondisjunction

D

30) In humans, male-pattern baldness is controlled by an autosomal gene that occurs in two allelic forms. Allele Hn determines nonbaldness, and allele Hb determines pattern baldness. In males, because of the presence of testosterone, allele Hb is dominant over Hn. If a man and woman both with genotype HnHb have a son, what is the chance that he will eventually be bald?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 33%
D) 50%
E) 75%

E

32) A phenotypically normal prospective couple seeks genetic counseling because the man knows that he has a translocation of a portion of his chromosome 4 that has been exchanged with a portion of his chromosome 12. Although he is normal because his translocation is balanced, he and his wife want to know the probability that his sperm will be abnormal. What is your prognosis regarding his sperm?

A) 1/4 will be normal, 1/4 will have the translocation, and 1/2 will have duplications and deletions.
B) All will carry the same translocation as the father.
C) None will carry the translocation since abnormal sperm will die.
D) His sperm will be sterile and the couple might consider adoption.
E) 1/2 will be normal and the rest will have the father's translocation.

A

33) Abnormal chromosomes are frequently found in malignant tumors. Errors such as translocations may place a gene in close proximity to different control regions. Which of the following might then occur to make the cancer worse?

A) an increase in nondisjunction
B) expression of inappropriate gene products
C) a decrease in mitotic frequency
D) death of the cancer cells in the tumor
E) sensitivity of the immune system

B

35) What is the source of the extra chromosome 21 in an individual with Down syndrome?
A) nondisjunction in the mother only
B) nondisjunction in the father only
C) duplication of the chromosome
D) nondisjunction or translocation in either parent
E) It is impossible to detect with current technology

D

37) A couple has a child with Down syndrome. The mother is 39 years old at the time of delivery. Which of the following is the most probable cause of the child's condition?
A) The woman inherited this tendency from her parents.
B) One member of the couple carried a translocation.
C) One member of the couple underwent nondisjunction in somatic cell production.
D) One member of the couple underwent nondisjunction in gamete production.
E) The mother had a chromosomal duplication.

D

39) At which phase(s) is it preferable to obtain chromosomes to prepare a karyotype?
A) early prophase
B) late telophase
C) anaphase
D) late anaphase or early telophase
E) late prophase or metaphase

E

42) At what point in cell division is a chromosome lost so that, after fertilization with a normal gamete, the result is an embryo with 45, X?

I. an error in anaphase I
II. an error in anaphase II
III. an error of the first postfertilization mitosis
IV. an error in pairing

A) I or II only
B) II or IV only
C) III or IV only
D) I, II, or III only
E) I, II, III, or IV

E

49) Which of the following produces a Mendelian pattern of inheritance?
A) genomic imprinting
B) a mitochondrial gene mutation
C) a chloroplast gene mutation
D) viral genomes that inhabit egg cytoplasm
E) a trait acted upon by many genes

E

53) The pedigree in Figure 15.3 shows the transmission of a trait in a particular family. Based on this pattern of transmission, the trait is most likely
A) mitochondrial.
B) autosomal recessive.
C) sex-linked dominant.
D) sex-linked recessive.
E) autosomal dominant.

A

54

A man who is an achondroplastic dwarf with normal vision marries a color-blind woman of normal height. The man's father was 6 feet tall, and both the woman's parents were of average height. Achondroplastic dwarfism is autosomal dominant, and red-green color blindness is X-linked recessive.

54) How many of their daughters might be expected to be color-blind dwarfs?
A) all
B) none
C) half
D) one out of four
E) three out of four

B

55

A man who is an achondroplastic dwarf with normal vision marries a color-blind woman of normal height. The man's father was 6 feet tall, and both the woman's parents were of average height. Achondroplastic dwarfism is autosomal dominant, and red-green color blindness is X-linked recessive.

55) What proportion of their sons would be color-blind and of normal height?
A) none
B) half
C) one out of four
D) three out of four
E) all

B

56

A man who is an achondroplastic dwarf with normal vision marries a color-blind woman of normal height. The man's father was 6 feet tall, and both the woman's parents were of average height. Achondroplastic dwarfism is autosomal dominant, and red-green color blindness is X-linked recessive.

56) They have a daughter who is a dwarf with normal color vision. What is the probability that she is heterozygous for both genes?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%

E

A plantlike organism on the planet Pandora can have three recessive genetic traits: bluish leaves, due to an allele (a) of gene A; a feathered stem, due to an allele (b) of gene B; and hollow roots due to an allele (c) of gene C. The three genes are linked and recombine as follows:

A geneticist did a testcross with an organism that had been found to be heterozygous for the three recessive traits and she was able to identify progeny of the following phenotypic distribution (+ = wild type): (See Image)

57) Which of the following are the phenotypes of the parents in this cross?
A) 2 and 5
B) 1 and 6
C) 4 and 8
D) 3 and 7
E) 1 and 2

C

58

A plantlike organism on the planet Pandora can have three recessive genetic traits: bluish leaves, due to an allele (a) of gene A; a feathered stem, due to an allele (b) of gene B; and hollow roots due to an allele (c) of gene C. The three genes are linked and recombine as follows:

A geneticist did a testcross with an organism that had been found to be heterozygous for the three recessive traits and she was able to identify progeny of the following phenotypic distribution (+ = wild type): (See Image)

58) In which progeny phenotypes has there been recombination between genes A and B?
A) 1, 2, 5, and 6
B) 1, 3, 6, and 7
C) 2, 4, 5, and 8
D) 2, 3, 5, and 7
E) in all 8 of them

A

A plantlike organism on the planet Pandora can have three recessive genetic traits: bluish leaves, due to an allele (a) of gene A; a feathered stem, due to an allele (b) of gene B; and hollow roots due to an allele (c) of gene C. The three genes are linked and recombine as follows:

A geneticist did a testcross with an organism that had been found to be heterozygous for the three recessive traits and she was able to identify progeny of the following phenotypic distribution (+ = wild type): (See Image)

59) If recombination is equal to distance in centimorgans (cM), what is the approximate distance between genes A and B?
A) 1.5 cM
B) 3 cM
C) 6 cM
D) 15 cM
E) 30 cM

B

A plantlike organism on the planet Pandora can have three recessive genetic traits: bluish leaves, due to an allele (a) of gene A; a feathered stem, due to an allele (b) of gene B; and hollow roots due to an allele (c) of gene C. The three genes are linked and recombine as follows:

A geneticist did a testcross with an organism that had been found to be heterozygous for the three recessive traits and she was able to identify progeny of the following phenotypic distribution (+ = wild type): (See Image)

60) What is the greatest benefit of having used a testcross for this experiment?
A) The homozygous recessive parents are obvious to the naked eye.
B) The homozygous parents are the only ones whose crossovers make a difference.
C) Progeny can be scored by their phenotypes alone.
D) All of the progeny will be heterozygous.
E) The homozygous recessive parents will be unable to cross over.

C

A geneticist did a testcross with an organism that had been found to be heterozygous for the three recessive traits and she was able to identify progeny of the following phenotypic distribution (+ = wild type): (See Image)

61) The greatest distance among the three genes is between a and c. What does this mean?
A) Gene a is closest to b.
B) Genes are in the order: a–b–c.
C) Gene a is not recombining with c.
D) Gene a is between b and c.
E) Distance a–b is equal to distance a–c.

D