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RxPrep: Chapter 64, Schizophrenia/Psychosis

front 1

What is schizophrenia?

back 1

A chronic, severe and disabling thought disorder

front 2

What are common positive symptoms of schizophrenia?

back 2

  • Hallucinations
  • Delusions
  • Disorganized thinking/behavior
  • Difficulty paying attention

front 3

What are common negative symptoms of schizophrenia?

back 3

  • Lack of emotion (apathy)
  • Social withdrawal
  • Loss of motivation (abolition)
  • Lack of speech (alogia)
  • Loss of interest in everyday activities
  • Inability to plan or carry out activities
  • Poor hygiene

front 4

Definitions of extrapyramidal side effects (EPS): Dystonias

back 4

  • Prolonged contraction of muscles during drug initiation, painful muscle spasms
  • Higher risk in younger males
  • Centrally-acting anticholinergics like diphenhydramine and benztropine can be used for prophylaxis or treatment

front 5

Definitions of extrapyramidal side effects (EPS): Akathisia

back 5

  • Restlessness with anxiety and inability to remain still
  • Treated with BZDs or propanolol

front 6

Definitions of extrapyramidal side effects (EPS): Parkinsonism

back 6

  • Tremors, abnormal gait and bradykinesia
  • Treat with anticholinergics or propranolol if tremor is main symptom

front 7

Definitions of extrapyramidal side effects (EPS): Tradive dyskinesias (TD)

back 7

  • Abnormal facial movements (primarily in tongue or mouth)
  • Higher risk with elderly females
  • Can be irreversible, must stop drug and replace with SGA with low EPS risk (quetiapine, clozapine)

front 8

Definitions of extrapyramidal side effects (EPS): Dyskinesias

back 8

  • Abnormal movements
  • More common with dopamine replacement for Parkinson disease

front 9

Which molecules are primarily involved in the pathophysiology behind schizophrenia?

back 9

  • Dopamine
  • Serotonin
  • Glutamine

front 10

Medications/Illicit drugs that can cause psychotic symptoms

back 10

  • Anticholinergics (Centrally-acting, high doses)
  • Dextromethorphan
  • Dopamine or DA agonists (Requip, Mirapex, Sinemet)
  • Interferons
  • Stimulants, especially if already at risk
  • Systemic steroids (ICU psychosis)
  • Bath salts, cocaine, cannabis, LSD, methamphetamine, PCP (phencyclidine)

front 11

T/F: FGAs block dopamine (DA-2) receptors

back 11

True

front 12

What is a natural product used for psychosis and other psychiatric disorders (ex: ADHD, depression)

back 12

Fish oils

front 13

T/F: SGAs are used first-line due to lower incidence of EPS

back 13

True

front 14

Formulations of antipsychotics (d/t poor adherence in schizophrenia patients)

back 14

  • Long-Acting injections, given IM
  • ODTs (useful with dysphagia and prevents cheeking)
  • Oral solutions/suspensions (PEG tube)
  • Acute IM injections, given IM to provide "stat" relief and calm an agitated patient

front 15

Haldol cocktail

back 15

Haloperidol, lorazepam and diphenhydramine

front 16

T/F: It is okay to give olanzapine and BZDs

back 16

False

front 17

T/F: Antipsychotics are not indicated for agitation control in elderly with dementia-related psychosis due to increased risk of mortality

back 17

True

front 18

High potency FGA still used

back 18

Haloperidol (Haldol, haldol decanoate)

front 19

How often is haldol decanoate administered intramuscularly?

back 19

Monthly

front 20

Which long-acting injections are administered every 4 weeks?

back 20

  • Haldol Decanoate
  • Invega Sustenna
  • Abilify Maintena

front 21

Which long-acting injections are administered every 2 weeks?

back 21

  • Risperdal Consta
  • Fluphenazine decanoate

front 22

Which long-acting injection is administered every 3 months?

back 22

Invega Trinza

front 23

Which drugs are available as fast-acting injections?

back 23

  • Haloperidol
  • Zyprexa
  • Geodon
  • Fluphenazine

front 24

Which drugs are available as orally disintegrating tablets?

back 24

  • Abilify Discmelt
  • Clozapine Fazaclo
  • Risperdal M-Tab
  • Zyprexa Zydis
  • Saphris (SL)

front 25

How do you convert Haldol PO to monthly injection?

back 25

Use 10-20x the PO dose

front 26

Boxed warning for FGA, thioridazine

back 26

QT prolongation

front 27

Warnings: First-generation antipsychotics

back 27

  • QT prolongation
  • Anticholinergic effects
  • CNS depression
  • EPS
  • Hyperprolactinemia
  • Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) -- monitor for mental status changes, fever, muscle rigidity, autonomic instability

front 28

Side effects: First-generation antipsychotics

back 28

  • Sedation, sissiness, anticholinergic effects
  • EPS

front 29

T/F: Lower potency FGAs have increased sedation and decreased EPS

back 29

True

front 30

T/F: Higher potency FGAs have increased sedation and decreased EPS

back 30

False

front 31

What drug class is Haldol also apart of?

back 31

Butyrophenone, also used for Tourette syndrome

front 32

SGAs block which receptors?

back 32

D2 and 5-HT2A

front 33

Which antipsychotics are unique in that they are D2 and 5-HT1A partial agonists?

back 33

  • Aripiprazole
  • Brexpiprazole (also 5-HT2A antagonist)
  • Cariprazine

front 34

T/F: Aripiprazole is also approved for irritability with autism and Tourette disorder

back 34

True

front 35

Side effects: Aripiprazole

back 35

Akathisia, activating or sedating, HA, anxiety, constipation

front 36

Different formulations of Aripiprazole and their differences

back 36

  • Abilify Maintena -- IM suspension, give monthly
  • Aristada -- IM suspension, given every 4-8 weeks dependent on dose

front 37

Indication: Clozapine

back 37

Must be used only if failed to respond to treatment with 2 standard AP treatments, or had significant ADRs

front 38

Why is Clozapine used no sooner tha3rd-line

back 38

Due to severe side effect potential

front 39

What is the boxed warning for SGA, Clozapine?

back 39

Severe neutropenia/agranulocytosis (REMS)

front 40

Define severe neutropenia related to clozapine use

back 40

  • ANC > 1500 required to start
  • Discontinue if ANC < 1000
  • Monitor Weekly x 6 months, then Qbiweekly x 6 months, then monthly for life

front 41

Side effects: Clozapine

back 41

  • Seizures (dose-related)
  • Myocarditis and cardiomyopathy
  • Constipation, weight gain

front 42

T/F: Pharmacies must be REMS certified and patient must be enrolled with Clozapine REMS prior to initiating treatment

back 42

True

front 43

T/F: Smoking reduces drug levels of clozapine and olanzapine

back 43

True

front 44

Highest QT prolongation of antipsychotics

back 44

Thioridazine < Haloperidol < Ziprasidone

front 45

Counseling points with Lurasidone (Latuda)

back 45

  • Take with food ≥ 350 kcal
  • Somnolence, EPS (dystopias), nausea
  • Weight, lipid and blood glucose neutral

front 46

Brand name for Olanazpine injection

back 46

Relprevv IM suspension, lasts 2-4 weeks, restricted use, monitor for 3-hours post-injection

front 47

Side effects: Olanzapine

back 47

  • Somnolence
  • Metabolic syndrome (increase weight, blood glucose and lipids)

front 48

Can patient start on Invega trinza?

back 48

Only after receiving Invega Sustenna x 4 months

front 49

Active drug in Invega

back 49

Paliperidone

front 50

Side effects: Paliperidone

back 50

  • Increase prolactin -- sexual dysfunction, galactorrhea, irregular/missed periods
  • EPS, especially at higher doses
  • Metabolic syndrome (increase weight, BG and lipids)

front 51

Side effects: Quetiapine

back 51

  • Somnolence, metabolic syndrome
  • LOW EPS RISK
  • Take XR at night without food or with a light meal

front 52

Side effects: Risperidone

back 52

  • Increase prolactin -- sexual dysfunction, galactorrhea, irregular/missed periods
  • EPS, especially at higher doses
  • Metabolic syndrome (increase weight, BG and lipids)

front 53

Paliperidone is the active metabolite of what agent/drug?

back 53

Risperidone

front 54

T/F: Risperidone is also approved for irritability associated with autism

back 54

True

front 55

Side effects: Ziprasidone

back 55

  • Take with food
  • QT prolongation
  • IM injection 10mg Q2H or 20mg Q4H
  • Max injection: 40mg/day IM

front 56

Active ingredient in SL tablet, Saphris

back 56

Asenapine

front 57

T/F: Saphris SL tablet can cause tongue numbness

back 57

True

front 58

Important AEs of SGAs

Metabolic side effects -- highest risk

back 58

  • Clozapine, Olanzapine, Quetiapine

front 59

Important AEs of SGAs

Metabolic side effects -- lowest risk

back 59

  • Aripiprazole, Ziprasidone, Lurasisone, Asenapine

front 60

Important AEs of SGAs

EPS -- lowest risk

back 60

  • Quetiapine

front 61

Important AEs of SGAs

Hematologic effects -- highest risk

back 61

Clozapine (agranulocytosis)

front 62

Important AEs of SGAs

Increased prolactin -- highest risk

back 62

  • Risperidone, paliperidone

front 63

Important AEs of SGAs

Seizure -- highest risk

back 63

Clozapine (Dose-dependent)

front 64

Drug of choice to treat psychosis in Parkinson disease d/t low risk of EPS

back 64

Quetiapine

front 65

Drug approved for psychosis with Parkinson disease; dose not affect DA receptors

back 65

Pimavanserin (Nuplazid)

front 66

T/F: Only some antipsychotics can prolong the QT interval

back 66

False

front 67

What is Valbenazine (Ingrezza) indicated for?

back 67

Treatment of TD

front 68

How does Valbenazine work?

back 68

Reversibly inhibits vesicular monoamine transporter 2 (VMAT2), a transporter that regulates monamine uptake from the cytoplasm to synaptic vesicle for storage and release

front 69

Other than Valbenazine, what is another VMAT2 inhibitor indicated for TD?

back 69

Deutetrabenazine (Austedo)

front 70

Deutetrabenazine (Austedo) is also approved for what indication?

back 70

Chorea associated with Huntington's disease

front 71

Side effect: Valbenazine (Ingrezza) and Deutetrabenazine (Austedo)

back 71

Somnolence

front 72

Contraindication for use of Deutetrabenazine (Austedo)

back 72

Hepatic impairment, administration within 14 days of MAOI

front 73

Valbenazine (Ingrezza) and Deutetrabenazine (Austedo) are substrates of CYP3A4 and 2D6, therefore dose reduction is required when given with _____________________

back 73

Strong inhibitors of CYP3A4 (itraconazole, clarithromycin) or 2D6 (paroxetine, fluoxetine)

front 74

Because Valbenazine (Ingrezza) is a P-gp inhibitor, it can increase the concentration of what cardiac drug?

back 74

Digoxin

front 75

What are signs of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)?

back 75

  • Hyperthemia (high fever, profuse sweating)
  • Extreme muscle rigidity, can lead to respiratory failure
  • Mental status changes
  • Tachycardia, tachypnea, and BP changes

front 76

In addition to stoping the antipsychotic, what is a drug that can be used to relax the muscles in treatment of NMS

back 76

Dantrolene (Ryanodex, Dantrium, Revonto)

front 77

Correct chemical class for chlorpromazine?

back 77

Phenothiazine

The phenothiazines are strong DA blockers; when used for other conditions (nausea), movement disorders are possible side effects and sedation is expected.

front 78

CD presents to the pharmacy with a prescription for lurasidone. What is an appropriate substitute?

back 78

Latuda

Latuda is the brand name for lurasidone.

front 79

BG is a 34 yr old male diagnosed with schizophrenia. He presents to the clinic for routine follow-up and for his monthly injection of Invega Sustenna, which he has been taking for 11 months. His PMH includes obesity, HTN, HLD, and 2 suicide attempt. His medications include amlodipine 10mg PO daily and atorvastatin 40mg PO at bedtime. He smokes 1/2 pack of cigarettes per day. Which of the following medications can be given monthly or less frequently than monthly (ex: every 3 months)? SATA

back 79

  • Haloperidol decanoate
  • Abilify Maintena
  • Invega Trinza

Abilify Maintena and haloperidol decanoate are both administered monthly. Invega Trinza is administered every 3 months

Both fluphenazine decanoate and Risperdal Consta are given more frequently than monthly (every 2 weeks)

front 80

Which of the following is the generic name for the once-monthly injection Invega Sustenna?

back 80

Paliperidone

Invega Sustenna is a once-monthly injection of paliperidone. Nonadherance with therapy is the #1 problem with drug therapy in patients with schizophrenia. The long-acting formulations are important because they help improve adherence.

front 81

A physician has a patient who is forgetful and dose not take her antipsychotic on a regular basis. The physician wishes to use an atypical ("second generation") agent that can be administered every 2 weeks. Which agent comes in a 2-week intramuscular injection?

back 81

Risperidone

Risperdal Consta is given every 2 weeks.

front 82

A 23 yr old male was picked up by the police for acting erratically and threatening patrons at a subway stop. He was placed into the acute lock-down ward of the psychiatric hospital and given an injection of haloperidol and lorazepam. He quickly developed a very painful sustained contraction of his neck and trunk. Which medication can be administered to treat this side effect?

back 82

Benztropine

The treatment for dystonic reactions (in this case caused by haloperidol) includes a centrally-acting anticholinergic (such as benztropine and diphenhydramine). These are administered by injection for fast relief, or can be given orally for prophylaxis during therapy initiation.

front 83

A pharmacist will counsel a patient beginning therapy with Zyprexa. Which of the following are correct counseling statements? SATA

back 83

  • The other name for this medication is olanzipine
  • This medication can cause the patient to gain wait and can increase blood sugar and cholesterol. It is important to try and get regular exercise, such as walking, and to eat healthy foods

Olanzapine is sedating and is take QHS. It causes weight gain, elevated blood glucose and lipids and (like the others that cause similar problems) the patient will need all of these monitored, along with the blood pressure.

front 84

Select the correct chemical class for Haldol

back 84

Butyrophenone

The butyrophenones haloperidol (Haldol) and droperidol (Inapsine) are among the agents with the highest QT-prolongation risk. They work mainly by blocking D2 receptors

front 85

A patient gave the pharmacist a prescription for Seroquel 25mg BID #60. Which of the following is an appropriate generic substitution for Seroquel?

back 85

Quetiapine

The generic name of Seroquel is quetiapine

front 86

Haloperidol is available in which of the following formulations? SATA

back 86

  • Oral tablet
  • Fast-acting injection
  • Four-week depot injection

Haloperidol comes in an oral tablet, a short-acting injection and a monthly "decanoate" injection that is useful option for patients who have adherence issues.

front 87

VT is an 18 yr old male high school student who no longer wishes to socialize with his former friends. He is speaking little and has little desire for social interaction. When asked by his mother if he is interested in seeing his former friends, he states that he does not care. When considering the diagnosis criteria for schizophrenia, VT would best be described as exhibiting which type of symptoms?

back 87

Negative symptoms

Negative symptoms include a flat affect (emotionless face), alogia (hardly speaking) and abolition (not motivated to do anything). The negative symptoms contribute to social withdrawal and apathy. People with schizophrenia may also display disorganized speech and behavior.

front 88

A patient gave the pharmacist a prescription for Geodon 60mg PO BID #60. Which of the following is an appropriate generic substitution for Geodon?

back 88

Ziprasidone

The generic name of Geodon is ziprasidone

front 89

A female patient with a congenital heart defect is being started on an antipsychotic for treatment of schizophrenia. Which drug should be considered contraindicated due to the high risk for QT prolongation?

back 89

Ziprasidone

Thioridazine, haloperidol, chlorpromazine and ziprasidone have the highest risk of QT prolongation

front 90

BY is an elderly gentleman with advanced Parkinson disease. He has lived in a SNF for about 1 yr since he because unable to feed himself. BY tried to hit his roommate with a butter knife. He explained to the nurse that the roommate was planning to attack him when he was sleeping in order to take his eyes out and sell them. Which of the following medcaitions are possibly contributing to BY's psychosis?

back 90

  • Sinemet
  • Requip XL

Both levodopa/carbiodpa and dopamine agonists can aggravate psychosis; the DA agonists are higher risk.

front 91

Antipsychotics such as chlorpromazine and haloperidol exert their mechanism of action by blocking this receptor

back 91

Dopamine

Antipsychotics are primarily dopamine (D2) blocking agents, which is why they cause movement disorders. Some of the newer drugs act on serotonin receptors as well.

front 92

DB is a 72 yr old male suffering from dementia. Recently, DB struck his wife while she was helping him eat. The wife asked the physician for help and DB was prescribed risperidone 1mg BID. The pharmacist is concerned about which safety issue if DB takes the medication prescribed?

back 92

Cerebrovascular accident

front 93

An 18 yr old female is given a drug she has never used before, and it results in a drug-induced psychosis. Which of the following drugs can cause drug-induced psychosis?

back 93

  • PCP/MDPV (bath salts_
  • LSD
  • Dextromethorphan
  • Methamphetamine

front 94

AB has been taking an atypical antipsychotic as an adjunctive agent to treat resistant depression. After beginning the antipsychotic, she began to have feelings of restlessness and an urge to move. She states she cannot keep her legs still. AB is displaying what adverse effect from the use of an antipsychotic?

back 94

Akathisia

front 95

Which antipsychotic has the lowest risk of EPS?

back 95

Quetiapine

front 96

A pharmacist will counsel a patient who is starting treatment with asenapine. Which fo the following counseling statements is correct?

back 96

The medcication is a SL tablet that can make the tongue numb

front 97

A patient gave the pharmacist a prescription for Zyprexa 5mg PO QHS #30. Which of the following is an appropriate generic substitution for Zyprexa?

back 97

Olanzapine

front 98

A patient gave the pharmacist a prescription for Risperal 1mg PO TID #90. Which of the following is an appropriate generic substitution for Risperal?

back 98

Risperidone

front 99

RR is a 27 yr old female graduate student who is seen mumbling to herself repeatedly in class. When confronted, it is apparent that RR believes she is talking to someone. Choose the response that best describes the symptom of schizophrenia displayed by this patient

back 99

Hallucination

front 100

Which of the following prescription drug classes may induce or exacerbate psychotic symptoms? SATA

back 100

  • Mirapex
  • Adderall
  • Sinemet
  • Systemic steroids

front 101

A patient prescribed risperidone experienced weight gain and had trouble managing his diabetes. Which of the following antipsychotics has a lower risk of metabolic side effects?

back 101

Aripiprazole

front 102

A 28 yr old female patient experienced high prolactin levels while using the atypical agent risperidone. She experienced decreased, irregular menstrual periods. She found this very bothersome and discontinued the drug. Which of the following agents would put her at repeated risk for the same adverse reaction?

back 102

Paliperidone

front 103

BM is a 24 yr old male who has failed trails with olanzapine and ziprasidone. The psychiatrist plans to initiate clozapine therapy and sends the patient to have a CBC drawn. The patient cannot be started on clozapine if the ANC is below:

back 103

1500/mm3

front 104

A patient gave the pharmacist a prescription for Abilify 10mg PO daily #30. Which of the following is an appropriate generic substitution for Abilify?

back 104

Aripiprazole

front 105

JK is a 72 yr old female with a variety of medical conditions. 2 years ago, her family reported that she was displaying paranoid delusions, including the belief that her daughter was trying to kill her by poisoning her food. The physician prescribed risperidone, which has been helpful. At clinic today, JK is darting her tongue in and out and blinking in an involuntary manner. She is displaying the following AE from the use of an antipsychotic:

back 105

Tardive dyskinesia

front 106

SJ has failed several trials of antipsychotics. He continues to respond to "voices" that constantly torment him. He has tried to commit suicide several times. His other medical conditions include seizures (well-controlled since childhood), depression, anxiety, elevated cholesterol and prediabetes. SJ's HCP would like to start clozapine. His WBC count in 5,500 cells/mm3 and his ANC is 1,890/mm3. Choose the correct statements. SATA

back 106

  • Clozapine could worsen the patient's seizure disorder
  • It is reasonable to consider clozapine since the patient has failed several antipsychotics
  • The patients ANC is appropriate to begin clozapine therapy
  • The patient should be counseled on the side effect of hypersalivation

front 107

A female patient has been taking haloperidol 1mg BID. Her family noticed an unusual "smacking" motion made with her lips and unusual eye movements. What is the best course of action?

back 107

Switch to quetiapine

front 108

RD is a 52 yr old female patient with schizophrenia, depression, elevated cholesterol, pre-diabetes and hypothyroidism. The physician is considering a trial with olanzapine. Choose the correct statements regarding the use of olanzapine in this patient. SATA

back 108

  • It can increase cholesterol
  • It can increase blood glucose and weight
  • It is sedating and is generally taken at bedtime

front 109

What is the rationale behind the production of several different formulations of ODTs for schizophrenia?

back 109

Some patients with schizophrenia will "cheek" the medication and spit it out later

front 110

CF is 74 yr old female who has a unilateral tremor in her right hand consistent with Parkinson disease. The physician needs to choose an antipsychotic for CF. Which of the following agents has the lowest risk for movement disorders?

back 110

Quetiapine

front 111

Which of the following drugs requires prescribers, pharmacists, and patients to participate in a REMS program?

back 111

Clozapine